State Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Who was designated Mental Health Ambassador by the Union Health Ministry on World Mental Health Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Deepika Padukone
PIB: J P Nadda said Deepika Padukone has been designated as the Mental Health Ambassador for raising awareness about access to mental health services.
After the October 2025 upgrade, the Tele MANAS app is available in how many regional languages in addition to English and Hindi?
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Correct answer: B — 10
PIB: the Tele MANAS app will now be available in 10 regional languages in addition to English and Hindi.
During UK PM Keir Starmer's October 2025 visit, which UK university received in-principle approval to open a campus in GIFT City?
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Correct answer: B — University of Surrey
PIB (list of outcomes): in-principle approval was given for opening a campus of the University of Surrey in GIFT City; Lancaster University received an LoI for Bengaluru.
India and the UK agreed in October 2025 to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of which missile system?
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Correct answer: D — Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM)
PIB (joint statement): both leaders announced agreement to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM) systems to support India's air defence.
Consider the following statements about UK PM Keir Starmer's visit to India (October 2025): 1. Phase II of the UK-India Critical Minerals Supply Chain Observatory includes a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad. 2. It was Starmer's second official visit to India as Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Phase II of the Observatory will establish a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad; the joint statement says this was Prime Minister Starmer's first official visit to India.
About how many officials did the Election Commission deploy for the 2025 Bihar Assembly election?
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Correct answer: A — 8.5 lakh
PIB: around 8.5 lakh election officials have been deployed, including nearly 4.53 lakh polling personnel and 2.5 lakh police officials.
Consider the following statements about the 2025 Bihar Assembly election arrangements: 1. For the first time, one General Observer has been deployed for each of Bihar's 243 constituencies. 2. Personnel deployed are deemed to be on deputation to the Election Commission under Section 28A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: in a first, one General Observer has been deployed for each of the 243 constituencies; all deployed personnel are deemed to be on deputation to ECI under Section 28A of the RP Act, 1951.
What did the Election Commission direct parties, candidates and star campaigners to do with AI-generated or synthetic campaign content during the Bihar elections?
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Correct answer: D — Label it prominently
PIB: parties, leaders, candidates and star campaigners shall take necessary measures for prominent labelling of AI-generated/synthetic content shared for campaigning.
According to PM Modi at the Global Fintech Fest 2025, India's approach to AI rests on which three principles?
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Correct answer: C — Equitable Access, Population-scale Skilling, Responsible Deployment
PIB: the PM said India's approach to AI is built on three key principles — Equitable Access, Population-scale Skilling and Responsible Deployment.
What was the central theme of the Global Fintech Fest 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Empowering Finance for a Better World – Powered by AI, Augmented Intelligence, Innovation, and Inclusion
PIB: GFF 2025's central theme is 'Empowering Finance for a Better World' – Powered by AI, Augmented Intelligence, Innovation, and Inclusion.
Under the October 2025 amendments to the PLI scheme for textiles, the minimum investment for new applicants in the Part-1 category was reduced to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹150 crore
PIB: with effect from 1 August 2025, the minimum investment for new applicants was reduced from ₹300 crore to ₹150 crore in Part-1 and from ₹100 crore to ₹50 crore in Part-2.
Consider the following statements about the amended PLI scheme for textiles: 1. The incremental turnover required to qualify for incentives has been reduced from 25% to 10%. 2. The application portal has been opened until 31 March 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: from FY 2025–26 applicants need a minimum 10% incremental turnover (down from 25%); the application portal is open until 31 December 2025, not 31 March 2026.
Which India–Australia implementing arrangement was signed at the inaugural Defence Ministers' Dialogue in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation
PIB (joint statement): ministers welcomed the signing of the Australia–India Implementing Arrangement on Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation; the air-to-air refuelling arrangement had been signed in 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue (October 2025): 1. It was the inaugural edition, and the ministers agreed to hold it annually. 2. Australia's first defence trade mission to India took place from 7 to 10 October 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the October 2025 meeting was the inaugural Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue, with a commitment to an annual dialogue; ministers welcomed Australia's first defence trade mission to India from 7 to 10 October 2025.
The design of the Sabarmati HSR station, terminal of the Mumbai–Ahmedabad bullet train corridor, is inspired by:
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Correct answer: D — Mahatma Gandhi's charkha at Sabarmati Ashram
PIB: the Sabarmati HSR station is inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's charkha at Sabarmati Ashram; the Dandi March appears as a mural on the multimodal hub.
Consider the following statements about the Mumbai–Ahmedabad bullet train project (October 2025): 1. The Sabarmati rolling stock depot, spread over 84 hectares, is the largest of the three depots. 2. Of the 508 km corridor, 400 km of viaduct has been completed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the 84-hectare Sabarmati depot is the largest of three depots; 325 km of viaduct (and 400 km of pier work) has been completed — not 400 km of viaduct.
What is the duration of the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 launched in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 60 days
PIB: the 60-day Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 prioritises six enhanced key strategies.
Consider the following statements about the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign: 1. The first campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day. 2. At the launch of TFYC 3.0, the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at AIIMS, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the inaugural campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day; the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at NIMHANS, Bengaluru, not AIIMS.
In October 2025 the combined assets under management of NPS and Atal Pension Yojana crossed which mark?
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Correct answer: C — ₹16 lakh crore
PIB: the combined AUM of NPS and APY crossed the ₹16 lakh crore mark on 9 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about the pension sector (October 2025): 1. The combined subscriber base of NPS and APY has surpassed 9 crore. 2. PFRDA's Multiple Scheme Framework became effective from 1 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the subscriber base has surpassed 9 crore; the Multiple Scheme Framework is effective from 1 October 2025, not 1 April 2025.
How many critical and strategic mineral blocks are offered in Tranche VI of the auction launched in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 23
PIB: Tranche VI, launched on 16 September 2025, includes 23 critical and strategic mineral blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.
Consider the following statements about Tranche VI of the critical mineral block auction: 1. It comprises 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases. 2. It was launched by the Ministry of Mines on 16 September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Tranche VI was launched on 16 September 2025 and includes 23 blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.
Phase 1 of the Navi Mumbai International Airport, inaugurated on 8 October 2025, was built at a cost of around:
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Correct answer: B — ₹19,650 crore
PIB: the PM inaugurated Phase 1 of NMIA built at a cost of around ₹19,650 crore. ₹12,200 crore was Metro Line 3 Phase 2B and over ₹37,270 crore the whole Metro Line 3.
Navi Mumbai International Airport will be the first airport in India to be connected by:
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Correct answer: C — Water Taxi
PIB: NMIA will also be the first airport in the country to be connected by Water Taxi.
Consider the following statements: 1. Mumbai Metro Line 3 (Aqua Line) is Mumbai's first fully underground metro line, spanning 33.5 km with 27 stations. 2. The 'Mumbai One' app launched on 8 October 2025 covers five public transport operators. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Metro Line 3 is Mumbai's first and only fully underground metro line, 33.5 km from Cuffe Parade to Aarey JVLR with 27 stations. Mumbai One is an integrated common mobility app for 11 public transport operators.
According to PM Modi at the Navi Mumbai airport inauguration (October 2025), India is now the world's ______ domestic aviation market.
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Correct answer: D — third-largest
PIB: the PM said new airports and the UDAN scheme have made India the world's third-largest domestic aviation market.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' proposes which national mission for informal workers?
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Correct answer: D — Mission Digital ShramSetu
PIB: NITI Aayog called for Mission Digital ShramSetu, a proposed national mission to make AI accessible, affordable and impactful for every worker.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' (October 2025): 1. It focuses on India's 490 million informal workers. 2. It warns that on the current trajectory, informal workers' average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, against a $14,500 target. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the study explores how AI can transform the lives of India's 490 million informal workers and warns that at the current trajectory their average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, far below the $14,500 target.
Ahead of the Eighth ISA Assembly, the International Solar Alliance's Regional Committee Meeting for Africa was held in:
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Correct answer: B — Accra
PIB: ISA convened Regional Committee Meetings in Brussels (Europe & Others), Colombo (Asia-Pacific), Santiago (Latin America & the Caribbean) and Accra (Africa, 2–4 September).
Consider the following statements about the International Solar Alliance (ISA): 1. It was launched by India and France at COP21 in Paris in 2015. 2. After 15 countries signed and ratified its Framework Agreement on 6 December 2017, it became the first international intergovernmental organisation headquartered in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: ISA was launched in 2015 by India and France at COP21 in Paris; on 6 December 2017, 15 countries signed and ratified the ISA Framework Agreement, making ISA the first international intergovernmental organisation headquartered in India.
At the first meeting of the upgraded India–Qatar Joint Commission (October 2025), the two sides set a goal of doubling bilateral trade by:
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Correct answer: B — 2030
PIB: the sides set a shared goal of doubling bilateral trade by 2030.
Consider the following statements about Piyush Goyal's October 2025 visit to Qatar: 1. The upgraded Joint Commission replaced the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce. 2. India–Qatar bilateral trade in 2024–25 was over USD 24 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: it was the first meeting of the upgraded Joint Commission, elevated from the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce; trade was valued at over USD 14 billion in 2024–25.
The draft Shram Shakti Niti 2025 is described as rooted in which civilisational ethos?
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Correct answer: B — Śrama dharma
PIB: the policy is rooted in India's civilisational ethos of śrama dharma — the dignity and moral value of work.
Under the draft National Labour & Employment Policy – Shram Shakti Niti 2025, which platform is to serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment?
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Correct answer: D — National Career Service (NCS)
PIB: the National Career Service (NCS) platform will serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment, enabling job matching, credential verification and skill alignment.
Which country received the ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security immediately before India (in 2022)?
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Correct answer: D — Iceland
PIB: previous recipients include Brazil (2013), China (2016), Rwanda (2019) and Iceland (2022).
Consider the following statements: 1. According to the ILO, India's social protection coverage rose from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025. 2. The ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security is presented every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: coverage expanded from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025, as highlighted by the ILO; the ISSA Award is presented once every three years at the World Social Security Forum.
India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly has been raised to which number, the maximum permissible for any member country?
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Correct answer: C — 30
PIB: Dr Mandaviya stressed the rise in India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly to 30, the maximum permissible limit for any member country.
Where was the 93rd anniversary parade of the Indian Air Force held on 8 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Air Force Station Hindan, Ghaziabad
PIB: the 93rd anniversary of the IAF was commemorated at Air Force Station Hindan, Ghaziabad, on 08 Oct 2025.
At the Air Force Day parade 2025, the Chief of the Air Staff described the IAF as the world's:
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Correct answer: D — fourth largest Air Force
PIB: the Chief of the Air Staff highlighted the IAF's journey to becoming the 'Fourth largest Air Force in the World'.
What was the theme of India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Innovate to Transform
PIB: IMC 2025, organised jointly by DoT and COAI from 8 to 11 October, was held under the theme 'Innovate to Transform'.
Consider the following statements about India Mobile Congress 2025: 1. It was organised jointly by the Department of Telecommunications and the Cellular Operators Association of India. 2. PM Modi said the Made in India 4G stack places India among just five countries with this capability. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: IMC 2025 was organised jointly by DoT and COAI; the PM said that with the Made in India 4G stack, India has joined the list of just five countries in the world that possess this capability.
Which form do electors above 85 years and electors with benchmark disabilities use to opt for postal ballot in the Bihar Assembly election 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Form 12D
PIB (ECI): such electors can avail the facility using Form 12D, submitted to the Returning Officer through their BLO within 5 days of the notification.
Consider the following statements regarding postal ballots in the Bihar Assembly election 2025: 1. The facility for electors above 85 years and those with benchmark disabilities is notified under Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. Service voters receiving ballots through ETPBS must bear the cost of postal services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): the Commission notified the facility as per Section 60(c) of the RP Act, 1951; service voters are not required to bear the cost of postal services.
As of September 2025, public sector banks had sanctioned loans under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana amounting to about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,907 crore
PIB: as of September 2025, PSBs had sanctioned over 5.79 lakh loan applications amounting to ₹10,907 crore.
Consider the following statements about the model loan scheme under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: 1. It offers collateral-free loans of up to ₹2 lakh. 2. It provides a 12-month moratorium from disbursement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the model loan scheme offers loans up to ₹2 lakh without collateral and a 6-month moratorium period from disbursement.
Of the ₹903.67 crore approved by the High-Level Committee in October 2025 for expansion and modernisation of fire services, which state received the largest amount?
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Correct answer: D — Madhya Pradesh
PIB: of ₹903.67 crore, ₹117.19 crore was approved for Haryana, ₹397.54 crore for Madhya Pradesh and ₹388.94 crore for Rajasthan.
Consider the following statements about the High-Level Committee decision of 7 October 2025: 1. The additional assistance to Assam and Gujarat from the NDRF is subject to adjustment of 50% of the opening balance in their SDRF. 2. During 2025-26, the Centre released SDRF funds to all 36 States and UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the assistance is provided from the NDRF subject to adjustment of 50% of the opening balance available in the SDRF; in 2025-26 the Centre released ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states under the SDRF.
The Indian Radio Software Architecture (IRSA) standard 1.0, released by DRDO in October 2025, is a software specification for:
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Correct answer: D — Software Defined Radios
PIB: IRSA is a comprehensive software specification for Software Defined Radios (SDR), defining standardised interfaces, APIs, execution environments and waveform portability mechanisms.
Consider the following statements about IRSA standard 1.0: 1. DRDO released it in collaboration with the Integrated Defence Staff and the Tri-Services. 2. A DRDO-led core technical team began work on it in 2018. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: DRDO, in collaboration with IDS and the Tri-Services, released IRSA 1.0; the initiative traces its origin to 2021, and a DRDO-led core team began work in 2022.
The four railway multitracking projects approved by the Cabinet on 7 October 2025 will add about how many km to the Indian Railways network?
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Correct answer: B — 894 km
PIB: the four projects covering 18 districts will increase the existing network of Indian Railways by about 894 km.
Consider the following statements about the railway multitracking projects approved on 7 October 2025: 1. They improve connectivity to two Aspirational Districts — Vidisha and Rajnandgaon. 2. They are to be completed by 2028-29. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the projects enhance connectivity to about 3,633 villages and two Aspirational Districts (Vidisha and Rajnandgaon); they are to be completed by 2030-31.
Which is the longest of the four railway multitracking projects approved by the Cabinet on 7 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Wardha–Bhusawal 3rd & 4th line
PIB: Wardha–Bhusawal 3rd & 4th line is 314 km; Vadodara–Ratlam 259 km, Itarsi–Bhopal–Bina 237 km and Gondia–Dongargarh 84 km.
How many of the 243 seats in the Bihar Legislative Assembly are reserved for Scheduled Castes, as per the ECI press note of 6 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 38
PIB (ECI): the Bihar Assembly has 243 constituencies, of which 38 are reserved for SCs and 2 for STs.
On which date was counting of votes scheduled for the Bihar Assembly election 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 14 November 2025
ECI schedule (Annexure-I): polling on 6 November (121 ACs) and 11 November (122 ACs); counting on 14 November 2025; election to be completed by 16 November.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar Assembly election 2025: 1. With a cap of 1,200 electors per polling station, Bihar's polling stations rose from 77,462 (Lok Sabha 2024) to 90,712. 2. The final electoral roll, after a Special Intensive Revision with 1 July 2025 as qualifying date, was published on 30 September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (ECI): a maximum of 1,200 electors per polling station took the count from 77,462 to 90,712; the SIR used 01.07.2025 as the qualifying date and the final roll was published on 30.09.2025.
The ECI conducts elections to the Bihar Legislative Assembly under which Article of the Constitution read with Article 172(1)?
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Correct answer: A — Article 324
PIB (ECI): the Commission conducts the election in exercise of powers under Article 324 read with Article 172(1) of the Constitution and Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Arunachal Pradesh's first commercial coal mine, Namchik Namphuk, inaugurated in October 2025, is located in which district?
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Correct answer: B — Changlang
PIB: G. Kishan Reddy and CM Pema Khandu inaugurated the Namchik Namphuk Coal Mine in Changlang district, the state's first commercial coal mining project.
What are the coal reserves of the Namchik Namphuk Coal Mine, according to Coal Minister G. Kishan Reddy (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 1.5 crore tonnes
PIB: the minister informed that the Namchik Namphuk Coal Mine holds reserves of 1.5 crore tonnes of coal and became operational that day.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four Pollution Response Centres established by the Indian Coast Guard?
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Correct answer: D — Kochi
PIB: to operationalise the NOSDCP, the ICG has established four Pollution Response Centres at Mumbai, Chennai, Port Blair and Vadinar.
Consider the following statements: 1. NATPOLREX-X, held off Chennai in October 2025, included the first-ever shoreline clean-up drill at Marina Beach. 2. The National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOSDCP) was approved in 2003. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: a key highlight was the first-ever shoreline clean-up drill at Marina Beach; the NOSDCP, drafted by the ICG, was approved in 1993.
INS Androth, commissioned in October 2025, is named after the northernmost island of which island group?
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Correct answer: C — Lakshadweep
PIB: the ship has been named after Androth, the northernmost island of the Lakshadweep group.
Consider the following statements about INS Androth: 1. It is the second Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft commissioned by the Indian Navy. 2. It was built by Cochin Shipyard Limited. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: INS Androth is the second ASW Shallow Water Craft; it was built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata, with over 80% indigenous content.
What was the theme of Wildlife Week 2025 celebrations held at Dehradun on 6 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Human-Wildlife Coexistence
PIB: this year's theme was 'Human-Wildlife Coexistence', aimed at moving from 'conflict to coexistence'.
At Wildlife Week 2025, a Centre of Excellence for Human–Wildlife Conflict Management (CoE-HWC) was launched at which institution?
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Correct answer: B — SACON
PIB: the projects launched included the Centre of Excellence for Human–Wildlife Conflict Management (CoE-HWC) at SACON, a dedicated national centre for policy, research and field mitigation.
The Ghatsila (ST) Assembly constituency, where a bye-election was announced on 6 October 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Jharkhand
PIB (ECI): 45-Ghatsila (ST) in Jharkhand fell vacant on the death of Ramdas Soren.
Consider the following statements about the bye-elections announced on 6 October 2025: 1. The Budgam seat in Jammu and Kashmir fell vacant on the resignation of Omar Abdullah. 2. The Anta seat in Rajasthan fell vacant on the death of the sitting member. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): 27-Budgam fell vacant on the resignation of Omar Abdullah; 193-Anta fell vacant on the disqualification of Kanwarlal.
In the investigation following child deaths in Chhindwara (October 2025), the cough syrup 'Coldrif' was found to contain which substance beyond the permissible limit?
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Correct answer: B — Diethylene glycol (DEG)
PIB (MoHFW): of 10 samples analysed, 9 met quality standards, but the cough syrup 'Coldrif' contained DEG (diethylene glycol) beyond the permissible limit; Tamil Nadu FDA acted against the unit in Kancheepuram.
The 'Revised Schedule M', whose strict compliance the Union Health Secretary stressed in October 2025, deals with which of the following?
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Correct answer: D — Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) for drug manufacturing units
PIB (MoHFW): the DCGI reiterated that drug manufacturing units must strictly comply with the Revised Schedule M for Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP).
Consider the following statements about the Chhindwara cough syrup case (October 2025): 1. The cluster of cases and deaths was reported to IDSP, NCDC by the Metropolitan Surveillance Unit, Nagpur, set up under PM-ABHIM. 2. Risk-based inspections were initiated across 19 drug manufacturing units in six States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (MoHFW): the MSU Nagpur, established under PM-ABHIM, reported the cluster to IDSP, NCDC; Risk-Based Inspections have been initiated across 19 manufacturing units in six States.