West Bengal State Staff Selection Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
By what margin did South Africa beat India in the first Test at Eden Gardens, Kolkata in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 30 runs
South Africa won by 30 runs after bowling India out for 93 while chasing 124.
Who was the Player of the Match in the India vs South Africa first Test at Kolkata in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Simon Harmer
Off-spinner Simon Harmer took 4-30 and 4-21 (8-51 in the match) and was Player of the Match.
Consider the following statements about the India vs South Africa Kolkata Test (November 2025): 1. It was South Africa's first Test win in India since 2010. 2. India were bowled out for 93 while chasing a target of 124. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct, as reported by The Hindu and BBC Sport.
What is the enumeration phase of Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?
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Correct answer: B — 4 November – 4 December 2025
The enumeration phase runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
How many States and Union Territories are covered under Phase II of the SIR of electoral rolls?
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Correct answer: C — 12
Phase II covers 12 States/UTs, from Andaman & Nicobar to West Bengal.
Approximately how many electors (as on 27 October 2025) are covered under Phase II of the SIR?
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Correct answer: D — 50.99 crore
The ECI bulletin lists 50,99,72,687 electors across the 12 States/UTs.
INS Ikshak, commissioned on 6 November 2025, is which ship of the Survey Vessel (Large) class?
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Correct answer: C — Third
INS Ikshak is the third Survey Vessel (Large) to be commissioned into the Indian Navy.
Which shipyard built INS Ikshak, the survey vessel commissioned in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers, Kolkata
INS Ikshak was built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
INS Ikshak, the first Survey Vessel (Large) designed with dedicated women's accommodation, was commissioned on 6 November 2025 at which naval base?
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Correct answer: D — Kochi
INS Ikshak was commissioned at Naval Base, Kochi, on 6 November 2025.
Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, which began on 4 November 2025, covers how many States and Union Territories?
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Correct answer: B — 9 States and 3 UTs
SIR Phase II covers 9 States and 3 UTs (Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry).
Consider the following statements about SIR Phase II (November 2025): 1. The Election Commission ordered it under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Its enumeration period runs until 4 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ECI ordered the SIR under Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950, and the enumeration period runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
Approximately how many electors are covered by Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision that began in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 51 crore
Phase II covers nearly 51 crore electors across 321 districts and 1,843 Assembly constituencies.
Which of the following is NOT among the States/UTs covered by SIR Phase II, which began on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Assam
Phase II covers Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry; Assam is not in the list.
Coal India Limited, which celebrated its foundation day on 1 November 2025, completed how many years of its establishment?
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Correct answer: A — 50 years
CIL completed 50 years of its establishment and stepped into its 51st year on 1 November 2025.
According to Coal India's chairman at its 51st Foundation Day, the company meets about what share of the nation's energy requirements?
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Correct answer: D — 55%
CIL Chairman Sanoj Kumar Jha said the company currently meets about 55% of the nation's energy requirements.
Where was the Election Commission's two-day Conference of Chief Electoral Officers on SIR preparedness held in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management, New Delhi
PIB (ECI): the two-day conference concluded at the India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
At the October 2025 CEOs' conference, the Election Commission held one-to-one interactions with CEOs of poll-bound states/UT. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB (ECI): the Commission interacted one-to-one with CEOs of Assam, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Kerala and West Bengal. Karnataka was not among them.
The Haldia Multi-Modal Terminal on National Waterway-1 was handed over by IWAI in October 2025 to which PPP operator?
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Correct answer: B — IRC Natural Resources
PIB: IWAI handed over the Haldia MMT to IRC Natural Resources, which emerged as the highest bidder.
Under which PPP model has IWAI given the Haldia Multi-Modal Terminal to a private operator?
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Correct answer: A — Equip, Operate and Transfer (EOT)
PIB: IWAI adopted a Public-Private Partnership model on an Equip, Operate and Transfer (EOT) basis for operation and maintenance over 10 years, extendable by 5.
Consider the following statements about the Haldia Multi-Modal Terminal: 1. It was built by IWAI with financial and technical assistance from the World Bank and has a capacity of 3.08 million tonnes per annum. 2. The concession for its operation and maintenance is for 10 years, extendable by another 5 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the terminal was built with World Bank assistance, has a capacity of 3.08 MMTPA, and the O&M concession is for 10 years, extendable by 5.
Where was the Combined Commanders' Conference 2025 held?
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Correct answer: D — Kolkata
The Combined Commanders' Conference 2025 was held in Kolkata, West Bengal, from 15 to 17 September 2025.
What was the theme of the Combined Commanders' Conference 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Year of Reforms – Transforming for the Future
This year's theme was 'Year of Reforms – Transforming for the Future'.
To which UNESCO list is India seeking a multinational nomination of Chhath Mahaparva, as discussed by the Ministry of Culture in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity
The nomination is for inscription on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity under the 2003 Convention.
Under which UNESCO convention would Chhath Mahaparva be inscribed on the intangible heritage list?
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Correct answer: B — 2003 Convention
The multinational nomination of Chhath Mahaparva is for the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity under the 2003 Convention.
Which of the following countries were represented by senior diplomats at the Ministry of Culture's IGNCA meeting of 16 September 2025 on the Chhath Mahaparva nomination?
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Correct answer: D — UAE, Suriname and the Netherlands
Senior diplomatic representatives of the UAE, Suriname and the Netherlands attended the IGNCA meeting; envoys to Mauritius and Fiji joined a separate virtual interaction later.
Which shipyard built 'Androth', the second Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft delivered to the Indian Navy on 13 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
Androth is the second of eight ASW SWCs being built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata, and was delivered at GRSE on 13 September 2025.
The name of the Navy's new anti-submarine shallow water craft 'Androth' is derived from an island in which archipelago?
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Correct answer: C — Lakshadweep
The name Androth is derived from Androth Island in the Lakshadweep archipelago, underscoring India's commitment to safeguarding its maritime territories.
Consider the following statements about the ASW Shallow Water Craft 'Androth': 1. At about 77 m, the ASW SWCs are the largest Indian Navy warships propelled by a diesel engine–waterjet combination. 2. Androth is the first of 16 such craft being built by GRSE. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct as per the Ministry of Defence. Statement 2 is incorrect: Androth is the second of eight ASW SWCs being built by GRSE.
The Bhagalpur–Dumka–Rampurhat railway doubling approved by the Cabinet in September 2025 passes through which three states?
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Correct answer: B — Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal
The 177 km section covers five districts in Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
What is the length of the Bhagalpur–Dumka–Rampurhat section approved for doubling in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 177 km
The CCEA approved doubling of the 177 km section at a cost of about ₹3,169 crore.
Which pilgrimage destinations get rail connectivity through the Bhagalpur–Dumka–Rampurhat section, as mentioned by the government?
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Correct answer: A — Deoghar (Baba Baidyanath Dham) and Tarapith
The government said the section provides connectivity to Deoghar (Baba Baidyanath Dham) and Tarapith (Shakti Peeth).
Himgiri, delivered to the Indian Navy on 31 July 2025, is which ship of the Nilgiri class (Project 17A)?
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Correct answer: D — Third
Himgiri (Yard 3022) is the third ship of the Nilgiri class and the first built at GRSE.
The Project 17A frigate Himgiri was built and delivered on 31 July 2025 at:
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Correct answer: B — Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers, Kolkata
Himgiri was delivered at GRSE, Kolkata, and is the first P17A ship built there.
Consider the following statements about Project 17A frigates: 1. They use Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion. 2. The earlier INS Himgiri, whose name the new frigate revives, was a Leander-class frigate decommissioned on 6 May 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are in the Defence Ministry release.
The four railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025 will increase the Indian Railways network by about:
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Correct answer: D — 574 km
The projects will add about 574 km to the existing network.
Which of the following was NOT among the four railway projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Wardha–Ballarshah 4th line
The four projects were Itarsi–Nagpur 4th line, Aurangabad–Parbhani doubling, Aluabari Road–New Jalpaiguri 3rd and 4th lines, and Dangoaposi–Jaroli 3rd and 4th lines.
Ajay (Yard 3034), launched at GRSE Kolkata on 21 July 2025, is which ship of the GRSE-built ASW Shallow Water Craft project?
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Correct answer: D — Eighth and last
PIB (MoD): Ajay is the eighth and last ship of the ASW SWC project built by GRSE.
Which ship, the first of the ASW Shallow Water Craft class, was commissioned on 18 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Arnala
PIB (MoD): the first ship of the class, Arnala, was commissioned on 18 June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the ship Ajay launched in July 2025: 1. Its indigenous content is over 80 percent. 2. It is propelled by gas turbines driving conventional propellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: indigenous content is over 80%, so 1 is correct; the ship is powered by diesel engines and propelled by waterjets, so 2 is wrong.
On 18 July 2025, the Prime Minister launched development projects worth how much in Durgapur, West Bengal?
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Correct answer: D — Over Rs 5,400 crore
PIB (PMO): the PM laid foundation stones, inaugurated and dedicated projects worth over Rs 5,400 crore in Durgapur.
The Durgapur-Kolkata section (132 km) of the Durgapur-Haldia Natural Gas Pipeline, dedicated on 18 July 2025, was laid under which project?
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Correct answer: A — Pradhan Mantri Urja Ganga
PIB (PMO): the section was laid as part of the Jagdishpur-Haldia and Bokaro-Dhamra Pipeline, also known as the Pradhan Mantri Urja Ganga (PMUG) project.
The BPCL City Gas Distribution project, whose foundation stone the PM laid on 18 July 2025, covers which districts of West Bengal?
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Correct answer: B — Bankura and Purulia
PIB (PMO): the PM laid the foundation stone of BPCL's City Gas Distribution project in Bankura and Purulia districts, worth about Rs 1,950 crore.
The Nilambur Assembly constituency, where a bye-election was announced in May 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
35-Nilambur is in Kerala.
The bye-elections announced by the ECI on 25 May 2025 covered how many Assembly constituencies in how many states?
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Correct answer: A — Five constituencies in four states
Five constituencies: Kadi (SC) and Visavadar in Gujarat, Nilambur in Kerala, Ludhiana West in Punjab and Kaliganj in West Bengal.
Consider the following statements about voter enrolment as noted by the ECI in May 2025: 1. Section 14 of the Representation of the People Act 1950 was amended by the Election Laws (Amendment) Act 2021. 2. After the amendment, there are four qualifying dates in a year to enrol as a voter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the ECI release.
Instructors from which of the following institutes were NOT part of the joint team that summited Mount Everest on 23 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ABVIMAS, Manali
The joint team had instructors from NIM Uttarkashi, HMI Darjeeling and JIM&WS Pahalgam.
Consider the following statements about the joint Everest expedition of 2025: 1. It was flagged off by Raksha Rajya Mantri Sanjay Seth from New Delhi on 26 March 2025. 2. It was organised to commemorate 75 years of the Himalayan Mountaineering Institute, Darjeeling. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the expedition commemorated 60 years of NIM Uttarkashi.
As part of acclimatisation before the Everest summit, the joint team of 2025 summited which peak on 18 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mt Lobuche
The team summited Mt Lobuche (6,119 m) on 18 April 2025.
Under the port restrictions imposed by DGFT on imports from Bangladesh in May 2025, imports of which of the following were exempted?
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Correct answer: D — Edible oil
The restrictions do not apply to fish, LPG, edible oil and crushed stone. Readymade garments are allowed only via Nhava Sheva and Kolkata seaports; processed food and wooden furniture are barred through the specified land ports.
Consider the following statements about DGFT Notification No. 07/2025-26 (May 2025): 1. The port restrictions do not apply to Bangladeshi goods transiting through India to Nepal and Bhutan. 2. The port restrictions apply to imports of fish and LPG from Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Fish, LPG, edible oil and crushed stone are exempt from the restrictions.
As per DGFT's May 2025 notification, readymade garments from Bangladesh may be imported only through which route?
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Correct answer: D — Nhava Sheva and Kolkata seaports
Readymade garments of all kinds may not be imported through any land port and are allowed only through Nhava Sheva and Kolkata seaports.
The Mount Everest expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 commemorates 60 years of which institute?
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Correct answer: C — Nehru Institute of Mountaineering, Uttarkashi
The Everest expedition marks 60 years of the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (NIM), Uttarkashi.
The Mount Kangchenjunga expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 is organised by NIMAS, which is located at:
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Correct answer: D — Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh
NIMAS, the National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports, is at Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh; the expedition is under 'Har Shikhar Tiranga'.
Where did the Election Commission begin its first-ever training of Booth Level Officers on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — IIIDEM, New Delhi
The training began at the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
BLOs from which States formed the first batch of the Election Commission's BLO training on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Bihar, West Bengal and Assam
The first batch had 109 BLOs from Bihar, West Bengal and Assam, poll-bound States.
Consider the following statements about Booth Level Officers (BLOs), as described by the Election Commission on 26 March 2025: 1. BLOs are State Government officials. 2. BLOs are appointed by the District Election Officers after the approval of the Chief Electoral Officer. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
BLOs are State Government officials. They are appointed by the Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) after the approval of the District Election Officers (DEOs).
Who was Player of the Match in the IPL 2025 opener between KKR and RCB on 22 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Krunal Pandya
Krunal Pandya was Player of the Match for figures of 3 for 29 as RCB won by seven wickets.
Who captained Royal Challengers Bengaluru in their win in the IPL 2025 opener on 22 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rajat Patidar
The Rajat Patidar-led RCB beat KKR by seven wickets at Eden Gardens.
Justice Harish Tandon was appointed Chief Justice of which High Court on 21 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Orissa High Court
Justice Harish Tandon, a judge of the Calcutta High Court, was appointed Chief Justice of the Orissa High Court.
Before his appointment as Chief Justice of the Orissa High Court in March 2025, Justice Harish Tandon was a judge of which High Court?
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Correct answer: B — Calcutta High Court
The Law Ministry's communiqué described him as a judge of the Calcutta High Court.
Consider the following statements in the context of the appointment of Justice Harish Tandon as Chief Justice of the Orissa High Court: 1. Judges of High Courts, including Chief Justices, are appointed by the President under Article 217(1). 2. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The appointment was made by the President under Article 217(1), which covers every High Court judge including the Chief Justice. The Governor is consulted but does not appoint.
What MSP was fixed for raw jute (TD-3 grade) for the 2025-26 season?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5,650 per quintal
PIB 2095068: the MSP of raw jute (TD-3 grade) was fixed at ₹5,650 per quintal, ₹315 above 2024-25.
What return over the all-India weighted average cost of production does the 2025-26 raw jute MSP ensure?
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Correct answer: D — 66.8%
PIB 2095068: the MSP ensures a return of 66.8% over the all-India weighted average cost of production.
Which state accounts for 82% of India's jute farmers, according to the Cabinet's January 2025 MSP decision?
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Correct answer: A — West Bengal
PIB 2095068: 82% of jute farmers belong to West Bengal; Assam and Bihar have 9% each of jute production.
What total amount did the High-Level Committee chaired by Amit Shah approve for disaster mitigation and capacity-building projects (announced 26 November 2024)?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,115.67 crore
PIB (MHA): the HLC approved ₹1,115.67 crore — ₹1,000 crore for landslide mitigation and ₹115.67 crore for Civil Defence training.
The ₹1,000-crore National Landslide Risk Mitigation project approved by the HLC in November 2024 is to be funded from which fund?
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Correct answer: C — National Disaster Mitigation Fund
PIB (MHA): the landslide proposal was considered for funding from the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF).
Consider the following statements about the HLC approvals announced on 26 November 2024: 1. The National Landslide Risk Mitigation project covers 15 States. 2. The Civil Defence training and capacity-building project covers only the North Eastern States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MHA): the landslide project covers 15 States, but the ₹115.67-crore Civil Defence project covers all States and UTs. Only 1 is correct.
Which edition of the pan-India coastal defence exercise Sea Vigil concluded on 21 November 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Fourth
PIB (Defence): the fourth edition of the Pan-India Coastal Defence Exercise Sea Vigil 24 concluded on 21 Nov 2024.
Since which year has the coastal defence exercise Sea Vigil been held?
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Correct answer: C — 2018
PIB (Defence): since its inception in 2018, Sea Vigil has played a pivotal role in India's coastal defence preparedness.
According to the official release on Sea Vigil 24, what is the length of India's coastline covered by the exercise?
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Correct answer: A — 11,098 km
PIB (Defence): Sea Vigil 24 spanned the entirety of India's 11,098 km coastline and its EEZ of 2.4 million sq km.
Which is India's first coastal industrial corridor, as described by DPIIT?
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Correct answer: B — East Coast Economic Corridor
PIB (DPIIT): the East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC) is India's first coastal corridor.
Which was India's first industrial corridor, before the four corridors approved in November 2016?
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Correct answer: D — Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor
PIB (DPIIT): India's first corridor was the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC).
Which company is building the Indian Navy's 25T bollard pull tugs, including 'Yuvan' launched on 17 November 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Titagarh Rail Systems Ltd
PIB (Defence): the contract for six 25T BP tugs was given to Titagarh Rail Systems Ltd, Kolkata.
The keels of which two 25T bollard pull tugs were laid in Kolkata on 17 November 2024, when 'Yuvan' was launched?
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Correct answer: A — Ojas and Sabal
PIB (Defence): the keels of the fifth and sixth tugs, Ojas and Sabal, were laid.
The Indian Navy's 25T bollard pull tugs being built in Kolkata follow the classification rules of:
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Correct answer: D — Indian Register of Shipping
PIB (Defence): the tugs are being built under the classification rules of the Indian Register of Shipping (IRS).
In November 2024, the High-Level Committee chaired by Amit Shah approved fire-services projects worth how much for Chhattisgarh, Odisha and West Bengal?
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Correct answer: D — ₹725.62 crore
PIB (MHA): the committee approved three projects of ₹725.62 crore; ₹5,000 crore is the NDRF allocation for the scheme and ₹2,542.12 crore the earlier approvals for 15 states.
The Centre's ₹5,000 crore allocation for 'Expansion and Modernization of Fire Services in the States' is under which fund?
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Correct answer: B — National Disaster Response Fund
PIB (MHA): the Central Government has allocated ₹5,000 crore under the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) for the scheme.
Of the three states in the November 2024 fire-services approval, which received the largest amount?
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Correct answer: A — West Bengal
PIB (MHA): West Bengal ₹376.76 crore, Odisha ₹201.10 crore and Chhattisgarh ₹147.76 crore.
Where was the keel of the first two Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels laid on 5 November 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers, Kolkata
PIB (MoD): the keel laying of Yard 3037 and 3038 was held at GRSE, Kolkata on 5 November 2024.
How many Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels were contracted by the MoD in March 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 11
PIB (MoD): contracts for 11 NGOPVs were concluded in March 2023 — seven with GSL, Goa and four with GRSE, Kolkata.
The Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels have an approximate tonnage of:
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Correct answer: B — 3,000 tonnes
PIB (MoD): the NGOPVs with an approximate tonnage of 3,000 t are envisaged for coastal defence, SAR, offshore asset protection and anti-piracy.
What is the name of the mascot unveiled on Coal India Limited's 50th Foundation Day (3 November 2024)?
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Correct answer: A — Angara
PIB (Coal): G Kishan Reddy launched the Golden Jubilee logo and unveiled the mascot 'Angara'.
Coal India Limited celebrated its 50th Foundation Day at its headquarters in which city?
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Correct answer: C — Kolkata
PIB (Coal): CIL marked its 50th Foundation Day at the CIL Headquarters in Kolkata.
In which year was the Coal Mines Special Provision (CMSP) Act enacted, as recalled at CIL's 50th Foundation Day?
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Correct answer: B — 2015
PIB (Coal): the CMSP Act was enacted in 2015 to augment coal production through transparent allocation of coal mines via auction.