SSC CPO Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What name has the Labour Ministry given to the authorised facilitators who will guide EPFO members in accessing benefits?
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Correct answer: B — EPF Suvidha Providers
PIB 2208948: the Government will introduce EPF Suvidha Providers, authorised facilitators who guide members and act as a bridge between citizens and EPFO.
By when did the Labour Minister say India would bring 100 crore citizens under social security coverage?
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Correct answer: C — March 2026
PIB 2208948: 94 crore people are covered today and by March 2026 India will ensure coverage for 100 crore citizens.
Consider the following statements made at the EPFO event at Vatva on 26 December 2025: 1. EPFO holds a fund corpus of about ₹28 lakh crore. 2. As per the ILO, India's social security coverage rose from 19% before 2014 to 64%. 3. EPF claims of up to ₹1 lakh only are settled automatically. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208948: the corpus is ₹28 lakh crore and coverage rose from 19% to 64% as per the ILO. Settlements up to ₹5 lakh are now processed automatically, so statement 3 is wrong.
India will chair which international initiative against trade in 'conflict diamonds' from 1 January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Kimberley Process
PIB 2208375: the Kimberley Process Plenary selected India to assume the chairpersonship of the Kimberley Process from 1 January 2026.
How many times will India have chaired the Kimberley Process when it takes over in 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Third
PIB 2208375: this will be the third time India has been entrusted with the chair of the Kimberley Process.
Consider the following statements about the Kimberley Process: 1. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme came into effect on 1 January 2003. 2. It has 60 participants, with the European Union and its member states counted as one. 3. Its participants account for about three-fourths of global rough diamond trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208375: KPCS came into effect on 1 January 2003 and KP has 60 participants (EU counted as one). Participants account for over 99% of global rough diamond trade, so statement 3 is wrong.
In which script is the Santhali version of the Constitution of India, released on 25 December 2025, written?
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Correct answer: A — Ol Chiki
PIB 2208453: the President said the Constitution is now available in the Santhali language, written in the Ol Chiki script.
Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
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Correct answer: C — 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
PIB 2208453 and 2208484: Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
Consider the following statements about the Santhali Constitution released in December 2025: 1. The Ol Chiki script was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925. 2. The translation was published by the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice. 3. It was released at a joint sitting in Parliament House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208484: Ol Chiki was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 and the translation was published by the Legislative Department. It was released at Rashtrapati Bhavan, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), which completed 25 years in December 2025, was launched on:
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Correct answer: B — 25 December 2000
PIB backgrounder 2208381: PMGSY was launched on 25 December 2000 to ensure all-weather connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.
PMGSY-IV (2024–29) aims to connect how many rural habitations?
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Correct answer: A — 25,000
PIB backgrounder 2208381: under PMGSY-IV, 25,000 habitations are to be connected through 62,500 km of roads with an outlay of ₹70,125 crore. (1,63,339 habitations were sanctioned under Phase I.)
In which year was the Road Connectivity Project for Left Wing Extremism Affected Areas (RCPLWEA) under the PMGSY framework launched?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
PIB backgrounder 2208381: RCPLWEA was launched in 2016 as a targeted intervention; PMGSY Phase II began in 2013.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Vision IAS in December 2025 for misleading UPSC result advertisements?
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Correct answer: A — ₹11 lakh
PIB 2208482: the CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹11 lakh on Vision IAS (AjayVision Education Private Limited).
'Misleading advertisement' is defined under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, as cited by the CCPA in its December 2025 order against a coaching institute?
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Correct answer: C — Section 2(28)
PIB 2208482: concealment of material information constituted a misleading advertisement under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Good Governance Day, observed on 25 December, marks the birth anniversary of:
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Correct answer: B — Atal Bihari Vajpayee
PIB 2208924: the Good Governance Day workshop commemorated the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. (Malaviya was also born on 25 December, but the Day honours Vajpayee.)
According to DARPG, how many public grievances were redressed during Good Governance Week 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Over 45 lakh
PIB 2208924: Good Governance Week saw over 57,000 camps, disposal of over 3 crore service delivery applications and redressal of over 45 lakh public grievances.
Under the railway fare rationalisation effective 26 December 2025, Second Class Ordinary fares do not increase for journeys up to:
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Correct answer: B — 215 km
PIB 2208532: in Second Class Ordinary there is no increase in fare for journeys up to 215 km.
By how much per kilometre were Mail/Express fares (AC and non-AC) revised from 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2 paise
PIB 2208532: in Mail/Express trains the fare increase is 2 paise per km across non-AC and AC classes.
Consider the following statements about the railway fare rationalisation of December 2025: 1. There is no change in fares for suburban services and season tickets. 2. Reservation fees and superfast surcharges have also been raised. 3. Revised fares apply only to tickets booked on or after 26 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208532: suburban and season ticket fares are unchanged and the new fares apply only to tickets booked on or after 26 December 2025. Reservation fees and superfast surcharges are unchanged, so statement 2 is wrong.
Who released 'Mahamana Vangmay', the final series of Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya's collected works, on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Vice President C.P. Radhakrishnan
PIB 2208546: Vice President C.P. Radhakrishnan released Mahamana Vangmay at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements about 'Mahamana Vangmay': 1. The second and final series comprises 12 volumes. 2. It is published by the Publications Division of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. 3. The first series was released by the Prime Minister in 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2208546: the final series has 12 volumes (about 3,500 pages), it is published by the Publications Division, and the first series was released by PM Modi in 2023. All three are correct.
Which body has the Environment Ministry asked to identify additional no-mining zones and prepare a Management Plan for Sustainable Mining for the Aravallis (December 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education
PIB 2208234: MoEF&CC directed ICFRE to identify additional areas where mining should be prohibited while preparing the MPSM for the entire Aravalli region.
As described by the Environment Ministry in December 2025, the Aravalli Range stretches between:
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Correct answer: A — Gujarat and the National Capital Region
PIB 2208234: the Aravallis form a continuous geological ridge extending from Gujarat to the National Capital Region.
Consider the following statements about the Centre's December 2025 directions on the Aravallis: 1. States must not grant any new mining leases anywhere in the Aravallis. 2. All mines already operating in the Aravallis must close immediately. 3. The Management Plan for Sustainable Mining will be placed in the public domain for consultation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208234: the ban covers grant of new mining leases and the MPSM will be placed in the public domain. Existing mines are to be regulated stringently in line with the Supreme Court's order, not closed, so statement 2 is wrong.
The BlueBird Block-2 satellite launched by LVM3-M6 on 24 December 2025 belongs to which company?
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Correct answer: C — AST SpaceMobile
ISRO and PIB 2208090: the mission launched the BlueBird Block-2 satellite of US-based AST SpaceMobile under a commercial agreement with NSIL.
Into which orbit did LVM3-M6 place the BlueBird Block-2 satellite?
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Correct answer: A — Low Earth Orbit
ISRO and The Hindu: LVM3-M6 placed BlueBird Block-2 in low Earth orbit (LEO).
Consider the following statements about ISRO's LVM3: 1. LVM3-M6 was the sixth operational flight of LVM3. 2. LVM3's upper stage is the C25 cryogenic stage. 3. LVM3 can carry about 8,000 kg to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: LVM3-M6 is the sixth operational flight and LVM3 has S200 strap-ons, an L110 core and a C25 cryogenic upper stage. Its GTO capability is 4,200 kg, so statement 3 is wrong.
What was the theme of National Consumer Day 2025, observed on 24 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Efficient and Speedy Disposal through Digital Justice
PIB 2208179: the theme for National Consumer Day 2025 was 'Efficient and Speedy Disposal through Digital Justice'.
According to the Consumer Affairs Minister on National Consumer Day 2025, how much did the National Consumer Helpline secure in refunds between April and December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹42.6 crore
PIB 2208179: the NCH facilitated refunds of ₹42.6 crore across 30 sectors by resolving over 63,800 refund grievances between April and December 2025. (₹2.13 crore is the CCPA's total penalties.)
Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust (RIIT), approved by SEBI as a public InvIT in December 2025, is sponsored by:
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Correct answer: B — National Highways Authority of India
PIB 2208143: NHAI-sponsored Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust has received SEBI approval as an InvIT.
Which investor group is the NHAI's public InvIT, RIIT, primarily meant to target?
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Correct answer: C — Retail and domestic investors
PIB 2208143: the public InvIT creates a long-term investment instrument primarily targeting retail and domestic investors.
Which Indian Standard released by BIS on National Consumer Day 2025 covers incense sticks (agarbatti)?
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Correct answer: D — IS 19412:2025
PIB 2208829: IS 19412:2025 – Incense Sticks (Agarbatti) — Specification was released on National Consumer Day 2025. IS 19445 is for bomb disposal systems and IS 19262 for electric tractors.
The BIS standard IS 19445:2025 on bomb disposal systems was taken up at the request of the Ministry of Home Affairs and which DRDO laboratory?
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Correct answer: A — Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory
PIB 2209191: formulation of IS 19445:2025 was initiated on a request from the MHA and the Terminal Ballistic Research Laboratory (TBRL), DRDO, which also convened the drafting panel.
Consider the following statements about BIS standards released on National Consumer Day 2025: 1. IS 19412:2025 prohibits the use of certain insecticides such as permethrin and fipronil in agarbattis. 2. IS 19262:2025 is a test code for electric agricultural tractors. 3. IS 19412:2025 applies only to machine-made agarbattis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208829 and 2209159: IS 19412 bans insecticides including permethrin and fipronil, and IS 19262 is the electric tractor test code. IS 19412 classifies agarbattis as machine-made, hand-made and traditional masala, so statement 3 is wrong.
Who was conferred the Rashtriya Vigyan Ratna Puraskar 2025 (posthumously) on 23 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jayant Vishnu Narlikar
PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Ratna for lifetime achievement was awarded posthumously to astrophysicist Prof. Jayant Vishnu Narlikar.
The Rashtriya Vigyan Team Puraskar 2025 was won by which team, credited with the 'Purple Revolution'?
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Correct answer: C — CSIR Aroma Mission
PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Team Award went to the CSIR-led Aroma Mission, which promoted lavender cultivation in the Himalayan region ('Purple Revolution').
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2025: 1. It was the second edition of the awards. 2. The Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is for scientists below the age of 45. 3. Lavender cultivation promoted by the winning team began at Bhaderwah and Gulmarg. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207860: the 2025 ceremony was the second edition; Vigyan Yuva–SSB is for scientists below 45; and lavender entrepreneurship began from Bhaderwah and Gulmarg in J&K. All three are correct.
Kisan Diwas (National Farmers' Day), observed on 23 December, marks the birth anniversary of which former Prime Minister?
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Correct answer: A — Chaudhary Charan Singh
ICAR: Kisan Diwas, observed annually on 23 December, commemorates the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Chaudhary Charan Singh.
Chaudhary Charan Singh, whose birth anniversary is observed as Kisan Diwas, was India's Prime Minister in which order?
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Correct answer: C — Fifth
ICAR-IIWM report (23.12.2025): National Farmers' Day commemorates the birth anniversary of India's fifth Prime Minister, Shri Chaudhary Charan Singh.
Which of the following correctly describes the Akash-NG missile system whose User Evaluation Trials were completed in December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Indigenous RF seeker and solid rocket motor
PIB 2207971: Akash-NG is equipped with an indigenous RF seeker and propelled by a solid rocket motor.
Representatives of which service witnessed the User Evaluation Trials of Akash-NG?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Air Force
PIB 2207971: the trials were witnessed by senior DRDO scientists and user representatives from the Indian Air Force.
As announced by MoSPI in December 2025, what will be the base year of the new Consumer Price Index series?
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Correct answer: B — 2024
PIB 2207861: the new series of CPI with base year 2024 is scheduled for release on 12 February 2026.
Consider the following statements about MoSPI's base revision plans announced in December 2025: 1. The new National Accounts (GDP) series will have 2022-23 as base year. 2. The new IIP series is scheduled for release before the new CPI series. 3. GST and PFMS data will be among the new data sources used. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2207861: GDP and IIP will have base 2022-23, and GST and PFMS are new data sources. The new CPI is due on 12 February 2026 while the new IIP is due on 28 May 2026, so statement 2 is wrong.
Where was MoSPI's first pre-release consultative workshop on the base revision of GDP, CPI and IIP held?
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Correct answer: C — Mumbai
PIB 2207861: the first pre-release consultative workshop was held on 26 November 2025 at Mumbai; the second was on 23 December 2025 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Which shipyard built 'Samudra Pratap', the Indian Coast Guard's first indigenously designed Pollution Control Vessel inducted in December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Goa Shipyard Limited
PIB 2208089: Samudra Pratap (Yard 1267) was built under the two-PCV project of Goa Shipyard Limited.
Samudra Pratap is the first Indian Coast Guard ship to be equipped with which capability?
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Correct answer: C — Dynamic Positioning (DP-1)
PIB 2208089: the PCV is the first Indian Coast Guard ship to be equipped with Dynamic Positioning capability (DP-1).
Consider the following statements about ICGS Samudra Pratap: 1. It is the largest ship in the Indian Coast Guard fleet. 2. It has over 60% indigenous content. 3. Its displacement is about 6,100 tonnes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208089: Samudra Pratap is the largest ship in the ICG fleet with over 60% indigenous content. Its displacement is 4,170 tonnes, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the India–New Zealand FTA concluded in December 2025, New Zealand will provide zero-duty access on what share of its tariff lines for Indian exports?
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Correct answer: C — 100%
PIB 2207300: New Zealand will eliminate tariffs on 100% of its tariff lines, giving duty-free access to all Indian exports.
How much investment has New Zealand committed to facilitate into India under the FTA concluded in December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — USD 20 billion over 15 years
PIB 2207300: New Zealand has committed to facilitate investments of USD 20 billion into India over the next fifteen years.
Consider the following statements about the India–New Zealand FTA: 1. Negotiations were formally launched on 16 March 2025. 2. India has kept dairy products out of its market access offer. 3. The FTA provides a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas for Indian professionals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207300: talks were launched on 16 March 2025, market access excludes dairy, and there is a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas. All three are correct.
Which core industry recorded the highest growth in November 2025, as per the Index of Eight Core Industries?
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Correct answer: D — Cement
PIB 2207434: cement production rose 14.5% in November 2025, the highest among the eight core industries.
The eight core industries together make up what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: B — 40.27%
PIB 2207434: the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the IIP. (28.04% is refinery products' weight within the ICI; 19.85% is electricity's.)
Which of the eight core industries carries the largest weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries (base 2011-12)?
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Correct answer: D — Petroleum Refinery Products
PIB 2207434: petroleum refinery products carry a weight of 28.04%, followed by electricity (19.85%), steel (17.92%) and coal (10.33%).
How many articles does the Financial Services Annex of the India–New Zealand FTA, concluded in December 2025, contain?
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Correct answer: B — 18
PIB 2207641: the annex text evolved into 18 articles, a notable advancement over standard GATS commitments.
Consider the following statements about the Financial Services Annex of the India–New Zealand FTA: 1. Negotiations on the annex began in May 2025. 2. It provides for cooperation on cross-border payments through Fast Payment Systems. 3. It requires India to allow unrestricted transfer of all financial data abroad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207641: annex talks began in May 2025 and cover Fast Payment Systems cooperation. On financial information, each party keeps the right to maintain its own rules on transfer, processing and storage, so statement 3 is wrong.
NITI Aayog's December 2025 report on internationalisation of higher education was prepared in collaboration with a consortium led by which institution?
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Correct answer: A — IIT Madras
PIB 2207555: the report is an outcome of collaboration between NITI Aayog and an IIT Madras-led consortium of knowledge partners.
At the launch of NITI Aayog's internationalisation report, what target for hosting international students by 2030 was suggested?
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Correct answer: D — 1 lakh
PIB 2207555: Dr. V.K. Paul said India must target to host 1 lakh international students across Central and State Universities by 2030.
Which shipyard designed and built 'Anjadip', the third Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft delivered to the Navy in December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
PIB 2207446: Anjadip was indigenously designed and built by GRSE, Kolkata, in partnership with L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli.
The ASW SWC 'Anjadip' is named after an island located off the coast of which place?
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Correct answer: A — Karwar, Karnataka
PIB 2207446: the ship derives its name from Anjadip Island located off the coast of Karwar, Karnataka.
Consider the following statements about the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft 'Anjadip': 1. It is the third of eight such craft. 2. These craft are the largest Indian naval warships propelled by waterjets. 3. It has about 60% indigenous content. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207446: Anjadip is the third of eight ASW SWC, and these are the largest Indian naval warships propelled by waterjets. Its indigenous content is over 80%, so statement 3 is wrong.
On which date is World Meditation Day observed?
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Correct answer: D — 21 December
PIB 2207153 and 2207225: the UN General Assembly declared 21 December as World Meditation Day. 21 June is International Day of Yoga.
Kanha Shanti Vanam, where the Vice-President attended World Meditation Day celebrations in December 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Telangana
PIB 2207153: the Vice-President participated in the celebrations at Kanha Shanti Vanam in Telangana.
Consider the following statements about World Meditation Day: 1. The United Nations General Assembly declared 21 December as World Meditation Day. 2. India co-sponsored the UNGA resolution on World Meditation Day. 3. The Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga, which marked the day, works under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207153: India co-sponsored the UNGA resolution declaring 21 December as World Meditation Day. PIB 2207225: MDNIY is under the Ministry of Ayush, so statement 3 is wrong.
By what margin did Pakistan beat India in the Under-19 Asia Cup final played in Dubai on 21 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 191 runs
ESPNcricinfo, The Hindu and Indian Express: Pakistan made 347/8 and bowled India out for 156, winning by 191 runs.
Which Pakistan batter scored 172 off 113 balls in the Under-19 Asia Cup final against India in December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sameer Minhas
ESPNcricinfo and The Hindu: opener Sameer Minhas made 172 off 113 balls. Ali Raza took 4/42.
As of 30 November 2025, what share of total order value on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) was secured by Micro and Small Enterprises?
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Correct answer: A — 44.8%
PIB 2207151: MSEs secured ₹7.44 lakh crore, 44.8% of total order value on GeM. 25% is the mandated annual procurement target.
The 'Womaniya' initiative on the Government e-Marketplace is aimed at which group?
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Correct answer: C — Women entrepreneurs selling to the government
PIB 2207151: Womaniya focuses on onboarding, training and improving access to procurement opportunities for women entrepreneurs.
Consider the following statements about the Government e-Marketplace (GeM): 1. Its Forward Auction module is used to sell government assets such as scrap, e-waste and old vehicles to the highest bidder. 2. Between December 2021 and November 2025, Forward Auctions worth more than ₹2,200 crore were facilitated. 3. Women-owned MSEs on GeM have secured cumulative orders worth over ₹78,000 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207152 covers the Forward Auction module and the ₹2,200 crore figure; PIB 2207151 gives ₹78,066 crore for women-owned MSEs. All three are correct.
Under the definition accepted by the Supreme Court in November 2025, a landform in the Aravalli districts is an 'Aravalli Hill' if it rises how high above local relief?
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Correct answer: B — 100 metres or more
PIB 2207176: any landform in the Aravalli districts with an elevation of 100 metres or more from the local relief is an Aravalli Hill. 500 m is the proximity used to define a range.
Which state was the only one with a formally established definition of the Aravallis for regulating mining, in force since 9 January 2006?
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Correct answer: A — Rajasthan
PIB 2207176: only Rajasthan had a formal definition, based on its 2002 committee report using the Richard Murphy landform classification, followed since 9 January 2006.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 20 November 2025 judgment on the Aravallis: 1. Two or more Aravalli Hills within 500 metres of each other form an Aravalli Range. 2. MoEFCC was directed to prepare a Management Plan for Sustainable Mining through ICFRE for the entire Aravallis. 3. New mining leases were allowed to continue while the plan is prepared. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207176: the range definition uses 500 m proximity and the Court directed an MPSM through ICFRE. It imposed an interim moratorium on new leases until the MPSM is prepared, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many days of wage employment per rural household per financial year does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025 guarantee?
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Correct answer: B — 125
PIB 2207187 and the Act's Section 5(1): not less than 125 days, up from the earlier 100-day entitlement under MGNREGA.
Which law does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025, which received Presidential assent in December 2025, replace?
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Correct answer: D — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
PIB 2207187: the Act replaces MGNREGA, 2005. The Gazette text says MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre.
Consider the following statements about the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. Centre–State cost sharing is 60:40, and 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States. 2. States may notify a pause aggregating to sixty days in a financial year during peak sowing and harvesting seasons. 3. The ceiling on administrative expenditure has been reduced from 9% to 6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207187: cost sharing is 60:40 (90:10 for NE and Himalayan States) and States may notify a 60-day aggregate pause. The administrative ceiling was raised from 6% to 9%, so statement 3 is wrong.
Consider the following statements about the Gazette text of the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It is Act No. 36 of 2025. 2. MGNREGA, 2005 stood repealed on the date of the President's assent. 3. The cost of the material component of works shall not exceed 40% at the district level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Gazette (PRS copy): Act No. 36 of 2025, and the material component is capped at 40% at district level. MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre, not on the date of assent, so statement 2 is wrong.
In which year did Japan launch the 'Central Asia plus Japan' Dialogue, whose first leaders' summit was held in Tokyo in December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 2004
MOFA Japan: Japan established the CA+JAD framework in 2004; the first Foreign Ministers' Meeting was held in Kazakhstan in August 2004.
According to the Tokyo Declaration of December 2025, which country will host the next 'Central Asia plus Japan' summit under the agreed rotation?
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Correct answer: A — Kazakhstan
Tokyo Declaration, para 53: the host country thereafter will be in English alphabetical order starting with Kazakhstan.
Consider the following statements about the 'Central Asia plus Japan' Dialogue summit of 20 December 2025: 1. It was the first meeting of the dialogue at the leaders' level. 2. It was chaired by Japanese Prime Minister Sanae Takaichi. 3. Afghanistan attended as a full member of the dialogue. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MOFA Japan: the summit was held for the first time at leaders' level and chaired by PM Takaichi. Attendees were the presidents of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan; Afghanistan was not a participant, so statement 3 is wrong.
What is the theme of Swachh Survekshan 2025-26, launched in December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Swacchata Ki Nayi Pehel – Badhayein Haath, Karein Safai Saath
PIB 2207000: the SS 2025-26 theme is 'Swacchata Ki Nayi Pehel – Badhayein Haath, Karein Safai Saath'.
Swachh Survekshan assessed 73 urban local bodies in 2016. About how many did it assess in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 4,900
PIB 2207000: from 73 ULBs in 2016 to assessing about 4,900 ULBs in 2024.
Consider the following statements about Swachh Survekshan 2025-26: 1. Citizens can give feedback round the year through platforms including the Vote For My City app and QR codes. 2. Assessment has been expanded from Ganga towns to river towns across the country. 3. The on-ground survey will be conducted by about 300 assessors over 15 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207000: feedback is open round the year and river towns are now covered. The survey uses over 3,000 trained assessors for 45 days, so statement 3 is wrong.