JPSC Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the toll-free number of the National Consumer Helpline?
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Correct answer: B — 1915
PIB (Consumer Affairs): consumers can register grievances in 17 languages through the toll-free number 1915.
Which sector accounted for the largest share of refunds facilitated by the National Consumer Helpline between 25 April and 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — E-commerce
PIB (Consumer Affairs): e-commerce recorded 39,965 grievances and ₹32 crore of the ₹45 crore refunds; travel and tourism was second with ₹3.5 crore.
Consider the following statements about the National Consumer Helpline (NCH): 1. Between 25 April and 26 December 2025, the NCH facilitated ₹45 crore in refunds on 67,265 grievances across 31 sectors. 2. The NCH operates at the pre-litigation stage under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. 3. Grievances can be registered on the NCH in only 12 languages. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the ₹45 crore refunds covered 67,265 grievances in 31 sectors, and the NCH works at the pre-litigation stage under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Grievances can be registered in 17 languages, so statement 3 is wrong.
On the Parkash Utsav of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji (27 December 2025), the PM shared pictures from his earlier visit to which Takht?
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Correct answer: B — Takht Sri Harimandir Ji Patna Sahib
PIB (PMO): the PM shared pictures from his visit to Takht Sri Harimandir Ji Patna Sahib earlier in the year.
At Takht Sri Harimandir Ji Patna Sahib, the PM had darshan of the holy Jore Sahib of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji and of:
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Correct answer: C — Mata Sahib Kaur Ji
PIB (PMO): the PM had darshan of the holy Jore Sahib of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji and Mata Sahib Kaur Ji.
At which ground did England win the fourth Ashes Test of 2025-26 inside two days on 27 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Melbourne Cricket Ground
ESPNcricinfo and ICC: England won the Boxing Day Test at the Melbourne Cricket Ground by four wickets on the second day.
Before the Melbourne win of December 2025, England's previous Test victory in Australia came at:
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Correct answer: D — Sydney, January 2011
ICC: it was England's first Test victory in Australia since they won the fifth Test in Sydney in January 2011.
Consider the following statements about the fourth Ashes Test of 2025-26: 1. The match finished inside two days. 2. England chased a target of 175 and won by four wickets. 3. The win levelled the five-match series at 2-2. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
ESPNcricinfo and ICC: the Test ended on day two with England chasing 175 to win by four wickets. Australia lead the series 3-1, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which agency organised the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025 inaugurated in New Delhi on 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — National Investigation Agency
PIB 2208950: the two-day conference was organised by the National Investigation Agency (NIA) under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
According to the Home Minister at the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025, the terrorists who carried out the Baisaran (Pahalgam) attack were neutralised through:
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Correct answer: C — Operation Mahadev
PIB 2208950: the planners were punished through Operation Sindoor and those who carried out the attack were neutralised through Operation Mahadev.
Consider the following statements about the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025: 1. An Organised Crime Network Database was launched at the conference. 2. The Home Minister asked states to adopt a common ATS structure for their police. 3. It was a one-day conference organised by the Intelligence Bureau. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208950: the Organised Crime Network Database was launched and states were asked to implement a common ATS structure. The conference was a two-day event organised by the NIA, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many children received the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar on 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20
PIB backgrounder: 20 children from 18 States and Union Territories were selected for the PMRBP 2025.
Where was the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2025 conferred by the President on 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vigyan Bhawan
PIB backgrounder: the awards were conferred at a special ceremony at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. The national Veer Bal Diwas programme was held separately at Bharat Mandapam.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar: 1. It is given to Indian children aged 5 to 18 years as on 31 July of the year. 2. A maximum of 25 awards are normally conferred in a year. 3. The award is never conferred posthumously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB backgrounder: eligibility is 5–18 years as on 31 July and at most 25 awards are given annually. Posthumous conferment is possible in rare cases, and two 2025 bravery awards were posthumous, so statement 3 is wrong.
The selection committee for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is chaired by the:
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Correct answer: A — Secretary, Ministry of Women and Child Development
PIB backgrounder: the PMRBP Committee is constituted by the Minister for Women and Child Development and chaired by the Secretary, MWCD.
Indian Railways' plan announced in December 2025 aims to double the train-originating capacity of major cities by which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2030
PIB 2208869: the works for doubling the originating capacity are to be completed by 2030.
Under Indian Railways' capacity-doubling plan, which stations are being considered along with Pune station to raise Pune's capacity?
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Correct answer: A — Hadapsar, Khadki and Alandi
PIB 2208869: for Pune, Hadapsar, Khadki and Alandi have been considered along with more platforms and stabling lines at Pune station.
Veer Baal Diwas, observed on 26 December, honours which two Sahibzadas of Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
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Correct answer: C — Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh
PIB backgrounder: Veer Baal Diwas honours Sahibzada Zorawar Singh Ji and Sahibzada Fateh Singh Ji, the two youngest sons of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
The two youngest Sahibzadas were martyred on 26 December 1704 at:
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Correct answer: C — Sirhind (Fatehgarh Sahib)
PIB backgrounder: they were bricked alive and martyred at Sirhind (present-day Fatehgarh Sahib, Punjab) on 26 December 1704.
In his Veer Baal Diwas 2025 address, the Prime Minister said the colonial mindset was seeded by Macaulay in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 1835
PIB 2208811: the PM said the mentality was seeded by British politician Macaulay in 1835, and that 2035 will mark 200 years.
Data from which instrument did Indian Institute of Astrophysics scientists use to study PAH molecules around the young star T Chamaeleontis?
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Correct answer: B — Mid Infrared Instrument (MIRI) of JWST
PIB 2208927: IIA scientists used archival spectroscopic data from JWST's Mid Infrared Instrument (MIRI).
Consider the following statements about the IIA study of T Chamaeleontis released in December 2025: 1. T Chamaeleontis is a young star about 350 light-years from Earth. 2. The PAH molecules found contain more than 100 carbon atoms each. 3. Faint PAH signatures were also found in archival Spitzer Space Telescope data. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208927: T Cha is about 350 light-years away and faint PAH signatures were found in archival Spitzer data. The PAHs are smaller molecules with fewer than 30 carbon atoms, so statement 2 is wrong.
What name has the Labour Ministry given to the authorised facilitators who will guide EPFO members in accessing benefits?
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Correct answer: B — EPF Suvidha Providers
PIB 2208948: the Government will introduce EPF Suvidha Providers, authorised facilitators who guide members and act as a bridge between citizens and EPFO.
By when did the Labour Minister say India would bring 100 crore citizens under social security coverage?
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Correct answer: C — March 2026
PIB 2208948: 94 crore people are covered today and by March 2026 India will ensure coverage for 100 crore citizens.
Consider the following statements made at the EPFO event at Vatva on 26 December 2025: 1. EPFO holds a fund corpus of about ₹28 lakh crore. 2. As per the ILO, India's social security coverage rose from 19% before 2014 to 64%. 3. EPF claims of up to ₹1 lakh only are settled automatically. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208948: the corpus is ₹28 lakh crore and coverage rose from 19% to 64% as per the ILO. Settlements up to ₹5 lakh are now processed automatically, so statement 3 is wrong.
The National Council for Cement and Building Materials (NCB), which released the carbon uptake report in December 2025, works under the administrative control of:
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Correct answer: D — Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
PIB 2208907: NCB is an apex R&D organisation under the administrative control of DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
The GCCA India–NCB report 'Carbon Uptake by Concrete' (December 2025) is based on which methodology?
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Correct answer: B — Tier-I methodology of the IVL Swedish Environment Research Institute
PIB 2208907: the report is based on the Tier-I methodology of IVL Swedish Environment Research Institute; it will go to MoEF&CC for possible inclusion as a sink in NATCOM to the UNFCCC.
India will chair which international initiative against trade in 'conflict diamonds' from 1 January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Kimberley Process
PIB 2208375: the Kimberley Process Plenary selected India to assume the chairpersonship of the Kimberley Process from 1 January 2026.
How many times will India have chaired the Kimberley Process when it takes over in 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Third
PIB 2208375: this will be the third time India has been entrusted with the chair of the Kimberley Process.
Consider the following statements about the Kimberley Process: 1. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme came into effect on 1 January 2003. 2. It has 60 participants, with the European Union and its member states counted as one. 3. Its participants account for about three-fourths of global rough diamond trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208375: KPCS came into effect on 1 January 2003 and KP has 60 participants (EU counted as one). Participants account for over 99% of global rough diamond trade, so statement 3 is wrong.
In which script is the Santhali version of the Constitution of India, released on 25 December 2025, written?
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Correct answer: A — Ol Chiki
PIB 2208453: the President said the Constitution is now available in the Santhali language, written in the Ol Chiki script.
Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
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Correct answer: C — 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
PIB 2208453 and 2208484: Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
Consider the following statements about the Santhali Constitution released in December 2025: 1. The Ol Chiki script was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925. 2. The translation was published by the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice. 3. It was released at a joint sitting in Parliament House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208484: Ol Chiki was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 and the translation was published by the Legislative Department. It was released at Rashtrapati Bhavan, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), which completed 25 years in December 2025, was launched on:
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Correct answer: B — 25 December 2000
PIB backgrounder 2208381: PMGSY was launched on 25 December 2000 to ensure all-weather connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.
PMGSY-IV (2024–29) aims to connect how many rural habitations?
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Correct answer: A — 25,000
PIB backgrounder 2208381: under PMGSY-IV, 25,000 habitations are to be connected through 62,500 km of roads with an outlay of ₹70,125 crore. (1,63,339 habitations were sanctioned under Phase I.)
In which year was the Road Connectivity Project for Left Wing Extremism Affected Areas (RCPLWEA) under the PMGSY framework launched?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
PIB backgrounder 2208381: RCPLWEA was launched in 2016 as a targeted intervention; PMGSY Phase II began in 2013.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Vision IAS in December 2025 for misleading UPSC result advertisements?
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Correct answer: A — ₹11 lakh
PIB 2208482: the CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹11 lakh on Vision IAS (AjayVision Education Private Limited).
'Misleading advertisement' is defined under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, as cited by the CCPA in its December 2025 order against a coaching institute?
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Correct answer: C — Section 2(28)
PIB 2208482: concealment of material information constituted a misleading advertisement under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Good Governance Day, observed on 25 December, marks the birth anniversary of:
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Correct answer: B — Atal Bihari Vajpayee
PIB 2208924: the Good Governance Day workshop commemorated the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. (Malaviya was also born on 25 December, but the Day honours Vajpayee.)
According to DARPG, how many public grievances were redressed during Good Governance Week 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Over 45 lakh
PIB 2208924: Good Governance Week saw over 57,000 camps, disposal of over 3 crore service delivery applications and redressal of over 45 lakh public grievances.
Under the railway fare rationalisation effective 26 December 2025, Second Class Ordinary fares do not increase for journeys up to:
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Correct answer: B — 215 km
PIB 2208532: in Second Class Ordinary there is no increase in fare for journeys up to 215 km.
By how much per kilometre were Mail/Express fares (AC and non-AC) revised from 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2 paise
PIB 2208532: in Mail/Express trains the fare increase is 2 paise per km across non-AC and AC classes.
Consider the following statements about the railway fare rationalisation of December 2025: 1. There is no change in fares for suburban services and season tickets. 2. Reservation fees and superfast surcharges have also been raised. 3. Revised fares apply only to tickets booked on or after 26 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208532: suburban and season ticket fares are unchanged and the new fares apply only to tickets booked on or after 26 December 2025. Reservation fees and superfast surcharges are unchanged, so statement 2 is wrong.
Who released 'Mahamana Vangmay', the final series of Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya's collected works, on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Vice President C.P. Radhakrishnan
PIB 2208546: Vice President C.P. Radhakrishnan released Mahamana Vangmay at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements about 'Mahamana Vangmay': 1. The second and final series comprises 12 volumes. 2. It is published by the Publications Division of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. 3. The first series was released by the Prime Minister in 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2208546: the final series has 12 volumes (about 3,500 pages), it is published by the Publications Division, and the first series was released by PM Modi in 2023. All three are correct.
Which body has the Environment Ministry asked to identify additional no-mining zones and prepare a Management Plan for Sustainable Mining for the Aravallis (December 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education
PIB 2208234: MoEF&CC directed ICFRE to identify additional areas where mining should be prohibited while preparing the MPSM for the entire Aravalli region.
As described by the Environment Ministry in December 2025, the Aravalli Range stretches between:
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Correct answer: A — Gujarat and the National Capital Region
PIB 2208234: the Aravallis form a continuous geological ridge extending from Gujarat to the National Capital Region.
Consider the following statements about the Centre's December 2025 directions on the Aravallis: 1. States must not grant any new mining leases anywhere in the Aravallis. 2. All mines already operating in the Aravallis must close immediately. 3. The Management Plan for Sustainable Mining will be placed in the public domain for consultation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208234: the ban covers grant of new mining leases and the MPSM will be placed in the public domain. Existing mines are to be regulated stringently in line with the Supreme Court's order, not closed, so statement 2 is wrong.
The BlueBird Block-2 satellite launched by LVM3-M6 on 24 December 2025 belongs to which company?
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Correct answer: C — AST SpaceMobile
ISRO and PIB 2208090: the mission launched the BlueBird Block-2 satellite of US-based AST SpaceMobile under a commercial agreement with NSIL.
Into which orbit did LVM3-M6 place the BlueBird Block-2 satellite?
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Correct answer: A — Low Earth Orbit
ISRO and The Hindu: LVM3-M6 placed BlueBird Block-2 in low Earth orbit (LEO).
Consider the following statements about ISRO's LVM3: 1. LVM3-M6 was the sixth operational flight of LVM3. 2. LVM3's upper stage is the C25 cryogenic stage. 3. LVM3 can carry about 8,000 kg to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: LVM3-M6 is the sixth operational flight and LVM3 has S200 strap-ons, an L110 core and a C25 cryogenic upper stage. Its GTO capability is 4,200 kg, so statement 3 is wrong.
What was the theme of National Consumer Day 2025, observed on 24 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Efficient and Speedy Disposal through Digital Justice
PIB 2208179: the theme for National Consumer Day 2025 was 'Efficient and Speedy Disposal through Digital Justice'.
According to the Consumer Affairs Minister on National Consumer Day 2025, how much did the National Consumer Helpline secure in refunds between April and December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹42.6 crore
PIB 2208179: the NCH facilitated refunds of ₹42.6 crore across 30 sectors by resolving over 63,800 refund grievances between April and December 2025. (₹2.13 crore is the CCPA's total penalties.)
Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust (RIIT), approved by SEBI as a public InvIT in December 2025, is sponsored by:
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Correct answer: B — National Highways Authority of India
PIB 2208143: NHAI-sponsored Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust has received SEBI approval as an InvIT.
Which investor group is the NHAI's public InvIT, RIIT, primarily meant to target?
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Correct answer: C — Retail and domestic investors
PIB 2208143: the public InvIT creates a long-term investment instrument primarily targeting retail and domestic investors.
Which Indian Standard released by BIS on National Consumer Day 2025 covers incense sticks (agarbatti)?
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Correct answer: D — IS 19412:2025
PIB 2208829: IS 19412:2025 – Incense Sticks (Agarbatti) — Specification was released on National Consumer Day 2025. IS 19445 is for bomb disposal systems and IS 19262 for electric tractors.
The BIS standard IS 19445:2025 on bomb disposal systems was taken up at the request of the Ministry of Home Affairs and which DRDO laboratory?
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Correct answer: A — Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory
PIB 2209191: formulation of IS 19445:2025 was initiated on a request from the MHA and the Terminal Ballistic Research Laboratory (TBRL), DRDO, which also convened the drafting panel.
Consider the following statements about BIS standards released on National Consumer Day 2025: 1. IS 19412:2025 prohibits the use of certain insecticides such as permethrin and fipronil in agarbattis. 2. IS 19262:2025 is a test code for electric agricultural tractors. 3. IS 19412:2025 applies only to machine-made agarbattis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208829 and 2209159: IS 19412 bans insecticides including permethrin and fipronil, and IS 19262 is the electric tractor test code. IS 19412 classifies agarbattis as machine-made, hand-made and traditional masala, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Revised Jharia Master Plan, reviewed by the Coal Minister in December 2025, mainly addresses which problems in the Jharia Coalfield?
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Correct answer: B — Mine fires, land subsidence and rehabilitation
PIB 2208187: the RJMP, approved by the CCEA on 25 June 2025, aims to address mine fires, land subsidence and rehabilitation in the Jharia Coalfield.
Under the Revised Jharia Master Plan, which body rehabilitates non-BCCL families from endangered areas?
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Correct answer: D — Jharia Rehabilitation and Development Authority
PIB 2208187: rehabilitation of non-BCCL families is undertaken by the Jharia Rehabilitation and Development Authority (JRDA) under the State Government, while BCCL rehabilitates families within its operational areas.
Who was conferred the Rashtriya Vigyan Ratna Puraskar 2025 (posthumously) on 23 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jayant Vishnu Narlikar
PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Ratna for lifetime achievement was awarded posthumously to astrophysicist Prof. Jayant Vishnu Narlikar.
The Rashtriya Vigyan Team Puraskar 2025 was won by which team, credited with the 'Purple Revolution'?
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Correct answer: C — CSIR Aroma Mission
PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Team Award went to the CSIR-led Aroma Mission, which promoted lavender cultivation in the Himalayan region ('Purple Revolution').
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2025: 1. It was the second edition of the awards. 2. The Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is for scientists below the age of 45. 3. Lavender cultivation promoted by the winning team began at Bhaderwah and Gulmarg. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207860: the 2025 ceremony was the second edition; Vigyan Yuva–SSB is for scientists below 45; and lavender entrepreneurship began from Bhaderwah and Gulmarg in J&K. All three are correct.
Kisan Diwas (National Farmers' Day), observed on 23 December, marks the birth anniversary of which former Prime Minister?
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Correct answer: A — Chaudhary Charan Singh
ICAR: Kisan Diwas, observed annually on 23 December, commemorates the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Chaudhary Charan Singh.
Chaudhary Charan Singh, whose birth anniversary is observed as Kisan Diwas, was India's Prime Minister in which order?
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Correct answer: C — Fifth
ICAR-IIWM report (23.12.2025): National Farmers' Day commemorates the birth anniversary of India's fifth Prime Minister, Shri Chaudhary Charan Singh.
Which of the following correctly describes the Akash-NG missile system whose User Evaluation Trials were completed in December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Indigenous RF seeker and solid rocket motor
PIB 2207971: Akash-NG is equipped with an indigenous RF seeker and propelled by a solid rocket motor.
Representatives of which service witnessed the User Evaluation Trials of Akash-NG?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Air Force
PIB 2207971: the trials were witnessed by senior DRDO scientists and user representatives from the Indian Air Force.
As announced by MoSPI in December 2025, what will be the base year of the new Consumer Price Index series?
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Correct answer: B — 2024
PIB 2207861: the new series of CPI with base year 2024 is scheduled for release on 12 February 2026.
Consider the following statements about MoSPI's base revision plans announced in December 2025: 1. The new National Accounts (GDP) series will have 2022-23 as base year. 2. The new IIP series is scheduled for release before the new CPI series. 3. GST and PFMS data will be among the new data sources used. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2207861: GDP and IIP will have base 2022-23, and GST and PFMS are new data sources. The new CPI is due on 12 February 2026 while the new IIP is due on 28 May 2026, so statement 2 is wrong.
Where was MoSPI's first pre-release consultative workshop on the base revision of GDP, CPI and IIP held?
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Correct answer: C — Mumbai
PIB 2207861: the first pre-release consultative workshop was held on 26 November 2025 at Mumbai; the second was on 23 December 2025 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Which shipyard built 'Samudra Pratap', the Indian Coast Guard's first indigenously designed Pollution Control Vessel inducted in December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Goa Shipyard Limited
PIB 2208089: Samudra Pratap (Yard 1267) was built under the two-PCV project of Goa Shipyard Limited.
Samudra Pratap is the first Indian Coast Guard ship to be equipped with which capability?
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Correct answer: C — Dynamic Positioning (DP-1)
PIB 2208089: the PCV is the first Indian Coast Guard ship to be equipped with Dynamic Positioning capability (DP-1).
Consider the following statements about ICGS Samudra Pratap: 1. It is the largest ship in the Indian Coast Guard fleet. 2. It has over 60% indigenous content. 3. Its displacement is about 6,100 tonnes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208089: Samudra Pratap is the largest ship in the ICG fleet with over 60% indigenous content. Its displacement is 4,170 tonnes, so statement 3 is wrong.
In how many Scheduled districts of Jharkhand will the PESA rules approved by the state Cabinet on 23 December 2025 apply?
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Correct answer: C — 15
UNI and IANS: the PESA rules clear the way for the law to become operational across 15 Scheduled districts of Jharkhand.
The PESA Act, whose implementation rules Jharkhand approved in December 2025, was enacted in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1996
PIB 2208189 and UNI: the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act dates from 1996.
Under the Colliery Control (Amendment) Rules, 2025, who now approves the opening of a coal mine or seam by a coal company?
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Correct answer: C — Board of the concerned coal company
PIB 2208844: the authority to approve mine/seam opening has been vested with the board of the concerned coal company; prior CCO permission is dispensed with.
Consider the following statements about the Colliery Control (Amendment) Rules, 2025: 1. They amend Rule 9 of the Colliery Control Rules, 2004. 2. Entities other than companies no longer need any approval to open a mine. 3. The company must submit information about mine opening to the Coal Controller's Organisation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208844: Rule 9 of the 2004 Rules was amended and companies must inform the CCO. For entities other than companies, approval continues to be through the CCO, so statement 2 is wrong.