Asia Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was India's all-India year-on-year CPI (retail) inflation for May 2025, released on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2.82%
PIB (MoSPI): all-India year-on-year inflation based on CPI for May 2025 was 2.82%, the lowest since February 2019.
Consider the following statements about the CPI data for May 2025 released on 12 June 2025: 1. All-India food inflation based on the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) was 0.99%. 2. This food inflation was the lowest since October 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoSPI): CFPI-based all-India food inflation for May 2025 was 0.99%, the lowest year-on-year food inflation since October 2021. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Which of the following correctly gives rural and urban CPI inflation for May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rural 2.59%, Urban 3.07%
PIB (MoSPI): for May 2025, rural inflation was 2.59% and urban inflation 3.07%, so the answer is Rural 2.59%, Urban 3.07%.
The Consumer Price Index numbers (Rural, Urban and Combined) released by MoSPI for May 2025 are compiled on which base year?
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Correct answer: D — 2012=100
PIB (MoSPI) (static): the release is titled 'Consumer Price Index Numbers on Base 2012=100 for Rural, Urban and Combined', so the base is 2012=100.
Air India flight AI171, which crashed after take-off from Ahmedabad on 12 June 2025, was operated with which aircraft type?
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Correct answer: B — Boeing 787-8
Air India statement (also ThePrint/PTI, Aviation Week): AI171 was a 12-year-old Boeing 787-8 that departed Ahmedabad at 1338 hrs.
What was the destination of Air India flight AI171 that crashed after take-off from Ahmedabad on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — London Gatwick
Air India statement (also ThePrint/PTI, Aviation Week): flight AI171 was operating from Ahmedabad to London Gatwick.
Consider the following statements about those on board Air India flight AI171 on 12 June 2025: 1. The aircraft was carrying 230 passengers and 12 crew. 2. Portuguese nationals formed the largest group of foreign passengers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Air India statement and Amit Shah (PIB): 230 passengers and 12 crew, so 1 is correct. Air India: passengers were 169 Indian, 53 British, 7 Portuguese and 1 Canadian, so British nationals (53), not Portuguese (7), were the largest foreign group and 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Which body began the investigation into the Air India AI171 crash on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB)
PIB (Ministry of Civil Aviation briefing, 14 June 2025): the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB) began its investigation on 12 June 2025, the day of the crash.
Who received the Srimanta Sankardeva Award from the Government of Assam on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sonal Mansingh
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): the Government of Assam presented the Srimanta Sankardeva Award to classical dancer Sonal Mansingh.
Consider the following statements about the Srimanta Sankardeva Award ceremony of 12 June 2025: 1. The award was conferred by Assam Governor Lakshman Prasad Acharya. 2. The ceremony was held at the Srimanta Sankardeva Kalakshetra in Guwahati. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: the award was conferred by Governor Lakshman Prasad Acharya at the Srimanta Sankardeva Kalakshetra in Guwahati. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
The Srimanta Sankardeva Award, presented to Sonal Mansingh on 12 June 2025, is named after a saint-reformer of which century?
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Correct answer: D — 15th century
PIB: the award is named after the 15th-century saint-reformer Srimanta Sankardeva; answer: 15th century.
On 12 June 2025, procurement of summer moong under the Price Support Scheme was approved in Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and which other state?
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Correct answer: C — Gujarat
PIB (Agriculture): 54,166 MT of moong was approved under PSS in Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat for the summer crop season 2025–26.
Consider the following statements about the procurement decisions of 12 June 2025: 1. Procurement of 50,750 MT of groundnut under PSS was approved in Uttar Pradesh. 2. Procurement of tur, urad and masur up to 100% of State production has been extended up to 2030–31. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Agriculture): 50,750 MT of groundnut under PSS was approved in Uttar Pradesh, so 1 is correct. The Union Budget 2025 continued 100% procurement of tur, urad and masur for four more years up to 2028–29, not 2030–31, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
The Price Support Scheme is a component of the umbrella scheme PM-AASHA. Which of the following is NOT a component of PM-AASHA?
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Correct answer: B — PM-KISAN
PIB (Agriculture) (static): PM-AASHA encompasses the Price Support Scheme, Price Deficiency Payment Scheme, Market Intervention Scheme and Price Stabilisation Fund. PM-KISAN is not a component.
Which organisation chaired the 137th meeting of the Offshore Security Coordination Committee (OSCC) in New Delhi on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Coast Guard
PIB (Defence): the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) chaired the 137th OSCC meeting in New Delhi on 12 June 2025.
Who, as Director General of the Indian Coast Guard, addressed the 137th OSCC meeting on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Paramesh Sivamani
PIB (Defence): Director General ICG Paramesh Sivamani addressed the committee and underlined the importance of energy security.
In which year was the Offshore Security Coordination Committee (OSCC) constituted to ensure effective functioning of offshore security arrangements?
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Correct answer: D — 1978
PIB (Defence) (static): the OSCC was constituted in 1978 to ensure the effective functioning of offshore security arrangements.
Which organisation is implementing the DGT–Shell India Green Skills and EV training programme launched on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Edunet Foundation
PIB (MSDE): the initiative is implemented by Edunet Foundation, the training partner of Shell.
Consider the following statements about the first phase of the DGT–Shell India EV training programme: 1. A 240-hour advanced EV Technician course will run at 4 NSTIs. 2. A 90-hour job-oriented EV skills course will run at 12 ITIs with Shell-supported labs. 3. The 50-hour foundational green skills module is limited to ITIs that have physical labs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MSDE): 240-hour course at 4 NSTIs and 90-hour course at 12 ITIs with Shell-supported labs are correct. The 50-hour module is for additional ITIs without physical labs, so 3 is wrong. So the answer is 1 and 2 only.
The DGT–Shell India EV training programme launched on 12 June 2025 covers ITIs and NSTIs in Delhi-NCR, Maharashtra and three other states. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
PIB (MSDE): the programme covers Delhi-NCR, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Kerala is not among them.
On 12 June 2025, NHAI restricted consultancy firms to a maximum of how many National Highway projects per designated 'Engineer'?
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Correct answer: C — 10
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI restricted the maximum number to 10 projects per 'Engineer' for consultancy firms supervising construction or maintenance of National Highway projects.
The Ahmedabad Metro Rail Project Phase-2A evaluated at the 95th Network Planning Group meeting on 12 June 2025 is meant to provide direct connectivity to which destination?
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Correct answer: A — Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport
PIB (Commerce): Phase-2A extends the Ahmedabad Metro by 6.032 km from Koteshwar Metro Station to provide direct connectivity to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport.
The Technology Development Board's support to Clearsynth Labs, announced on 12 June 2025, is for a facility to manufacture what?
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Correct answer: B — Deuterated reagents and building blocks
PIB (DST): TDB extended financial support to Clearsynth Labs for commercial-scale production of deuterated reagents and building blocks.
In whose presence did Union Minister Manohar Lal review urban development schemes of Jammu and Kashmir in Srinagar on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Omar Abdullah
PIB (MoHUA): the review was held in the presence of Chief Minister Omar Abdullah, who is also in charge of the department in J&K.
The Koderma–Barkakana rail doubling project approved by the Cabinet on 11 June 2025 lies in which state?
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Correct answer: B — Jharkhand
PIB (CCEA): the Koderma–Barkakana doubling (133 km) passes through a major coal-producing area of Jharkhand.
Consider the following statements about the railway projects approved by the CCEA on 11 June 2025: 1. The Ballari–Chikjajur doubling traverses districts of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. 2. The total cost of the two projects is ₹6,405 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (CCEA): the Ballari–Chikjajur line traverses Ballari and Chitradurga (Karnataka) and Anantapur (Andhra Pradesh), and the two projects cost ₹6,405 crore in total. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the Cabinet decision of 11 June 2025, the Koderma–Barkakana section serves as the shortest rail link between which two cities?
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Correct answer: D — Patna and Ranchi
PIB (CCEA): the Koderma–Barkakana section serves as the shortest and more efficient rail link between Patna and Ranchi.
The Goa State Heritage Policy 2025, approved by the Goa cabinet on 11 June 2025, recognises how many folk art forms?
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Correct answer: B — 46
The Goan and Goemkarponn: the policy recognises 46 folk art forms and 61 traditional occupations.
Consider the following statements about the Goa State Heritage Policy 2025 approved on 11 June 2025: 1. It envisages preservation of over 200 heritage sites. 2. It recognises 46 traditional occupations of the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Goan and Goemkarponn: the policy covers over 200 heritage sites, so 1 is correct. It recognises 61 traditional occupations (46 is the number of folk art forms), so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Which organisation organised the third meeting of the ITU-T Focus Group FG-AINN in New Delhi from 11 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Telecommunication Engineering Centre (TEC)
PIB (Communications): the ITU event was organised by the Telecommunication Engineering Centre (TEC), the technical arm of the Department of Telecommunications.
Consider the following statements about the FG-AINN Build-a-thon 2025 held with the New Delhi meeting: 1. A total of 23 teams comprising 57 participants registered. 2. Fifteen teams were shortlisted for the final presentation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Communications, 13 June 2025): 23 teams comprising 57 participants registered, so 1 is correct; 10 teams, not fifteen, were shortlisted for the final presentation, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Which Commander of the Sri Lanka Army began an official visit to India on 11 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Lasantha Rodrigo
PIB (Defence): Lieutenant General BKGM Lasantha Rodrigo, Commander of the Sri Lanka Army, arrived on an official visit to India from 11 to 14 June 2025.
Which Indian Army command headquarters did Lt Gen Lasantha Rodrigo visit on 12 June 2025, the second day of his India tour?
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Correct answer: C — South Western Command, Jaipur
PIB (Defence): on the second day of his tour, Lt Gen Rodrigo visited the Headquarters of South Western Command, Jaipur and was welcomed by Lt Gen Manjinder Singh.
Under the Tatkal rules announced on 11 June 2025, authorised agents cannot book opening-day Tatkal tickets for AC classes during which window?
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Correct answer: A — 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM
PIB (Railways): agents cannot book in the first 30 minutes; for AC classes this is 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM, and for non-AC classes 11:00 AM to 11:30 AM.
Consider the following statements about the Tatkal changes announced on 11 June 2025: 1. Aadhaar-based OTP authentication becomes mandatory for online Tatkal bookings from 15 July 2025. 2. OTP authentication for Tatkal tickets booked at PRS counters takes effect from 1 July 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Railways): Aadhaar-based OTP for online Tatkal is mandatory from 15 July 2025, so 1 is correct. OTP at PRS counters and for agents also comes into effect from 15 July 2025, not 1 July, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Which session of the India–Sweden Joint Commission for Economic, Industrial and Scientific Cooperation was held during Piyush Goyal's Stockholm visit in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 21st
PIB (Commerce) and the Government of Sweden: the 21st session of the India–Sweden Joint Commission for Economic, Industrial and Scientific Cooperation was held during the visit.
Which Swedish minister for International Development Cooperation and Foreign Trade did Piyush Goyal meet during his Stockholm visit of 11–12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Benjamin Dousa
PIB (Commerce) and the Government of Sweden: Goyal met Benjamin Dousa, Minister for International Development Cooperation and Foreign Trade, and State Secretary Håkan Jevrell.
According to India's national statement at the 113th International Labour Conference on 11 June 2025, what was India's social protection coverage in 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 64.3%
PIB (Labour): citing the ILO World Social Protection Report, India's social protection coverage grew from 24.4% in 2019 to 64.3% in 2025.
Consider the following statements made in India's national statement at the 113th ILC on 11 June 2025: 1. India's unemployment rate declined from 6% in 2017 to 3.2% by 2024. 2. Over 300 million unorganised workers are registered on the e-Shram portal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Labour): the statement said unemployment fell from 6% in 2017 to 3.2% by 2024 and that over 300 million unorganised workers are registered on e-Shram. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
At which session of the International Labour Conference did Mansukh Mandaviya deliver India's national statement in Geneva in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 113th
PIB (Labour): Mandaviya delivered the national statement at the plenary session of the 113th International Labour Conference in Geneva.
Which new motto did the Full Bench of the Lokpal of India adopt on 11 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption
PIB (Lokpal of India): the Full Bench adopted the new motto 'Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption', replacing the old one.
Consider the following statements about the composition of the Lokpal: 1. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight Members. 2. Fifty per cent of the Members of the Lokpal are judicial Members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Year End Review 2013, DoPT) (static): the Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight Members, of which fifty per cent shall be judicial Members. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Which of the following is NOT a member of the Selection Committee for the Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal?
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Correct answer: D — Chairman of Rajya Sabha
PIB (Year End Review 2013, DoPT) (static): the Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the CJI or a nominated SC judge, and an eminent jurist nominated by the President. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is not a member.
The Uttarakhand cabinet on 11 June 2025 approved developing five PWD inspection buildings in PPP mode. Which of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Mussoorie
Garhwal Post and Zee News: the five PWD inspection buildings are at Ranikhet, Uttarkashi, Dugalbitta, Harsil and Rishikesh. Mussoorie is not among them.
Which council did the Uttarakhand cabinet approve forming on 11 June 2025 to bring uniformity in admission, registration and curriculum standards?
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Correct answer: B — State Allied and Healthcare Council
Garhwal Post and Zee News: the cabinet approved forming the Uttarakhand State Allied and Healthcare Council to bring uniformity in admission, registration and curriculum standards.
Through which route did IREDA raise ₹2,005.90 crore, as announced on 11 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP)
PIB (MNRE): IREDA raised ₹2,005.90 crore through a Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP), oversubscribed 1.34 times against a base issue of ₹1,500 crore.
The 29th meeting of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), held on 10 June 2025, took place in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Mumbai
PIB (Finance): the Finance Minister chaired the 29th meeting of the FSDC in Mumbai on 10 June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the 29th FSDC meeting of 10 June 2025: 1. The Council considered a financial sector-specific cybersecurity strategy in light of the FSAP 2024-25 recommendations. 2. The meeting was chaired by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Finance): the FSDC considered a financial sector-specific cybersecurity strategy in light of FSAP 2024-25; the meeting was chaired by the Union Finance Minister, not the RBI Governor. So 1 only.
The FSDC was constituted by a Government of India notification dated 30 December 2010. Who chairs the Sub-Committee of the FSDC?
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Correct answer: D — Governor, RBI
PIB (static): the Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, and its Sub-Committee is chaired by the Governor, RBI.
According to Power Minister Manohar Lal on 10 June 2025, India met what peak power demand on 9 June 2025 with zero peak shortage?
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Correct answer: A — 241 GW
PIB (Power): India successfully met a peak power demand of 241 GW on 9 June 2025 with zero peak shortage.
The ₹5,400 crore Viability Gap Funding scheme announced by the Ministry of Power on 10 June 2025 covers how much Battery Energy Storage capacity?
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Correct answer: B — 30 GWh
PIB (Power): the VGF scheme is for 30 GWh of BESS, in addition to the 13.2 GWh already under way.
Consider the following statements based on the Power Ministry's press conference of 10 June 2025: 1. India's total installed generation capacity stands at 249 GW. 2. India's national energy shortage was 4.2% as of April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB (Power): installed capacity is now 472.5 GW (249 GW was the 2014 figure), and energy shortage fell to 0.1% as of April 2025 (4.2% was in 2013-14). So neither statement is correct.
The Stockholm International Conference on Electoral Integrity, where CEC Gyanesh Kumar delivered the keynote on 10 June 2025, was organised by which body?
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Correct answer: B — International IDEA
PIB (ECI): the conference was organised by the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA).
Consider the following statements made by the CEC in his Stockholm keynote of 10 June 2025: 1. India's electors grew from 173 million in 1951–52 to 979 million in 2024. 2. A total of 20,271 candidates contested the 2024 General Elections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (ECI): electors grew from 173 million in 1951–52 to 979 million in 2024, and 20,271 candidates contested in 2024. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
The Election Commission of India, whose foundation day (25 January) is observed as National Voters' Day, was established in 1950 under which Article of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: B — Article 324
PIB (static): National Voters' Day marks the foundation of the ECI, established on 25 January 1950 under Article 324 of the Constitution.
Under the Maharashtra cabinet decision of 10 June 2025, excise duty on IMFL (up to ₹260 per bulk litre) was raised from three times to how many times the declared manufacturing cost?
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Correct answer: C — 4.5 times
PTI (ThePrint) and The Hindu BusinessLine (CMO statement): IMFL duty was raised from three times to 4.5 times the declared manufacturing cost.
Consider the following statements about the Maharashtra cabinet's excise decisions of 10 June 2025: 1. A new grain-based 'Maharashtra Made Liquor' category was created, to be made only by manufacturers in Maharashtra. 2. Excise duty on country liquor was cut from ₹205 to ₹180 per proof litre. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PTI (ThePrint) and The Hindu BusinessLine: the grain-based MML category is for Maharashtra manufacturers only; country liquor duty was raised from ₹180 to ₹205, not cut. So 1 only.
Consider the following statements about the flood preparedness review chaired by Amit Shah on 10 June 2025: 1. The Jal Shakti Ministry, NDMA and NRSC were asked to closely monitor glacial lakes. 2. He stressed increasing the forest area in the Narmada river area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MHA): Shah advised the Jal Shakti Ministry, NDMA and NRSC to closely monitor glacial lakes, and stressed increasing forest area in the Narmada river area. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
At the flood review of 10 June 2025, Amit Shah stressed increasing forest area in the area of which river, to be replicated for other rivers if successful?
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Correct answer: B — Narmada
PIB (MHA): the Home Minister stressed increasing the forest area in the Narmada river area.
At the flood review of 10 June 2025, which bodies were asked to work with the States so that drainage becomes an integral part of highway design?
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Correct answer: D — MoRTH and NHAI
PIB (MHA): Shah said MoRTH and NHAI should work with the States so that the highway drainage system becomes an integral part of road design.
The Assam cabinet decision of 10 June 2025 raised the fixed monthly honorarium of ASHA workers to what amount from 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,000
PTI (ThePrint) and Assam Tribune: ASHA workers will get a fixed monthly honorarium of ₹4,000 instead of ₹3,000 from 1 October.
Consider the following statements about the Assam cabinet decision of 10 June 2025 on ASHA honorarium: 1. The Centre's share in an ASHA worker's honorarium rises to ₹2,500. 2. The revised honorarium takes effect from 1 April 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PTI (ThePrint) and Assam Tribune: the Centre's share rises from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500; the revision takes effect from 1 October (2025), not 1 April 2026. So 1 only.
Under which mission did the Assam cabinet on 10 June 2025 approve land allotment in favour of 1,011 educational, religious and socio-cultural entities?
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Correct answer: D — Mission Basundhara
PTI (ThePrint) and Assam Tribune: land was allotted under Mission Basundhara to 1,011 entities in Sonitpur, Golaghat, Majuli and Kamrup.
Who chaired the first meeting of the Task Force on Textiles Exports held on 10 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sunil Barthwal
PIB (Commerce): the first meeting was held under the chairmanship of Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal.
Consider the following statements about the first meeting of the Task Force on Textiles Exports on 10 June 2025: 1. The meeting was held at Vanijya Bhawan, Delhi. 2. The European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR) was among the issues discussed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Commerce): the meeting was held at Vanijya Bhawan in Delhi, and the discussions included the European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR). So both 1 and 2 are correct.
MoHUA's Advisory No. 27 of 10 June 2025 on repurposing SPVs and continuing ICCCs relates to which mission?
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Correct answer: C — Smart Cities Mission
PIB (MoHUA): the advisory concerns the SPVs and ICCCs set up under the Smart Cities Mission.
Consider the following statements about the Smart Cities Mission, as stated by MoHUA on 10 June 2025: 1. As of March 2025, over 93% of the 8,000+ projects under the Mission had been completed. 2. The Mission was completed on 31 March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoHUA): over 93% of the 8,000+ projects were completed as of March 2025, and the Mission was completed on 31.03.2025. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Consider the following statements about the SPVs of the Smart Cities Mission (launched in 2015): 1. The SPVs were established under the Companies Act, 2013. 2. The equity in each SPV is shared 50:50 between the Central Government and the State Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoHUA) (static): the SPVs were set up under the Companies Act, 2013, with 50:50 equity between the State/UT government and the respective Urban Local Body, not the Centre. So 1 only.
The Global Young Scientists Conference and Annual General Meeting of the Global Young Academy, chaired by Dharmendra Pradhan on 10 June 2025, was held at which institution?
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Correct answer: A — IIT Hyderabad
PIB (Education): the conference and GYA AGM were held at IIT Hyderabad.
How many new members of the Global Young Academy were inducted at the event at IIT Hyderabad on 10 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 30
PIB (Education): Pradhan congratulated the 30 new members of GYA who were inducted during the event.
On 10 June 2025, CAQM signed a tripartite MoU to curb road dust in NCR with CSIR-CRRI and which other institution?
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Correct answer: D — School of Planning and Architecture, New Delhi
PIB (MoEFCC): CAQM signed the tripartite MoU with CSIR-CRRI and the School of Planning and Architecture, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements about the first phase of road redevelopment under the CAQM MoU of 10 June 2025: 1. Bhiwadi and Neemrana are among the nine NCR cities taken up. 2. Meerut is among the nine NCR cities taken up. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoEFCC): the nine cities are Delhi, Faridabad, Gurugram, Sonipat, Ghaziabad, Noida, Greater Noida, Bhiwadi and Neemrana; Meerut is not listed. So 1 only.
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in NCR and Adjoining Areas is constituted under which law?
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Correct answer: C — Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021
CAQM Act text (static): the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021 (No. 29 of 2021) provides for the constitution of the Commission.