State Staff Selection Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What total outlay did the Union Cabinet approve on 31 July 2025 for the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana for 2021-22 to 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — ₹6,520 crore
The Cabinet approved a total outlay of ₹6,520 crore, including an additional ₹1,920 crore.
How many multi-product food irradiation units are to be supported under PMKSY as per the Cabinet decision of 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 50
₹1,000 crore will support 50 multi-product food irradiation units and 100 NABL-accredited food testing labs.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY): 1. The food irradiation units will be supported under its Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure (ICCVAI) component. 2. The NABL-accredited food testing labs will be supported under its Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure (FSQAI) component. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release; both components are demand-driven.
What reciprocal tariff rate did the US executive order of 31 July 2025 set for India?
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Correct answer: A — 25%
Annex I of Executive Order 14326 lists India at 25%.
From which date did the 25% US reciprocal tariff on Indian goods under the executive order of 31 July 2025 take effect?
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Correct answer: D — 7 August 2025
The order applies from 12:01 a.m. EDT seven days after 31 July 2025, i.e. 7 August 2025; Business Standard reported it took effect on 7 August.
Consider the following statements about Annex I of US Executive Order 14326 (31 July 2025): 1. Bangladesh is listed at 20%. 2. Japan is listed at 15%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per Annex I of the order.
As per Article 66(1), cited by the ECI on 31 July 2025, the Electoral College for the Vice-Presidential election consists of:
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Correct answer: A — Elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha
The ECI release quotes Article 66(1): elected members of the Rajya Sabha, nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission mandated to conduct the election to the office of Vice-President, as stated by the ECI on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Article 324
The ECI release says it is mandated under Article 324 to conduct the Vice-Presidential election.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election: 1. Rule 40 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974 requires the ECI to prepare and maintain an updated list of members of the Electoral College. 2. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are excluded from the Electoral College. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 66(1) includes nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
Which court delivered the verdict acquitting all accused in the 2008 Malegaon blast case on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Special NIA court, Mumbai
Special Judge A. K. Lahoti of the special NIA court in Mumbai delivered the verdict.
How many accused were acquitted in the 2008 Malegaon blast case on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Seven
All seven accused, including Pragya Singh Thakur and Lt Col Prasad Purohit, were acquitted.
Apart from IPC offences, the accused in the 2008 Malegaon blast case were acquitted on 31 July 2025 of charges under which anti-terror law?
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Correct answer: A — Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
The accused were cleared of charges including offences under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
What was Delhi's average AQI for July 2025, the best for the month since 2018, as reported on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 78
The Environment Ministry said July 2025 recorded an average AQI of 78, in the 'Satisfactory' category.
How many 'Satisfactory' AQI days did Delhi record in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 29
July 2025 had 29 'Satisfactory' days (AQI 51–100), the highest since 2018.
Himgiri, delivered to the Indian Navy on 31 July 2025, is which ship of the Nilgiri class (Project 17A)?
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Correct answer: D — Third
Himgiri (Yard 3022) is the third ship of the Nilgiri class and the first built at GRSE.
The Project 17A frigate Himgiri was built and delivered on 31 July 2025 at:
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Correct answer: B — Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers, Kolkata
Himgiri was delivered at GRSE, Kolkata, and is the first P17A ship built there.
Consider the following statements about Project 17A frigates: 1. They use Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion. 2. The earlier INS Himgiri, whose name the new frigate revives, was a Leander-class frigate decommissioned on 6 May 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are in the Defence Ministry release.
Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan assumed charge on 31 July 2025 as Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of:
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Correct answer: A — Western Naval Command
He took over the Western Naval Command from Vice Admiral Sanjay J Singh.
Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan, who took over the Western Naval Command on 31 July 2025, is a specialist in:
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Correct answer: D — Communication and Electronic Warfare
The Defence Ministry release describes him as a specialist in Communication and Electronic Warfare.
The four railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025 will increase the Indian Railways network by about:
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Correct answer: D — 574 km
The projects will add about 574 km to the existing network.
Which of the following was NOT among the four railway projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Wardha–Ballarshah 4th line
The four projects were Itarsi–Nagpur 4th line, Aurangabad–Parbhani doubling, Aluabari Road–New Jalpaiguri 3rd and 4th lines, and Dangoaposi–Jaroli 3rd and 4th lines.
Where was the indigenously built 1 MW green hydrogen plant commissioned by Sarbananda Sonowal on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Deendayal Port, Kandla, Gujarat
The plant was commissioned at the Deendayal Port Authority, Kandla.
The National Green Hydrogen Mission, approved by the Union Cabinet on 4 January 2023, targets green hydrogen production capacity by 2030 of at least:
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Correct answer: B — 5 million metric tonnes a year
The Cabinet release of 4 January 2023 gives a target of at least 5 MMT a year by 2030, with an initial outlay of ₹19,744 crore.
The Central Sector Scheme 'Grant in aid to NCDC' approved by the Cabinet on 31 July 2025 has what outlay and period?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,000 crore over four years, 2025-26 to 2028-29
The scheme has ₹2,000 crore for four years from 2025-26 to 2028-29, at ₹500 crore a year.
On the basis of the ₹2,000-crore grant approved on 31 July 2025, how much will NCDC be able to raise from the open market over four years?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20,000 crore
The Cabinet release says NCDC will be able to raise ₹20,000 crore from the open market.
Which rocket launched the NASA-ISRO satellite NISAR on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — GSLV-F16
NISAR was launched aboard GSLV-F16 from Sriharikota at 17:40 IST.
In the NISAR satellite launched on 30 July 2025, which radar bands were provided by NASA and ISRO respectively?
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Correct answer: C — L-band and S-band
NASA provided the L-band SAR and ISRO the S-band SAR.
Consider the following statements about the GSLV-F16/NISAR mission: 1. It was GSLV's first mission to a Sun-synchronous polar orbit. 2. It was the 12th flight of GSLV with the indigenous cryogenic stage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are in the ISRO launch brochure; GSLV-F16 was also the 18th GSLV flight.
NISAR, launched on 30 July 2025, will scan the entire globe at what interval?
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Correct answer: B — Every 12 days
ISRO says NISAR will scan the globe and provide data at a 12-day interval.
The sacred Piprahwa relics of Lord Buddha, whose return to India was announced on 30 July 2025, were discovered at Piprahwa in which State?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
The relics were discovered in 1898 at Piprahwa, Uttar Pradesh.
Where were the Piprahwa relics slated to be auctioned in May 2025 before the Culture Ministry intervened?
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Correct answer: D — Hong Kong
The relics were originally slated for auction in Hong Kong in May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Piprahwa relics: 1. They were discovered in 1898 by British civil engineer William Claxton Peppé. 2. Their repatriation in 2025 was made possible through a partnership between the Government of India and the Godrej Industries Group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are in the Culture Ministry release.
Where was the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) of the Ramsar Convention, which adopted India's wetlands resolution on 30 July 2025, held?
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Correct answer: C — Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe
Ramsar COP15 was held at Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe.
India's resolution adopted at Ramsar COP15 on 30 July 2025 was titled:
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Correct answer: B — Promoting Sustainable Lifestyles for the Wise Use of Wetlands
The resolution was 'Promoting Sustainable Lifestyles for the Wise Use of Wetlands'.
According to the Environment Ministry, India's resolution at Ramsar COP15 received support from how many Ramsar Contracting Parties?
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Correct answer: A — 172
The release says the resolution received support from the 172 Ramsar Contracting Parties.
How many chip-design projects had been sanctioned under the Design Linked Incentive scheme, as stated by MeitY on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 23
MeitY said 23 chip-design projects had been sanctioned under DLI.
What is the outlay of the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme under the Semicon India Programme?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,000 crore
The DLI scheme has an outlay of ₹1,000 crore within the ₹76,000-crore Semicon India Programme.
Consider the following statements about the Design Linked Incentive scheme: 1. It offers a product design incentive of up to 50% of eligible costs, capped at ₹15 crore per application. 2. Chip designs from academic institutions under the scheme have been fabricated at SCL, Mohali. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the cap is ₹15 crore per application, and 20 designs from 17 institutions were fabricated at SCL, Mohali.
The 13th India–UAE Joint Defence Cooperation Committee meeting held in New Delhi on 30 July 2025 was notable because it was:
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Correct answer: A — Held at Secretary level for the first time
The Defence Ministry said the 13th JDCC was held at Secretary level for the first time.
At the 13th India–UAE JDCC, joint manufacturing models were discussed along the lines of the collaboration between ICOMM (India) and which UAE company for small arms?
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Correct answer: D — CARACAL
The release cites the ICOMM (India)–CARACAL (UAE) collaboration for small arms production.
On which section of the Delhi–Mumbai route was Kavach 4.0 commissioned, as announced on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mathura–Kota
The Railway Ministry said Kavach 4.0 was commissioned on the Mathura–Kota section.
Kavach, India's automatic train protection system, is designed to which Safety Integrity Level?
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Correct answer: A — SIL 4
The Railway Ministry says Kavach is designed at SIL 4, the highest level of safety design.
Consider the following statements about Kavach: 1. Its first operational certificate was granted in 2018 after installation on South Central Railway. 2. RFID tags for Kavach are installed every 10 km along the track. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: RFID tags are installed every 1 km and at every signal.
Which Indian Navy ship arrived in Singapore for SIMBEX-25, as reported on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — INS Satpura
INS Satpura arrived in Singapore to participate in SIMBEX-25.
SIMBEX-25, for which INS Satpura reached Singapore in July 2025, was which edition of the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise?
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Correct answer: A — 32nd
The Defence Ministry release calls SIMBEX-25 the 32nd edition of the exercise.
How many mobile handsets had been recovered through the Sanchar Saathi portal, as stated in the Lok Sabha on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 5 lakh
The Minister said over 5 lakh mobile handsets had been recovered through Sanchar Saathi.
As per the Communications Minister's statement of 30 July 2025, what is BSNL's subscriber base?
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Correct answer: C — 9.1 crore
The Minister said BSNL's subscriber base had grown to 9.1 crore.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, whose key provisions took effect on 1 August 2025, the threshold for 'substantial interest' was raised from ₹5 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2 crore
PIB (30 July 2025): the 'substantial interest' threshold was redefined from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore, a limit unchanged since 1968.
The maximum tenure of directors (other than the chairperson and whole-time director) in cooperative banks was raised from 8 years to 10 years to align with which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 97th Amendment
PIB: the change aligns director tenures in cooperative banks with the 97th Constitutional Amendment.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations. 2. It was notified in the Gazette on 15 April 2025. 3. All its provisions came into force on the date of its notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: 19 amendments across five laws; notified 15 April 2025. Provisions come into force on dates appointed by the Centre; S.O. 3494(E) appointed 1 August 2025 for specific sections, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the amended law, public sector banks may transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to which fund, in line with companies under the Companies Act?
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Correct answer: D — Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)
PIB: PSBs can now transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF), bringing them in line with companies.
The Akhil Bharatiya Shiksha Samagam 2025, inaugurated on 29 July 2025, commemorated:
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Correct answer: D — 5 years of the National Education Policy 2020
PIB (29 July 2025): Dharmendra Pradhan inaugurated ABSS 2025 in New Delhi to commemorate 5 years of NEP 2020.
Projects worth how much were unveiled by Dharmendra Pradhan at the Akhil Bharatiya Shiksha Samagam 2025?
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Correct answer: A — More than ₹4,000 crore
PIB: Dharmendra Pradhan unveiled projects worth more than ₹4,000 crore, including new initiatives, campus inaugurations and foundation stones.
Consider the following statements about the National Education Policy 2020: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 July 2020. 2. It replaced the National Policy on Education, 1986. 3. It replaces the 10+2 school structure with a 5+3+3+4 structure covering ages 6-18. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (29 July 2020): the Cabinet approved NEP 2020 that day, replacing the NPE 1986. The 5+3+3+4 structure covers ages 3-18 (3-8, 8-11, 11-14, 14-18), not 6-18, so statement 3 is wrong.
As stated on Global Tiger Day 2025, the number of tiger reserves in India has grown from 46 in 2014 to:
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Correct answer: B — 58
PIB (29 July 2025): tiger reserves increased from 46 in 2014 to 58.
Where were the national Global Tiger Day 2025 celebrations presided over by Bhupender Yadav held?
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Correct answer: D — National Zoological Park, New Delhi
PIB: the celebrations were held at the National Zoological Park, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements made on Global Tiger Day 2025: 1. Over 1 lakh saplings will be planted across all 58 tiger reserves. 2. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) has 24 countries on board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: over 1 lakh saplings across all 58 tiger reserves; 24 countries on board IBCA. Both are correct.
Where has the Commission for Air Quality Management set up a dedicated year-round cell for paddy stubble management, as announced on 29 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — SAS Nagar (Mohali), Punjab
PIB (29 July 2025): CAQM established a Dedicated CAQM Cell at Kisan Vikas Chamber, Kalkat Bhawan, SAS Nagar (Mohali), Punjab.
Besides paddy stubble management, the new CAQM cell in Mohali will monitor pollution control in identified thermal power plants with a focus on:
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Correct answer: C — Biomass co-firing
PIB: the cell will also monitor and coordinate air pollution control measures in identified thermal power plants, particularly biomass co-firing.
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, the five ex officio State Members of CAQM come from:
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Correct answer: A — Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
CAQM Act, 2021 (Act 29 of 2021), Section 3(2)(c): five ex officio Members who are Chief Secretaries or Secretaries in charge of environment in the NCT of Delhi and the States of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
As per telecom subscription data as on 30 June 2025, India's overall tele-density was about:
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Correct answer: D — 86.09%
PIB (29 July 2025): overall tele-density was 86.09% (urban 133.56%, rural 59.43%).
How many broadband subscribers did India have as on 30 June 2025, as per the Ministry of Communications?
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Correct answer: A — 979.71 million
PIB: total broadband subscribers were 979.71 million (935.02 million wireless + 44.69 million wireline). 1,218.36 million is total telephone subscribers.
Gouse Meera Mohiuddin was appointed on 29 July 2025 as an Additional Judge of which High Court?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana High Court
PIB press note (29 July 2025): Gouse Meera Mohiuddin, Advocate, was appointed Additional Judge of the Telangana High Court.
Anjan Moni Kalita and Rajesh Mazumdar, advocates, were appointed on 29 July 2025 as Additional Judges of:
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Correct answer: B — Gauhati High Court
PIB press note: Anjan Moni Kalita, Rajesh Mazumdar, Pranjal Das and Sanjeev Kumar Sharma were appointed Additional Judges of the Gauhati High Court.
Under Article 224 of the Constitution, an additional Judge of a High Court is appointed for a period:
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Correct answer: A — Not exceeding two years
Supreme Court (Lok Prahari v. Union of India, 20 April 2021): Article 224 provides for appointing additional judges to meet a temporary increase in business or arrears, for a period not exceeding two years.
The Pralay missile, flight-tested twice by DRDO on 28-29 July 2025, is best described as a:
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Correct answer: C — Solid-propellant quasi-ballistic missile
PIB: Pralay is an indigenously developed solid propellant quasi-ballistic missile.
Which DRDO laboratory led the development of the Pralay missile system?
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Correct answer: A — Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
PIB: the system has been developed by Research Centre Imarat in collaboration with other DRDO labs such as DRDL, ASL, ARDE, HEMRL, DMRL and TBRL.
Consider the following statements about the Pralay flight-tests of July 2025: 1. They were conducted from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam island off Odisha. 2. They were part of User Evaluation Trials to validate maximum and minimum range. 3. Bharat Dynamics Limited and Bharat Electronics Limited are industry partners. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: all three statements are stated in the release.
ICGS Atal, launched on 29 July 2025, is the sixth in a series of eight Fast Patrol Vessels being built for the Indian Coast Guard by:
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Correct answer: B — Goa Shipyard Limited
PIB: Goa Shipyard Limited launched ICGS Atal (Yard 1275), the sixth of eight FPVs it is building for the ICG.
What are the length and displacement of the Fast Patrol Vessels of the ICGS Atal class, as per the launch release?
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Correct answer: C — 52 m and 320 tonnes
PIB: the FPVs are 52 metres long with an 8-metre beam and 320-tonne displacement.
According to the Quick Estimate released on 28 July 2025, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.5%
MoSPI/PIB (28 July 2025): IIP growth for June 2025 was 1.5%, against 1.2% (QE) in May 2025.
In the IIP for June 2025, which sector recorded positive growth?
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Correct answer: D — Manufacturing
PIB: sectoral growth in June 2025 was mining -8.7%, manufacturing 3.9% and electricity -2.6%. Only manufacturing grew.
Under the revised release calendar announced with the June 2025 data, the Quick Estimate of IIP will be released on:
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Correct answer: C — The 28th of every month (or next working day if a holiday)
PIB: as per the revised calendar, the Quick Estimate of IIP will now be released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday.
Consider the following statements about the IIP Quick Estimate for June 2025: 1. It was compiled on base year 2011-12=100. 2. The index stood at 153.3, against 151.0 in June 2024. 3. Mining output contracted by 2.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: base 2011-12=100; index 153.3 against 151.0 in June 2024. Mining contracted 8.7%; the 2.6% fall was in electricity, so statement 3 is wrong.
Where was the FIDE Women's World Cup 2025, won by Divya Deshmukh on 28 July 2025, held?
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Correct answer: A — Batumi, Georgia
FIDE: the 2025 FIDE Women's World Cup took place from 6 to 28 July in Batumi, Georgia.
Whom did Divya Deshmukh defeat in the tiebreaks of the all-Indian final of the FIDE Women's World Cup 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Koneru Humpy
FIDE: Divya defeated Grandmaster Humpy Koneru 1.5-0.5 in the tiebreaks.
Divya Deshmukh is the third winner of the FIDE Women's World Cup. Who were the first two winners, in 2021 and 2023 respectively?
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Correct answer: B — Alexandra Kosteniuk and Aleksandra Goryachkina
FIDE: Divya follows GM Alexandra Kosteniuk (2021) and GM Aleksandra Goryachkina (2023) as the third-ever winner.
Consider the following statements about Divya Deshmukh's FIDE Women's World Cup 2025 win: 1. Divya earned the Grandmaster title automatically by winning the event. 2. The winner received a first prize of USD 50,000. 3. Divya, Koneru Humpy and Tan Zhongyi qualified for the Women's Candidates Tournament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
FIDE: the win brings the USD 50,000 first prize and an automatic GM title; Divya, Humpy and Tan Zhongyi qualified for the Candidates. All three are correct.
Divya Deshmukh, winner of the FIDE Women's World Cup 2025, hails from which city?
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Correct answer: A — Nagpur
FIDE: Divya Deshmukh is the 19-year-old International Master from Nagpur, Maharashtra.
Which Foundation Day of the Ministry of Earth Sciences was marked on 28 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 19th
PIB (28 July 2025): the 19th Foundation Day of the Ministry of Earth Sciences was marked at an event in New Delhi.
As stated at the MoES Foundation Day 2025, the number of Doppler weather radars in India has increased from 15 to:
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Correct answer: D — 41
PIB: Jitendra Singh noted that Doppler weather radars had increased from just 15 to 41.
Consider the following statements about the products launched on the 19th Foundation Day of MoES: 1. 14 products and initiatives were launched, including BharatFS-ERP. 2. They included seismic microzonation studies of four Indian cities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: 14 major products and initiatives were launched, including BharatFS-ERP and seismic microzonation studies of four Indian cities. Both correct.
Under the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme, a Mechanical & Material domain testing facility will be set up (MoU of 28 July 2025) at:
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Correct answer: C — Tiruchirappalli
PIB (28 July 2025): MoD signed an MoU to set up the facility in the Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor in Tiruchirappalli.
Under the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS), what share of project cost does the government provide as grant-in-aid?
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Correct answer: A — Up to 75%
PIB: DTIS provides up to 75% government funding as grant-in-aid; the remaining 25% is funded by the SPV.
Consider the following statements about the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme: 1. It has an outlay of ₹400 crore. 2. Seven testing facilities have been approved in the Defence Industrial Corridors, four of them in Tamil Nadu. 3. Three of the approved facilities are in Uttar Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: DTIS outlay ₹400 crore; seven facilities approved, four in Tamil Nadu and three in Uttar Pradesh. All correct.