State Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The 4-lane Paramakudi–Ramanathapuram section approved by the Cabinet on 1 July 2025 is part of which National Highway?
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Correct answer: D — NH-87
Cabinet: the project will upgrade approximately 46.7 km of NH-87 from Paramakudi to Ramanathapuram to a 4-lane configuration.
Under which mode will the Paramakudi–Ramanathapuram NH-87 section be developed?
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Correct answer: B — Hybrid Annuity Mode
Cabinet: the project will be developed on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM) at a total capital cost of ₹1,853 crore.
By how much per km did AC class fares rise under the railway fare rationalisation effective 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2 paise
Ministry of Railways/Indian Express: AC classes saw an increase of 02 paisa per passenger-km, Mail/Express non-AC classes one paisa per km.
Under the 1 July 2025 fare rationalisation, Second Class Ordinary fares saw no increase up to what distance?
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Correct answer: D — 500 km
Ministry of Railways: there was no increase in fare of Second Class Ordinary up to 500 km, and thereafter an increase of half paisa per km.
Consider the following about the railway fare rationalisation of 1 July 2025: 1. Suburban fares and season tickets were not increased. 2. Mail/Express non-AC classes rose by 1 paisa per km. 3. Tickets booked before 1 July 2025 were charged the revised fare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India Today/Indian Express report revised fares apply to tickets booked on or after 1 July 2025; earlier tickets stayed at the old fare.
Udaygiri, delivered to the Indian Navy on 1 July 2025, belongs to which project?
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Correct answer: A — Project 17A
Indian Navy: Yard 12652 (Udaygiri), the second ship of Project 17A stealth frigates, was delivered on 01 July 2025.
Project 17A frigates are a follow-on of which class of frigates?
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Correct answer: A — Shivalik class
Indian Navy: the Project is a follow-on of the Shivalik class (Project 17) frigates active in service.
The Sigachi Industries factory explosion of 30 June 2025 took place at Pashamylaram in which district?
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Correct answer: B — Sangareddy district, Telangana
PIB and New Indian Express: the fire tragedy occurred at a factory in Pashamylaram, Sangareddy district, Telangana.
What was being manufactured at the Sigachi Industries unit when the 30 June 2025 explosion occurred?
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Correct answer: D — Microcrystalline cellulose (MCC)
New Indian Express: the explosion occurred while microcrystalline cellulose powder was being manufactured for use as a binding agent in pharmaceuticals.
Consider the following about the Sigachi Industries blast (30 June 2025): 1. The Prime Minister announced ₹2 lakh ex-gratia from PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased. 2. The state's Technical Expert Committee traced the explosion to the spray dryer. 3. The injured were to get ₹1 lakh each from PMNRF. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct (PIB). Statement 2 is wrong: the committee traced it to the sealing machine in the packing area, not the spray dryer (The Hindu, Telangana Today). Statement 3 is wrong: the injured get ₹50,000 (PIB).
Who chaired the 8th National Level Steering Committee meeting of the Atal Bhujal Yojana on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Debashree Mukherjee
PIB: the meeting was held at New Delhi under the chairpersonship of Ms. Debashree Mukherjee, Secretary, DoWR, RD & GR.
Which of the following states is NOT among the seven states where the Atal Bhujal Yojana was implemented?
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Correct answer: D — Chhattisgarh
Lok Sabha reply (PIB): the scheme was implemented in Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, so Chhattisgarh is not among them.
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), which RBI asked banks to integrate on 30 June 2025, was developed by which body?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Telecommunications
PIB: RBI's advisory of 30 June 2025 directs banks to integrate the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Into which risk categories does the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator classify a mobile number?
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Correct answer: C — Medium, High, Very High
PIB: the FRI classifies a mobile number as associated with Medium, High or Very High risk of financial fraud.
Consider the following about the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI): 1. It was launched in May 2025 by DoT's Digital Intelligence Unit. 2. RBI's advisory of 30 June 2025 excludes Co-operative Banks. 3. It is built only on data from DoT's Chakshu platform. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct (PIB). Statement 2 is wrong: the advisory covers Scheduled Commercial, Small Finance, Payments and Co-operative Banks. Statement 3 is wrong: inputs also come from I4C's NCRP and from banks and financial institutions.
Which Indian Army chief departed on a four-day official visit to Bhutan on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — General Upendra Dwivedi
PIB: General Upendra Dwivedi, Chief of the Army Staff, departed for Bhutan on a four-day official visit.
During the June 2025 Bhutan visit, the Army chief was to interact with officials of IMTRAT and which Indian project in Bhutan?
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Correct answer: A — Project DANTAK
PIB: the COAS will also interact with senior officials of the Indian Embassy, the Indian Military Training Team (IMTRAT) and Project DANTAK.
Aboard which vessel did officers embark for the first 'QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission' (June 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — USCGC Stratton
PIB: two officers from each country embarked on board the US Coast Guard Cutter (USCGC) Stratton, which is sailing to Guam.
Which Australian agency took part in the first QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission alongside the Coast Guards of India, Japan and the US?
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Correct answer: C — Australian Border Force
PIB: the mission deepens operational ties between the Indian Coast Guard, Japan Coast Guard, US Coast Guard and Australian Border Force (ABF).
The QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission was launched under which declaration, adopted at the QUAD Leaders' Summit of September 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Wilmington Declaration
PIB: the mission was launched under the Wilmington Declaration and reflects the vision laid out at the QUAD Leaders' Summit in September 2024.
Hul Diwas, observed on 30 June, commemorates which uprising?
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Correct answer: C — Santhal Hul (Santhal rebellion)
PIB: commemorating the historic Santhal uprising on Hul Diwas, the PM honoured Sido-Kanhu, Chand-Bhairav and Phulo-Jhano. The Hindu: Hul Diwas commemorates the Santhal rebellion.
The Santhal Hul began in 1855 at which village in present-day Jharkhand?
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Correct answer: A — Bhognadih
The Hindu: the rebellion began in Bhognadih village. India Today: on 30 June 1855 the revolution started from Bhognadih.
Consider the following about Hul Diwas 2025: 1. The Prime Minister paid tribute to Sido-Kanhu, Chand-Bhairav and Phulo-Jhano. 2. The Santhal Hul was led by the brothers Sido and Kanhu Murmu. 3. The uprising began on 30 June 1855. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: statement 1 (PIB), statement 2 (The Hindu: two brothers, Sido and Kanhu Murmu, led the uprising), statement 3 (India Today: 30 June 1855).
How many electors' details does Bihar's 2003 Electoral Roll, uploaded by ECI on 30 June 2025, contain?
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Correct answer: B — 4.96 crore
ECI: the 2003 Electoral Roll of Bihar, comprising details of 4.96 crore electors, has been uploaded on the ECI website.
According to ECI, roughly what share of Bihar's electorate would not need to submit any documents in the SIR after the 2003 roll was uploaded?
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Correct answer: D — Nearly 60%
ECI: nearly 60 per cent of the total electorate would not have to submit any documents; they just verify details from the 2003 roll and submit the Enumeration Form.
Consider the following about the Election Commission of India: 1. Article 324 vests in it the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. 2. Under Article 324, the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Supreme Court judge. 3. Under Article 324, it also conducts elections to the offices of President and Vice-President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the text of Article 324: clause (1) covers elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President, and the first proviso to clause (5) gives the CEC the same removal protection as a Supreme Court judge. Statement 1 is wrong: Article 324 does not mention Panchayats or Municipalities.
What was India's IIP growth rate for May 2025 as per the Quick Estimate released on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1.2%
MoSPI: the IIP growth rate for May 2025 is 1.2%, compared with 2.7% (Quick Estimate) in April 2025.
Which sector recorded the steepest contraction in the IIP for May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Electricity
MoSPI: growth rates for May 2025 were mining (-)0.1%, manufacturing 2.6% and electricity (-)5.8%, so electricity contracted most.
Consider the following about the IIP release of 30 June 2025: 1. The IIP uses base year 2011-12=100. 2. Under the revised calendar, the Quick Estimate is released on the 28th of every month. 3. 13 of 23 manufacturing industry groups recorded positive growth in May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per MoSPI: base 2011-12=100; release on the 28th of every month (or next working day); 13 out of 23 industry groups at NIC 2-digit level grew.
Aboard which ship was the first ASEAN-India Cruise Dialogue held at Chennai Port on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — MV Empress
PIB: the meet was held aboard the MV Empress (Cordelia Cruise ship) at Chennai Port.
What cruise-passenger target by 2029 under the Sagarmala initiative did Sarbananda Sonowal cite at the ASEAN-India Cruise Dialogue?
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Correct answer: B — One million
PIB: the Sagar Mala initiative aims for one million cruise passengers by 2029.
Where is the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI), whose convocation President Murmu attended on 30 June 2025, located?
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Correct answer: D — Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh
PIB: the President graced the convocation ceremony of the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI) at Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh.
Which convocation of AIIMS Gorakhpur did President Droupadi Murmu attend on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — First
PIB: the President graced the first convocation ceremony of AIIMS Gorakhpur on 30 June 2025.
The Integrated Alert System 'SACHET' operated by NDMA was developed by which organisation?
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Correct answer: A — Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
PIB: NDMA has operationalised the Integrated Alert System (SACHET), developed by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT).
SACHET is based on the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP) recommended by which body?
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Correct answer: C — International Telecommunication Union
PIB: SACHET is based on the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP) recommended by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
What was the theme of the 19th Statistics Day observed on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 75 Years of National Sample Survey
MoSPI: the theme for the 19th Statistics Day was '75 Years of National Sample Survey'.
Statistics Day (29 June) commemorates the birth anniversary of which statistician?
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Correct answer: C — Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
MoSPI: in recognition of Prof. (Late) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis's contributions, the Government designated his birthday, 29 June, as Statistics Day.
Which mobile application did the National Sample Survey Office launch on Statistics Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — GoIStats
MoSPI: the NSO launched the GoIStats mobile application on Statistics Day 2025.
Consider the following about Statistics Day 2025: 1. It was the 132nd birth anniversary of Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis. 2. MoSPI released the SDG – National Indicator Framework Progress Report, 2025 on the day. 3. The celebration was held in Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (MoSPI: 19th Statistics Day commemorated the 132nd birth anniversary; SDG-NIF Progress Report 2025 released on 29 June). Statement 3 is wrong: the celebration was held at Dr. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi.
In Mann Ki Baat (29 June 2025), the PM said WHO had declared India free of which disease?
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Correct answer: C — Trachoma
Mann Ki Baat 123: WHO has declared India Trachoma free; India now has become a Trachoma free country.
Citing an ILO report in Mann Ki Baat (June 2025), what share of India's population did the PM say avails some social protection benefit?
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Correct answer: A — More than 64%
Mann Ki Baat 123: the ILO report says more than 64% of the population of India is now availing some social protection benefit.
As recalled in Mann Ki Baat 123, what was the theme of International Yoga Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Yoga for One Earth, One Health
Mann Ki Baat 123: this time the theme was 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'.
Consider the following about the 123rd episode of Mann Ki Baat (29 June 2025): 1. About 95 crore people were said to be covered by social security schemes, against under 25 crore till 2015. 2. The 50th year of the Emergency was recalled as 'Samvidhan Hatya Diwas'. 3. The Amarnath Yatra was said to commence on 3 July. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per the PM's address: about 95 crore people covered (under 25 crore till 2015); the Emergency's 50 years observed as 'Samvidhan Hatya Diwas'; the Amarnath Yatra to commence on 3 July.
Where are the headquarters of the National Turmeric Board, inaugurated by Amit Shah on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nizamabad, Telangana
PIB: Amit Shah inaugurated the headquarters of the National Turmeric Board in Nizamabad, Telangana.
Who was announced as the first Chairperson of the National Turmeric Board?
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Correct answer: B — Palle Ganga Reddy
PIB (14 January 2025): Piyush Goyal announced Shri Palle Ganga Reddy as the board's first Chairperson.
Consider the following about the National Turmeric Board: 1. It was launched on 14 January 2025 by the Union Commerce and Industry Minister. 2. Amit Shah said it fulfils a 40-year-old demand of turmeric farmers. 3. Its headquarters are in Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (PIB, 14 January 2025 and 29 June 2025). Statement 3 is wrong: the headquarters are in Nizamabad.
The new Passenger Reservation System planned by Indian Railways (June 2025) will allow how many ticket bookings per minute?
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Correct answer: B — Over 1.5 lakh
Ministry of Railways: the new PRS will allow over 1.5 lakh ticket bookings per minute, about five times the current 32,000.
Under the charting reform approved in June 2025, how long before departure will reservation charts generally be prepared?
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Correct answer: C — Eight hours
Ministry of Railways: the Railway Board proposed preparing the reservation chart eight hours before departure (currently four hours), and the Minister agreed.
Which organisation is building Indian Railways' upgraded Passenger Reservation System, due by December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — CRIS
Ministry of Railways: the PRS upgrade project is being executed for the last few months by CRIS.
Eri Silk, which received a GI tag shortly before Mann Ki Baat of 29 June 2025, belongs to which state?
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Correct answer: B — Meghalaya
Mann Ki Baat 123: Eri Silk of Meghalaya has received the GI Tag a few days ago.
By what other name did the PM refer to Meghalaya's Eri Silk in Mann Ki Baat (June 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Ahimsa Silk
Mann Ki Baat 123: Eri Silk is also called Ahimsa Silk.
Which ministry issued the 'Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands' on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
PIB: the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has issued the 'Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands'.
Under the Model Rules for felling trees on farmland, applicants must register plantations on which portal?
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Correct answer: D — National Timber Management System (NTMS)
PIB: applicants are required to register their plantations on the National Timber Management System (NTMS) portal, which is being developed.
Consider the following about the Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands (June 2025): 1. They will be implemented by the State Level Committee under the Wood-Based Industries (Establishment and Regulation) Guidelines, 2016. 2. Divisional Forest Officers will supervise the verifying agencies. 3. Felling permits are issued directly by Gram Panchayats without site inspection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (PIB). Statement 3 is wrong: verifying agencies carry out site inspections, and permits are issued based on their reports.
Which Indian Navy ship responded to the fire on tanker MT Yi Cheng 6 on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — INS Tabar
Indian Navy: INS Tabar, on mission-based deployment, received a Mayday call from MT Yi Cheng 6 and commenced firefighting.
MT Yi Cheng 6, rescued by the Indian Navy in June 2025, was flagged in which country?
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Correct answer: A — Palau
Indian Navy: the operation was on board the Palau-flagged tanker MT Yi Cheng 6.
How many Indian crew members were on MT Yi Cheng 6 when INS Tabar responded on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 14
Indian Navy: the operation ensured the safety of 14 Indian crew members; seven were evacuated to INS Tabar.
With which body did the Ministry of Education organise the Football for Schools (F4S) football distribution in Kolkata on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — All India Football Federation
PIB: the event was organised by the Ministry of Education and the All India Football Federation (AIFF).
How many FIFA footballs are to be distributed across West Bengal under the F4S programme launched on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 88,113
PIB: in total, 88,113 footballs will be distributed across the state; 2,487 went to 349 schools in Kolkata district.
During his interaction with PM Modi on 28 June 2025, how many orbits of the Earth did Shubhanshu Shukla say the ISS crew completes in a day?
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Correct answer: B — 16
PIB: Shukla said they complete 16 orbits a day, witnessing 16 sunrises and 16 sunsets.
What approximate speed of the space station did Shubhanshu Shukla mention during the interaction with the Prime Minister?
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Correct answer: D — Nearly 28,000 km per hour
PIB: Shukla said they were travelling at a speed of nearly 28,000 km per hour.
Consider the following statements about the PM–Shubhanshu Shukla interaction of 28 June 2025: 1. Shukla said he shared carrot halwa, moong dal halwa and aam ras with fellow astronauts. 2. The interaction took place after Shukla had returned to Earth. 3. Shukla said that a short while earlier the station had passed over Hawaii. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB: statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Shukla was aboard the ISS and the interaction was by videoconference.
According to Shubhanshu Shukla, the first experiment scheduled on the day of his interaction with the PM studied which subject?
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Correct answer: A — Stem cells and whether supplements can prevent or delay muscle loss in microgravity
PIB: the first experiment that day focused on stem cells, testing whether specific supplements can prevent or delay muscle loss caused by the absence of gravity.
Which of the following was NOT part of the 'homework' PM Modi set for Shubhanshu Shukla on 28 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Landing an Indian astronaut on Mars
PIB: the PM said India must move forward with Mission Gaganyaan, build its own space station and land an Indian astronaut on the Moon. Mars was not mentioned.
According to the Health Ministry (28 June 2025), the percentage of zero-dose children in India's total population fell from 0.11% in 2023 to what in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 0.06%
MoHFW: the share of zero-dose children declined from 0.11% in 2023 to 0.06% in 2024.
The Zero Dose Implementation Plan 2024 was rolled out in how many districts?
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Correct answer: A — 143 districts in 11 states
MoHFW: the Zero Dose Implementation Plan 2024 was rolled out across 143 districts in 11 states with a high burden of unvaccinated children.
Consider the following statements about India's Universal Immunization Programme (UIP): 1. The UIP currently covers 12 vaccine-preventable diseases. 2. Till 2013, only six vaccines were available in the programme. 3. Mission Indradhanush was first launched in 2017. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MoHFW: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Mission Indradhanush runs since 2014 and was intensified in 2017.
Where did PM Modi address the centenary celebrations of Acharya Shri Vidyanand Ji Muniraj on 28 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
PIB: the PM addressed the centenary celebrations in Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
Which title was conferred on PM Narendra Modi at the centenary celebrations of Acharya Vidyanand Ji Muniraj?
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Correct answer: D — Dharm Chakravarti
PIB: the PM said he had been conferred the title of 'Dharm Chakravarti' on the occasion.
Prakrit was among five languages granted classical language status by the Union Cabinet on 3 October 2024. Which of the following was NOT among those five?
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Correct answer: A — Maithili
PIB (3 Oct 2024): the Cabinet conferred classical status on Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali. Maithili was not among them.
While announcing that the Special Intensive Revision had started in Bihar, the Election Commission cited which Article of the Constitution as specifying eligibility to become an elector?
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Correct answer: B — Article 326
ECI (28 June 2025): 'Article 326 specifies eligibility to become an elector. Only Indian citizens, above 18 years and ordinary resident in that constituency, are eligible.'
Enumeration forms under Bihar's Special Intensive Revision (June 2025) were being distributed in how many Assembly constituencies?
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Correct answer: D — 243
ECI: distribution of new Enumeration Forms started in each of the 243 Assembly Constituencies of Bihar.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar Special Intensive Revision as described by the ECI on 28 June 2025: 1. The ECI had 77,895 Booth Level Officers and was appointing about 20,603 more. 2. Recognised political parties had appointed 1,54,977 Booth Level Agents. 3. SMSs were being sent to all 7,89,69,844 electors of Bihar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ECI: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: SMSs were being sent to 5,74,07,022 registered mobile numbers, not to all 7,89,69,844 electors.
Shri Govind Guru University, where projects worth ₹125 crore were inaugurated or had foundation stones laid on 28 June 2025, is located in which place?
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Correct answer: A — Vinzol, Godhra (Gujarat)
PIB: the ceremony was held at Shri Govind Guru University in Vinzol, Godhra, Gujarat.
According to Amit Shah's address of 28 June 2025, how many tribal men and women laid down their lives in the resistance led by Govind Guru that gave Mangarh its place in the freedom struggle?
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Correct answer: C — 1,512
PIB: Shah said 1,512 tribal men and women laid down their lives in the resistance led by Govind Guru.
The 'India Energy Stack', announced on 28 June 2025, is an initiative of which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Power
PIB: the Ministry of Power announced a task force to conceive the India Energy Stack and is spearheading the initiative.
What is the duration of the Proof of Concept that the Ministry of Power will run to demonstrate the India Energy Stack?
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Correct answer: C — 12 months
PIB: the Ministry will undertake a 12-month Proof of Concept with selected utilities.
Consider the following statements about the India Energy Stack (IES): 1. The IES will provide unique IDs for consumers, assets and transactions. 2. Data under the IES will be shared without the need for consumer consent. 3. The Utility Intelligence Platform will be piloted with DISCOMs in Mumbai, Gujarat and Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB: statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the IES provides real-time, consent-based data sharing.
Where was the 2nd North-East Mining Ministers' Conclave held in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Guwahati
PIB: Union Minister G. Kishan Reddy addressed the 2nd North-East Mining Ministers' Conclave in Guwahati.
At the conclave, G. Kishan Reddy referred to the eight North Eastern states as 'Ashta Lakshmi'. Which of the following is NOT one of these eight states?
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Correct answer: D — West Bengal
PIB: the eight states named are Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim. West Bengal is not among them.
Under MNRE's revised Waste-to-Energy guidelines (June 2025), what share of the total Central Financial Assistance can be released after the plant obtains Consent to Operate from the State Pollution Control Board?
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Correct answer: D — 50%
MNRE: 50% of total CFA will be released after obtaining the Consent to Operate certificate from the SPCB, against a bank guarantee.
The Biomass Programme whose guidelines MNRE revised in June 2025 is part of which programme?
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Correct answer: A — Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme
MNRE: the revised guidelines are for the Biomass Programme under Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme (FY 2021-22 to 2025-26).
Consider the following statements about MNRE's revised bioenergy guidelines of June 2025: 1. Under Waste-to-Energy, the balance CFA is released on achieving 80% of rated capacity or the maximum CFA-eligible capacity, whichever is lesser. 2. Under the Biomass Programme, the two-year briquette or pellet sale contract has been replaced with a general sale agreement. 3. Under the Biomass Programme, SCADA-based monitoring has been made mandatory for all plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MNRE: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: IoT-based monitoring or quarterly data submission is allowed instead of expensive systems like SCADA.