State Staff Selection Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to the ILO–UNICEF report released on 11 June 2025, about how many children were in child labour in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 138 million
ILO and UNICEF: nearly 138 million children were engaged in child labour in 2024, including around 54 million in hazardous work.
According to the ILO–UNICEF report of 11 June 2025, which sector accounts for the largest share of child labour?
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Correct answer: D — Agriculture
ILO: agriculture remains the largest sector for child labour, accounting for 61 per cent of all cases, followed by services (27 per cent) and industry (13 per cent).
Consider the following statements about the ILO–UNICEF child labour report released on 11 June 2025: 1. Sub-Saharan Africa accounts for nearly two-thirds of all children in child labour. 2. The report says the world achieved the target of eliminating child labour by 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ILO and UNICEF: Sub-Saharan Africa accounts for nearly two-thirds of all children in child labour (around 87 million), so 1 is correct; the world missed the target of eliminating child labour by 2025, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Under the Tatkal rules announced on 11 June 2025, authorised agents cannot book opening-day Tatkal tickets for AC classes during which window?
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Correct answer: A — 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM
PIB (Railways): agents cannot book in the first 30 minutes; for AC classes this is 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM, and for non-AC classes 11:00 AM to 11:30 AM.
Consider the following statements about the Tatkal changes announced on 11 June 2025: 1. Aadhaar-based OTP authentication becomes mandatory for online Tatkal bookings from 15 July 2025. 2. OTP authentication for Tatkal tickets booked at PRS counters takes effect from 1 July 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Railways): Aadhaar-based OTP for online Tatkal is mandatory from 15 July 2025, so 1 is correct. OTP at PRS counters and for agents also comes into effect from 15 July 2025, not 1 July, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Which session of the India–Sweden Joint Commission for Economic, Industrial and Scientific Cooperation was held during Piyush Goyal's Stockholm visit in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 21st
PIB (Commerce) and the Government of Sweden: the 21st session of the India–Sweden Joint Commission for Economic, Industrial and Scientific Cooperation was held during the visit.
Which Swedish minister for International Development Cooperation and Foreign Trade did Piyush Goyal meet during his Stockholm visit of 11–12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Benjamin Dousa
PIB (Commerce) and the Government of Sweden: Goyal met Benjamin Dousa, Minister for International Development Cooperation and Foreign Trade, and State Secretary Håkan Jevrell.
According to India's national statement at the 113th International Labour Conference on 11 June 2025, what was India's social protection coverage in 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 64.3%
PIB (Labour): citing the ILO World Social Protection Report, India's social protection coverage grew from 24.4% in 2019 to 64.3% in 2025.
Consider the following statements made in India's national statement at the 113th ILC on 11 June 2025: 1. India's unemployment rate declined from 6% in 2017 to 3.2% by 2024. 2. Over 300 million unorganised workers are registered on the e-Shram portal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Labour): the statement said unemployment fell from 6% in 2017 to 3.2% by 2024 and that over 300 million unorganised workers are registered on e-Shram. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
At which session of the International Labour Conference did Mansukh Mandaviya deliver India's national statement in Geneva in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 113th
PIB (Labour): Mandaviya delivered the national statement at the plenary session of the 113th International Labour Conference in Geneva.
Which new motto did the Full Bench of the Lokpal of India adopt on 11 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption
PIB (Lokpal of India): the Full Bench adopted the new motto 'Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption', replacing the old one.
Consider the following statements about the composition of the Lokpal: 1. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight Members. 2. Fifty per cent of the Members of the Lokpal are judicial Members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Year End Review 2013, DoPT) (static): the Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight Members, of which fifty per cent shall be judicial Members. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Which of the following is NOT a member of the Selection Committee for the Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal?
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Correct answer: D — Chairman of Rajya Sabha
PIB (Year End Review 2013, DoPT) (static): the Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the CJI or a nominated SC judge, and an eminent jurist nominated by the President. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is not a member.
The 29th meeting of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), held on 10 June 2025, took place in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Mumbai
PIB (Finance): the Finance Minister chaired the 29th meeting of the FSDC in Mumbai on 10 June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the 29th FSDC meeting of 10 June 2025: 1. The Council considered a financial sector-specific cybersecurity strategy in light of the FSAP 2024-25 recommendations. 2. The meeting was chaired by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Finance): the FSDC considered a financial sector-specific cybersecurity strategy in light of FSAP 2024-25; the meeting was chaired by the Union Finance Minister, not the RBI Governor. So 1 only.
The FSDC was constituted by a Government of India notification dated 30 December 2010. Who chairs the Sub-Committee of the FSDC?
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Correct answer: D — Governor, RBI
PIB (static): the Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, and its Sub-Committee is chaired by the Governor, RBI.
According to Power Minister Manohar Lal on 10 June 2025, India met what peak power demand on 9 June 2025 with zero peak shortage?
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Correct answer: A — 241 GW
PIB (Power): India successfully met a peak power demand of 241 GW on 9 June 2025 with zero peak shortage.
The ₹5,400 crore Viability Gap Funding scheme announced by the Ministry of Power on 10 June 2025 covers how much Battery Energy Storage capacity?
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Correct answer: B — 30 GWh
PIB (Power): the VGF scheme is for 30 GWh of BESS, in addition to the 13.2 GWh already under way.
Consider the following statements based on the Power Ministry's press conference of 10 June 2025: 1. India's total installed generation capacity stands at 249 GW. 2. India's national energy shortage was 4.2% as of April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB (Power): installed capacity is now 472.5 GW (249 GW was the 2014 figure), and energy shortage fell to 0.1% as of April 2025 (4.2% was in 2013-14). So neither statement is correct.
The Stockholm International Conference on Electoral Integrity, where CEC Gyanesh Kumar delivered the keynote on 10 June 2025, was organised by which body?
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Correct answer: B — International IDEA
PIB (ECI): the conference was organised by the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA).
Consider the following statements made by the CEC in his Stockholm keynote of 10 June 2025: 1. India's electors grew from 173 million in 1951–52 to 979 million in 2024. 2. A total of 20,271 candidates contested the 2024 General Elections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (ECI): electors grew from 173 million in 1951–52 to 979 million in 2024, and 20,271 candidates contested in 2024. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
The Election Commission of India, whose foundation day (25 January) is observed as National Voters' Day, was established in 1950 under which Article of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: B — Article 324
PIB (static): National Voters' Day marks the foundation of the ECI, established on 25 January 1950 under Article 324 of the Constitution.
Under the Maharashtra cabinet decision of 10 June 2025, excise duty on IMFL (up to ₹260 per bulk litre) was raised from three times to how many times the declared manufacturing cost?
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Correct answer: C — 4.5 times
PTI (ThePrint) and The Hindu BusinessLine (CMO statement): IMFL duty was raised from three times to 4.5 times the declared manufacturing cost.
Consider the following statements about the Maharashtra cabinet's excise decisions of 10 June 2025: 1. A new grain-based 'Maharashtra Made Liquor' category was created, to be made only by manufacturers in Maharashtra. 2. Excise duty on country liquor was cut from ₹205 to ₹180 per proof litre. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PTI (ThePrint) and The Hindu BusinessLine: the grain-based MML category is for Maharashtra manufacturers only; country liquor duty was raised from ₹180 to ₹205, not cut. So 1 only.
Consider the following statements about the flood preparedness review chaired by Amit Shah on 10 June 2025: 1. The Jal Shakti Ministry, NDMA and NRSC were asked to closely monitor glacial lakes. 2. He stressed increasing the forest area in the Narmada river area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MHA): Shah advised the Jal Shakti Ministry, NDMA and NRSC to closely monitor glacial lakes, and stressed increasing forest area in the Narmada river area. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
At the flood review of 10 June 2025, Amit Shah stressed increasing forest area in the area of which river, to be replicated for other rivers if successful?
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Correct answer: B — Narmada
PIB (MHA): the Home Minister stressed increasing the forest area in the Narmada river area.
At the flood review of 10 June 2025, which bodies were asked to work with the States so that drainage becomes an integral part of highway design?
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Correct answer: D — MoRTH and NHAI
PIB (MHA): Shah said MoRTH and NHAI should work with the States so that the highway drainage system becomes an integral part of road design.
The Assam cabinet decision of 10 June 2025 raised the fixed monthly honorarium of ASHA workers to what amount from 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,000
PTI (ThePrint) and Assam Tribune: ASHA workers will get a fixed monthly honorarium of ₹4,000 instead of ₹3,000 from 1 October.
Consider the following statements about the Assam cabinet decision of 10 June 2025 on ASHA honorarium: 1. The Centre's share in an ASHA worker's honorarium rises to ₹2,500. 2. The revised honorarium takes effect from 1 April 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PTI (ThePrint) and Assam Tribune: the Centre's share rises from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500; the revision takes effect from 1 October (2025), not 1 April 2026. So 1 only.
Under which mission did the Assam cabinet on 10 June 2025 approve land allotment in favour of 1,011 educational, religious and socio-cultural entities?
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Correct answer: D — Mission Basundhara
PTI (ThePrint) and Assam Tribune: land was allotted under Mission Basundhara to 1,011 entities in Sonitpur, Golaghat, Majuli and Kamrup.
Who chaired the first meeting of the Task Force on Textiles Exports held on 10 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sunil Barthwal
PIB (Commerce): the first meeting was held under the chairmanship of Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal.
Consider the following statements about the first meeting of the Task Force on Textiles Exports on 10 June 2025: 1. The meeting was held at Vanijya Bhawan, Delhi. 2. The European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR) was among the issues discussed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Commerce): the meeting was held at Vanijya Bhawan in Delhi, and the discussions included the European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR). So both 1 and 2 are correct.
MoHUA's Advisory No. 27 of 10 June 2025 on repurposing SPVs and continuing ICCCs relates to which mission?
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Correct answer: C — Smart Cities Mission
PIB (MoHUA): the advisory concerns the SPVs and ICCCs set up under the Smart Cities Mission.
Consider the following statements about the Smart Cities Mission, as stated by MoHUA on 10 June 2025: 1. As of March 2025, over 93% of the 8,000+ projects under the Mission had been completed. 2. The Mission was completed on 31 March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoHUA): over 93% of the 8,000+ projects were completed as of March 2025, and the Mission was completed on 31.03.2025. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Consider the following statements about the SPVs of the Smart Cities Mission (launched in 2015): 1. The SPVs were established under the Companies Act, 2013. 2. The equity in each SPV is shared 50:50 between the Central Government and the State Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoHUA) (static): the SPVs were set up under the Companies Act, 2013, with 50:50 equity between the State/UT government and the respective Urban Local Body, not the Centre. So 1 only.
The Global Young Scientists Conference and Annual General Meeting of the Global Young Academy, chaired by Dharmendra Pradhan on 10 June 2025, was held at which institution?
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Correct answer: A — IIT Hyderabad
PIB (Education): the conference and GYA AGM were held at IIT Hyderabad.
How many new members of the Global Young Academy were inducted at the event at IIT Hyderabad on 10 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 30
PIB (Education): Pradhan congratulated the 30 new members of GYA who were inducted during the event.
On 10 June 2025, CAQM signed a tripartite MoU to curb road dust in NCR with CSIR-CRRI and which other institution?
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Correct answer: D — School of Planning and Architecture, New Delhi
PIB (MoEFCC): CAQM signed the tripartite MoU with CSIR-CRRI and the School of Planning and Architecture, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements about the first phase of road redevelopment under the CAQM MoU of 10 June 2025: 1. Bhiwadi and Neemrana are among the nine NCR cities taken up. 2. Meerut is among the nine NCR cities taken up. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoEFCC): the nine cities are Delhi, Faridabad, Gurugram, Sonipat, Ghaziabad, Noida, Greater Noida, Bhiwadi and Neemrana; Meerut is not listed. So 1 only.
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in NCR and Adjoining Areas is constituted under which law?
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Correct answer: C — Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021
CAQM Act text (static): the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021 (No. 29 of 2021) provides for the constitution of the Commission.
The container ship MV Wan Hai 503, which caught fire off the Kerala coast on 9 June 2025, was registered under the flag of which country?
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Correct answer: D — Singapore
DG Shipping SITREP-1 and the Indian Navy (Akashvani): MV Wan Hai 503 is a Singapore-flagged container vessel.
Which Indian Navy ship rescued 18 of the 22 crew members of MV Wan Hai 503 on 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INS Surat
Indian Navy (Akashvani): INS Surat and a Dornier aircraft were deployed, and 18 of the 22 crew were rescued and taken towards New Mangalore.
Consider the following statements about the MV Wan Hai 503 incident of 9 June 2025, as reported by the Directorate General of Shipping: 1. The incident position was about 44 nautical miles from Azhikkal, Kerala. 2. The vessel was en route to Kochi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
DG Shipping SITREP-1: the vessel was about 44 nm from Azhikkal, Kerala, and was en route to Nhava Sheva, not Kochi. So 1 only.
The third United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC3), which opened in Nice on 9 June 2025, was co-hosted by which two countries?
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Correct answer: A — France and Costa Rica
UN press release: the 2025 UN Ocean Conference was co-hosted by the Governments of France and Costa Rica.
Vidar Helgesen, who held a bilateral meeting with Jitendra Singh at UNOC3 on 9 June 2025, is the Executive Secretary of which body?
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Correct answer: B — Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of UNESCO
PIB (Earth Sciences): Vidar Helgesen is Executive Secretary of the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of UNESCO (IOC).
Consider the following statements about UNOC3 (Nice, 9–13 June 2025): 1. The political declaration, together with a registry of voluntary commitments, is to be called the Nice Ocean Action Plan. 2. India launched the 'SAHAV' digital ocean data portal at the conference. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
UN press release: the declaration and registry of voluntary commitments will be referred to as the Nice Ocean Action Plan. PIB (Earth Sciences): India launched the 'SAHAV' digital ocean data portal. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
What was the theme of World Accreditation Day 2025, commemorated by the Quality Council of India on 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Accreditation: Empowering Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs)
PIB (Commerce): this year's theme was 'Accreditation: Empowering Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs)'.
Which revamped portal was launched at QCI's World Accreditation Day 2025 event on 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — NABL Portal
PIB (Commerce): a key highlight of the event was the launch of the revamped NABL Portal.
In which Swiss city did Piyush Goyal hold extensive engagements with Swiss industry leaders on 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bern
PIB (Commerce): Goyal held extensive engagements with Swiss industry leaders on 9 June 2025 in Bern, Switzerland.
During his Swiss industry engagements on 9 June 2025, Piyush Goyal urged Swiss businesses to use which dedicated facilitation desk at Invest India?
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Correct answer: B — EFTA Desk
PIB (Commerce): the Minister called on Swiss businesses to leverage the dedicated EFTA Desk at Invest India.
Who was the NHAI Chairman when NHAI released its first Asset Monetisation Strategy for the road sector on 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Santosh Kumar Yadav
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI Chairman Santosh Kumar Yadav commented on the release of the strategy document.
According to NHAI on 9 June 2025, monetisation instruments have helped it raise over ₹1.4 lakh crore across more than how many km of National Highways?
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Correct answer: C — 6,100 km
PIB (MoRTH): the instruments helped NHAI raise over ₹1.4 lakh crore across more than 6,100 km of National Highways under the National Monetisation Pipeline.
Consider the following statements about NHAI's Asset Monetisation Strategy released on 9 June 2025: 1. The strategy relies solely on Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs). 2. The strategy is anchored on five core pillars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB (MoRTH): the strategy uses Toll-Operate-Transfer, InvITs and securitisation, and is anchored on three core pillars. So neither statement is correct.
The keel of Yard 1283, the fourth Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel laid on 9 June 2025, was laid at which shipyard?
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Correct answer: B — Goa Shipyard Ltd
PIB (Defence): Yard 1283, the fourth NGOPV, is being built by Goa Shipyard Ltd (GSL).
Consider the following statements about the Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) programme, as stated on 9 June 2025: 1. GRSE, Kolkata is building seven of the eleven NGOPVs. 2. The NGOPVs have an approximate tonnage of 5,000 tonnes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB (Defence): seven NGOPVs are being built by GSL and four by GRSE, and their approximate tonnage is 3,000 tonnes. So neither statement is correct.
Who was the Chief Guest at the keel-laying of the fourth NGOPV (Yard 1283) at Goa Shipyard on 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Krishna Swaminathan
PIB (Defence): Vice Adm Krishna Swaminathan, Vice Chief of the Naval Staff, was the Chief Guest.
With the launch of NeVA on 9 June 2025, Puducherry became which legislature in the country to adopt the platform?
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Correct answer: C — 19th
PIB (I&B): with this launch, Puducherry becomes the 19th legislature in the country to adopt the NeVA platform.
Who inaugurated the National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) for the Puducherry Legislative Assembly on 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — L. Murugan
PIB (I&B): Union MoS for I&B and Parliamentary Affairs L. Murugan inaugurated NeVA for the Puducherry Legislative Assembly.
Consider the following statements about the National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA): 1. It is funded through 100% Central Assistance by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. 2. It is funded on a 60:40 Centre–State sharing basis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (I&B) (static): NeVA, which enables paperless legislative functioning, is funded through 100% Central Assistance by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, so a 60:40 sharing is wrong. So 1 only.
Under the special additional compensation for houses damaged by Pakistani shelling in J&K border districts (MHA, 9 June 2025), how much is given for each fully damaged house?
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Correct answer: C — ₹2 lakh
PIB (MHA): as a special case, additional compensation of ₹2 lakh for each fully damaged house and ₹1 lakh for each partially damaged house was announced.
Consider the following statements about the MHA announcement of 9 June 2025: 1. An additional provision of ₹25 crore was made for 2,060 houses. 2. Similar compensation will also be provided in the border areas of Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MHA): ₹25 crore was provided for 2,060 houses, and similar compensation will be given in the border areas of Punjab, not Rajasthan. So 1 only.
At the 6th NIIF Governing Council meeting on 9 June 2025, NIIF's Assets Under Management were noted to have increased to more than what amount?
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Correct answer: C — ₹30,000 crore
PIB (Finance): the GC took note of the expansion in NIIF's Assets Under Management, which has increased to more than ₹30,000 crore.
What is the target corpus of NIIF's upcoming Private Markets Fund II, as noted at the Governing Council meeting of 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — $1 billion
PIB (Finance): NIIF's upcoming Private Markets Fund II has a target corpus of $1 billion.
Under the BHASHINI–CRIS MoU of 9 June 2025, BHASHINI's language technology will be integrated into which CRIS-managed systems, among others?
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Correct answer: D — NTES and RailMadad
PIB (MeitY): BHASHINI's stack will be integrated into CRIS-managed systems such as the National Train Enquiry System (NTES) and RailMadad.
The BHASHINI–CRIS partnership of 9 June 2025 aims to let citizens access critical railway services in how many Indian languages?
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Correct answer: C — 22
PIB (MeitY): the integration will enable citizens to access critical railway services in 22 Indian languages.
In what capacity did India participate in the 2nd Session of the IALA Council held in Nice from 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Vice President
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): India participated in the 2nd Session of the IALA Council as the Vice President of IALA.
Consider the following statements about India's participation in the 2nd IALA Council session (Nice, 9–13 June 2025): 1. The Indian delegation was led by T.K. Ramachandran, Secretary, Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. 2. India invited member states to the 21st IALA Conference in 2027 in Mumbai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): the delegation was led by Secretary T.K. Ramachandran, who invited member states to the 21st IALA Conference in 2027 in Mumbai. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Whom did Carlos Alcaraz beat in the French Open 2025 men's singles final on 8 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jannik Sinner
Carlos Alcaraz beat world No. 1 Jannik Sinner 4-6, 6-7(4), 6-4, 7-6(3), 7-6(10-2).
How long did the French Open 2025 men's singles final, the longest Roland-Garros men's final of the Open era, last?
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Correct answer: C — 5 hours 29 minutes
The final lasted 5 hours 29 minutes, the longest Roland-Garros men's singles final of the Open era.
Consider the following statements about the French Open 2025 men's singles final: 1. Carlos Alcaraz saved three championship points during the match. 2. It was Carlos Alcaraz's first French Open title. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Alcaraz saved three championship points while serving at 3-5 in the fourth set. Statement 2 is incorrect: Alcaraz was the defending champion and this was his second Paris title.
With which country did India co-host a high-level Marine Spatial Planning event in Monaco on World Ocean Day, 8 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Norway
India and Norway jointly hosted the Marine Spatial Planning event aboard the Norwegian tall ship Statsraad Lehmkuhl at the Port of Hercule in Monaco.
Under the India–Norway Marine Spatial Planning collaboration, pilot projects have been carried out in which places?
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Correct answer: C — Puducherry and Lakshadweep
Under the Indo-Norwegian Integrated Ocean and Research Initiative, MSP pilot projects in Puducherry and Lakshadweep have shown its potential to tackle coastal erosion and manage biodiversity.
Where has the India–Norway Marine Spatial Planning collaboration run pilot projects?
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Correct answer: B — Puducherry and Lakshadweep
Under the Indo-Norwegian Integrated Ocean and Research Initiative, the MSP collaboration has run pilot projects in Puducherry and Lakshadweep.
What is the total amount of the loan waiver for SC and Divyangjan borrowers whose certificates Punjab handed over on 8 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹67.84 crore
The waiver totals ₹67.84 crore and benefits 4,727 loanees, with the full amount reimbursed by the state government.
Loans given by which institution are covered by the Punjab loan waiver whose certificates were handed over in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Punjab Scheduled Castes Land Development and Finance Corporation
The waiver covers all loans disbursed up to 31 March 2020 by the Punjab Scheduled Castes Land Development and Finance Corporation to SC and Divyangjan borrowers.
Punjab's ₹67.84 crore PSCFC loan waiver covers loans disbursed up to which date?
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Correct answer: D — 31 March 2020
The waiver covers all loans disbursed by the PSCFC to Scheduled Caste and Divyangjan borrowers up to 31 March 2020.
Stage I of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), invoked across NCR on 7 June 2025, corresponds to which air quality category?
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Correct answer: A — 'Poor' (AQI 201–300)
Stage I of GRAP covers 'Poor' (AQI 201–300) air quality; Delhi's daily average AQI was 209 on 7 June 2025.
How many points does the action plan under Stage I of GRAP, invoked across NCR on 7 June 2025, contain?
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Correct answer: D — 27
A 27-point action plan under Stage I of GRAP became applicable across the entire NCR with immediate effect.