UPSC Civil Services Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
As of 19 November 2025, Indian Railways' cumulative freight loading in FY 2025-26 had crossed:
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Correct answer: C — 1 billion tonnes
Cumulative loading reached 1,020 million tonnes, crossing the 1-billion-tonne mark.
Which commodity was the largest contributor to Indian Railways' 1-billion-tonne freight loading in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — Coal
Coal contributed 505 MT, followed by iron ore (115 MT) and cement (92 MT).
Indian Railways' average daily freight loading in FY 2025-26 (as reported in November 2025) is about:
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Correct answer: C — 4.4 MT
Daily loading is around 4.4 MT, higher than 4.2 MT last year.
The 10th Session of APDIM, held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, in November 2025, focused on which theme?
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Correct answer: A — Inclusive Disaster Risk Data Governance
The 10th Session of APDIM was on Inclusive Disaster Risk Data Governance.
In which year was the National Cadet Corps (NCC), which marked its 78th Raising Day in November 2025, established?
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Correct answer: B — 1948
The NCC was established in 1948 with just 20,000 cadets.
Consider the following statements about the National Cadet Corps (NCC): 1. It is the world's largest uniformed youth organisation, with 20 lakh cadets. 2. It began in 1948 with 2 lakh cadets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the NCC began in 1948 with 20,000 cadets.
INS Savitri undertook a port call in November 2025 for joint EEZ surveillance with the coast guard of which country?
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Correct answer: A — Seychelles
INS Savitri arrived at Port Victoria, Seychelles, and will undertake joint EEZ surveillance with the Seychelles Coast Guard.
INS Savitri, which visited Port Victoria in November 2025, is what type of vessel?
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Correct answer: B — Offshore Patrol Vessel
INS Savitri is an Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) of the Indian Navy.
The four Labour Codes made effective from 21 November 2025 rationalise how many existing central labour laws?
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Correct answer: B — 29
The four Codes rationalise 29 existing central labour laws.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four Labour Codes made effective in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Code on Minimum Pension, 2020
The four Codes are the Code on Wages 2019, Industrial Relations Code 2020, Code on Social Security 2020 and the OSH Code 2020. There is no Code on Minimum Pension.
Under the Code on Social Security, 2020, as implemented in November 2025, aggregators must contribute towards gig and platform workers:
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Correct answer: A — 1–2% of annual turnover, capped at 5% of the amount paid/payable to such workers
Aggregators must contribute 1–2% of annual turnover, capped at 5% of the amount paid/payable to gig and platform workers.
Consider the following statements about the Labour Codes made effective in November 2025: 1. Employers must provide all workers above the age of 40 years with a free annual health check-up. 2. Women are barred from working night shifts in underground mining. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: women may work night shifts and in all types of work, including underground mining, with their consent and mandatory safety measures.
In which year was the India–Australia relationship elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership?
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Correct answer: C — 2020
The PMO release noted the elevation of the relationship to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2020.
PM Modi met Australian PM Anthony Albanese on 21 November 2025 on the sidelines of the G20 Leaders' Summit in:
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Correct answer: D — Johannesburg
The meeting took place on the sidelines of the G20 Leaders' Summit in Johannesburg, South Africa.
Which framework did the Department of Fisheries release on World Fisheries Day, 21 November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Framework on Traceability in Fisheries and Aquaculture 2025
The Department released the National Framework on Traceability in Fisheries and Aquaculture 2025 along with several SOPs and guidelines.
India aims to scale its seafood exports by 2030 to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹1 lakh crore
MoS George Kurian said India aims for ₹1 lakh crore in seafood exports by 2030, with 30% high-value, value-added products.
States have been asked to use the e-KYC feature of which app for verification of MGNREGA job cards?
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Correct answer: D — National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS) app
States/UTs were asked to use the e-KYC feature already available in the NMMS app for job card verification and renewal.
Under Schedule II of MGNREGA, job cards are required to be renewed after every:
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Correct answer: C — 5 years
Para 3 of Schedule II stipulates that job cards are renewed after five years following due verification.
In November 2025, the Ministry of Steel suspended QCO enforcement on 42 Indian Standards for steel grades used mainly in engineered products, automotive and durable goods for a period of:
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Correct answer: C — Three years
Enforcement on these 42 standards was suspended for three years; enforcement on 13 specialty-steel standards under PLI 1.2 was suspended for one year.
According to the final estimates for 2024-25 released in November 2025, India's total foodgrain production was:
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Correct answer: C — 357.73 million tonnes
Foodgrain production in 2024-25 reached a record 357.73 million tonnes, up from 332.30 million tonnes in 2023-24.
As per the final estimates for 2024-25, India's total oilseed production was estimated at:
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Correct answer: B — 429.89 lakh tonnes
Oilseed output in 2024-25 was a record 429.89 lakh tonnes, 33.20 lakh tonnes more than 396.69 lakh tonnes in 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about the final crop production estimates for 2024-25: 1. Rice production reached a record 1,501.84 lakh tonnes. 2. Maize production fell compared with 2023-24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: maize rose to 434.09 lakh tonnes from 376.65 lakh tonnes in 2023-24.
How did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries perform in October 2025 compared with October 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Remained unchanged at 162.4
The combined ICI remained unchanged at 162.4 (provisional). 3.3% was September's final growth and 2.5% the April–October cumulative growth.
Consider the following statements about the Index of Eight Core Industries for October 2025: 1. Electricity generation rose in October 2025 over October 2024. 2. The eight core industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: electricity generation declined by 7.6%. Statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following core industries recorded positive growth in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Cement
Cement grew 5.3% (along with fertilizers, steel and refinery products). Coal, natural gas and electricity declined.
How many leading e-commerce platforms self-declared compliance with the Dark Patterns Guidelines, 2023, as announced in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 26
26 leading e-commerce platforms submitted self-declarations.
Which authority directed companies to upload their dark-pattern self-audit declarations on their websites?
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Correct answer: D — Central Consumer Protection Authority
The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) directed the companies to display the declarations prominently on their websites.
With which French body did DRDO sign a Technical Agreement on defence R&D on 20 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Directorate General of Armaments (DGA)
The agreement was signed with the Directorate General of Armaments (DGA), France.
Where was the DRDO–DGA (France) Technical Agreement signed in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — DRDO Bhawan, New Delhi
It was signed at DRDO Bhawan, New Delhi on 20 November 2025.
The GeM–UN Women MoU of November 2025 expands market access for women entrepreneurs under which GeM initiative?
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Correct answer: B — Womaniya
The MoU expands market access for women entrepreneurs under GeM's 'Womaniya' initiative.
Government e-Marketplace (GeM), which signed an MoU with UN Women in November 2025, functions under which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Commerce and Industry
GeM is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
How many cubs did Mukhi, the first Indian-born female cheetah, give birth to, as announced in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Five
Mukhi gave birth to five cubs.
Consider the following statements about the cheetah Mukhi: 1. Mukhi is the first Indian-born female cheetah and was 33 months old when she gave birth. 2. Mukhi was among the cheetahs translocated to India from Namibia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Mukhi was born in India — she is the first Indian-born female cheetah.
Raajmarg Infra Investment Managers Pvt. Ltd. (RIIMPL), launched by NHAI in November 2025, is the investment manager for which proposed public InvIT?
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Correct answer: A — Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust (RIIT)
RIIMPL is the investment manager for the proposed public InvIT, Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust (RIIT).
Approximately how many kilometres of operational National Highways does NHAI plan to place in its public InvIT over the next 3–5 years?
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Correct answer: C — 1,500 km
Around 1,500 km of completed and operational National Highways will be introduced into the public InvIT over 3–5 years.
Where was the 3rd India–Germany Joint Working Group meeting on Alternative Medicine held in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Berlin
The 3rd JWG meeting was held in Berlin from 18 to 20 November 2025.
Which of the following was NOT one of the three pillars discussed at the 3rd India–Germany JWG on Alternative Medicine?
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Correct answer: D — Joint manufacturing of Ayush medicines in Germany
The three pillars were public-health integration, reimbursement pathways and regulatory approval. Joint manufacturing was not one of them.
What is the name of India's first indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for sickle cell disease, launched in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — BIRSA 101
The therapy is named 'BIRSA 101', after Bhagwan Birsa Munda.
Which institution developed the BIRSA 101 gene therapy?
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Correct answer: B — CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology
BIRSA 101 was developed at CSIR–Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB).
Consider the following statements about the BIRSA 101 gene therapy: 1. CSIR-IGIB signed a technology transfer agreement with the Serum Institute of India for it. 2. It is based on IGIB's engineered enFnCas9 CRISPR platform. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: CSIR-IGIB and Serum Institute of India exchanged a technology transfer agreement to translate the enFnCas9 CRISPR platform into affordable therapies.
Which instalment of PM-KISAN, worth about ₹18,000 crore for around 9 crore farmers, was released on 19 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 21st
The 21st instalment of PM-KISAN was released on 19 November 2025.
From which city did PM Narendra Modi release the 21st PM-KISAN instalment?
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Correct answer: B — Coimbatore
It was released from Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu, at the South India Natural Farming Summit 2025.
According to PM Modi's address at Coimbatore in November 2025, how much has been transferred directly to farmers' bank accounts under PM-KISAN so far?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4 lakh crore
The PM said ₹4 lakh crore has been transferred directly to small farmers under PM-KISAN so far.
Under TRAI's Direction of November 2025, by when must commercial banks onboard the '1600' numbering series?
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Correct answer: A — 1 January 2026
Commercial banks (public, private and foreign) must onboard by 1 January 2026. 15 February is for MFs/AMCs and 15 March for qualified stockbrokers.
Which numbering series has TRAI mandated for service and transactional calls by entities regulated by RBI, SEBI and PFRDA?
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Correct answer: D — 1600
The '1600' series, assigned by DoT, is meant for BFSI entities and government organisations. 140 is for promotional calls and 1800 for toll-free numbers.
Which web-based platform was used for the water budgeting exercise in NITI Aayog's November 2025 report on aspirational blocks?
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Correct answer: C — Varuni
The exercise used the web-based water budgeting platform 'Varuni'.
NITI Aayog's report on 'Water Budgeting in Aspirational Blocks' assessed:
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Correct answer: A — 18 blocks across 11 states
The report assessed 18 aspirational blocks across 11 states, spread over 8 agro-climatic zones.
Which institution designed the Indian Army's New Coat Combat (Digital Print), whose design rights the Army secured in 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Institute of Fashion Technology, New Delhi
It was designed by NIFT New Delhi as a consultancy project under the Army Design Bureau.
How many layers does the Indian Army's New Coat Combat (Digital Print) have?
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Correct answer: B — Three
It is a three-layered garment: outer camouflage coat, insulated inner jacket and thermal base layer.
Which two risks were brought under PMFBY coverage in November 2025, to be rolled out from Kharif 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Wild animal attack and paddy inundation
Crop loss from wild animal attack (as a localised risk add-on) and paddy inundation (localised calamity) will be covered from Kharif 2026.
Under the revised PMFBY modalities, within how many hours must farmers report crop loss due to wild animal attack through the Crop Insurance App?
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Correct answer: C — 72 hours
Farmers must report losses within 72 hours with geotagged photographs.
From which crop season will the new PMFBY covers for wild animal attack and paddy inundation be rolled out?
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Correct answer: B — Kharif 2026
The modalities will be rolled out from Kharif 2026. Paddy inundation had been removed from the localised calamity category in 2018.
The National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance 2.0, launched in November 2025, covers which period?
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Correct answer: C — 2025–29
NAP-AMR 2.0 covers 2025–29.
In which year was India's first National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance launched?
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Correct answer: A — 2017
The first NAP-AMR was launched in 2017, after discussions that began in 2010.
Which state was ranked first among states in the 6th National Water Awards conferred in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Maharashtra
Maharashtra ranked first, Gujarat second and Haryana third.
According to President Murmu, roughly how many groundwater recharge structures have been built under Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari since its launch last year?
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Correct answer: C — 35 lakh
More than 35 lakh groundwater recharge structures have been completed under JSJB.
Consider the following statements about the 6th National Water Awards: 1. Gujarat was ranked second in the best-state category. 2. The awards were conferred at Rashtrapati Bhavan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the President conferred the awards at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
The 'YUVA AI for ALL' course launched by MeitY in November 2025 aims to give foundational AI skills to how many citizens?
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Correct answer: C — 1 crore
The initiative aims to empower 1 crore (10 million) citizens with foundational AI skills.
What is the duration of the self-paced 'YUVA AI for ALL' course?
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Correct answer: D — 4.5 hours
It is a 4.5-hour self-paced course with six modules.
Under the Railways' new policy of November 2025, bulk cement in containers will be charged at what flat rate?
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Correct answer: A — ₹0.90 per tonne per km
Distance and weight slabs were removed and a flat rate of ₹0.90 per tonne per km (GTKM basis) was introduced.
According to Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw in November 2025, where does India now rank among the world's rail freight carriers?
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Correct answer: B — Second-largest
The Minister said India is now the world's second-largest freight carrier, having surpassed the USA.
At CAC48, India was re-elected to the Codex Executive Committee representing which region?
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Correct answer: A — Asia
India was unanimously re-elected to CCEXEC for the Asia region, until the end of CAC50 (2027).
Which Codex standard, for which India chaired the working group, was adopted at Step 8 at CAC48?
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Correct answer: B — Standard for fresh dates
The Standard for fresh dates was adopted at Step 8; the fresh curry leaves standard was forwarded for adoption.
How many new applicants were approved under the PLI Scheme for Textiles in Round 3, as announced in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 17
17 new applicants were approved in Round 3; 74 had been approved in the first two rounds.
What is the approved outlay of the PLI Scheme for Textiles notified in September 2021?
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Correct answer: C — ₹10,683 crore
The scheme was notified on 24 September 2021 with an approved outlay of ₹10,683 crore.
Germany agreed to participate in which multinational exercises planned in India in 2026, as stated after the India–Germany High Defence Committee meeting?
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Correct answer: A — Tarang Shakti and MILAN
Germany will participate in Tarang Shakti (air combat) and MILAN (naval) planned in 2026.
Who co-chaired the India–Germany High Defence Committee meeting from the Indian side in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh
Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh co-chaired the meeting with German State Secretary Jens Plötner.