MBA Entrance (XAT, CMAT, MAT) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the financial outlay of the scheme approved by the Cabinet in November 2025 to promote manufacturing of sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets?
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Correct answer: C — ₹7,280 crore
The scheme has an outlay of ₹7,280 crore: ₹6,450 crore sales-linked incentives and ₹750 crore capital subsidy.
The REPM scheme approved in November 2025 aims to create how much integrated manufacturing capacity per year?
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Correct answer: C — 6,000 tonnes
It aims to establish 6,000 MTPA of integrated REPM manufacturing, split among five beneficiaries of up to 1,200 MTPA each.
Consider the following statements about the REPM scheme approved in November 2025: 1. Capacity will be allotted to five beneficiaries through a global competitive bidding process. 2. The total scheme duration is 5 years, with no gestation period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the scheme runs 7 years from award, including a 2-year gestation period and 5 years of incentives.
As per Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2025, India's milk production in 2024-25 was estimated at:
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Correct answer: C — 247.87 million tonnes
Milk production is estimated at 247.87 million tonnes in 2024-25, up 3.58% from 239.30 MT in 2023-24.
According to BAHS 2025, which state is the largest milk producer in India?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh leads with 15.66%, followed by Rajasthan (14.82%), Madhya Pradesh (9.12%), Gujarat (7.78%) and Maharashtra (6.71%).
As per BAHS 2025, the per-capita availability of milk in India in 2024-25 was:
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Correct answer: D — 485 g/day
Per-capita availability rose from 319 g/day in 2014-15 to 485 g/day in 2024-25.
As per the Third Advance Estimates released in November 2025, India's total horticulture production in 2024-25 is:
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Correct answer: C — 369.055 million tonnes
Total horticulture production is estimated at 369.055 million tonnes, up 14.311 MT from 354.744 MT.
Which crop recorded the sharpest rise (26.88%) in the 2024-25 horticulture Third Advance Estimates?
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Correct answer: A — Onion
Onion production rose 26.88%, from 24.267 MT to 30.789 MT.
Consider the following statements about the 2024-25 horticulture Third Advance Estimates: 1. Vegetable production is estimated at over 215 million tonnes. 2. Fruit production declined compared with the previous year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (215.684 MT). Statement 2 is wrong: fruit production rose about 5.12% to 118.76 MT.
India beat which team in the final of the Women's Kabaddi World Cup 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Chinese Taipei
India beat Chinese Taipei 35–28 in the final in Dhaka on 24 November 2025.
The Women's Kabaddi World Cup 2025, won by India, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Dhaka
The tournament was held in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
Consider the following statements about the Women's Kabaddi World Cup 2025: 1. India won the title for the second consecutive time. 2. India beat Iran in the semi-final. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: India won a second straight title and beat Iran 33–21 in the semi-final.
Who was sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Justice Surya Kant
Justice Surya Kant took oath as the 53rd CJI, succeeding Justice B.R. Gavai.
Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, sworn in on 24 November 2025, is due to remain in office until:
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Correct answer: A — 9 February 2027
As per the Supreme Court and media reports, Justice Kant will remain in office until 9 February 2027.
Consider the following statements about the swearing-in of the 53rd Chief Justice of India: 1. The oath was administered by the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan. 2. Justice Surya Kant succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Justice Surya Kant succeeded Justice B.R. Gavai.
Who hosted the IBSA Leaders' Meeting held in Johannesburg on 23 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Cyril Ramaphosa
The meeting was hosted by South African President Cyril Ramaphosa and attended by Brazilian President Lula and PM Modi.
At the IBSA Leaders' Meeting (November 2025), PM Modi proposed which platform for sharing Digital Public Infrastructure like UPI and CoWIN?
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Correct answer: A — IBSA Digital Innovation Alliance
The PM proposed an 'IBSA Digital Innovation Alliance' to share DPI such as UPI, health platforms like CoWIN, cybersecurity frameworks and women-led tech initiatives.
Consider the following statements about the IBSA Leaders' Meeting of November 2025: 1. PM Modi noted that the IBSA Fund has supported projects across forty countries. 2. PM Modi proposed an IBSA Fund for Climate Resilient Agriculture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PMO release.
PM Modi invited IBSA leaders to which event to be hosted by India?
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Correct answer: D — AI Impact Summit
The PM invited IBSA leaders to the AI Impact Summit to be held in India next year.
India defeated which team in the final of the inaugural Blind Women's T20 World Cup in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Nepal
India beat Nepal by seven wickets in the final at Colombo.
The final of the inaugural Blind Women's T20 World Cup (November 2025) was played in:
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Correct answer: A — Colombo
The final was played in Colombo, Sri Lanka, on 23 November 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Blind Women's T20 World Cup 2025: 1. It was the inaugural edition of the tournament. 2. India lost one league match before winning the title. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: India remained unbeaten throughout the tournament.
The UNFCCC COP30, which concluded in November 2025, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Belém
India delivered its closing statement at the COP30 Closing Plenary in Belém, Brazil, on 22 November 2025.
In its COP30 closing statement, India described the establishment of which mechanism as a 'significant milestone'?
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Correct answer: D — Just Transition Mechanism
India expressed satisfaction with the establishment of the Just Transition Mechanism, calling it a significant milestone.
At COP30, India thanked the Presidency for beginning a long-overdue focus on which Article, linked to developed countries' climate finance obligations?
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Correct answer: C — Article 9.1
India's statement appreciated the Presidency's efforts in beginning the journey towards a long-overdue focus on Article 9.1, in the context of climate finance from developed countries.
The G20 Johannesburg Summit (November 2025) marked PM Narendra Modi's participation in G20 Summits for the:
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Correct answer: C — 12th time
The PMO said this was the Prime Minister's 12th participation in G20 Summits.
Which of the following was NOT among the six initiatives proposed by PM Modi at the G20 Johannesburg Summit?
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Correct answer: D — G20 Global Carbon Tax Mechanism
The six proposals were the Traditional Knowledge Repository, Africa Skills Multiplier, Global Healthcare Response Team, Open Satellite Data Partnership, Critical Minerals Circularity Initiative and the Initiative on Countering the Drug-Terror Nexus. No carbon tax mechanism was proposed.
At the G20 Johannesburg Summit, PM Modi suggested that which idea rooted in India's civilizational wisdom be explored as a new development parameter?
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Correct answer: A — Integral Humanism
The PM said the idea of 'Integral Humanism', which takes a holistic view of humans, society and nature, must be explored.
Consider the following statements about the G20 Johannesburg Summit, 2025: 1. It was the first G20 Summit held in Africa. 2. PM Modi said disaster resilience should be 'response-centric' rather than 'development-centric'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 reverses the PM's point: he said the approach should be development-centric rather than response-centric.
The four Labour Codes made effective from 21 November 2025 rationalise how many existing central labour laws?
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Correct answer: B — 29
The four Codes rationalise 29 existing central labour laws.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four Labour Codes made effective in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Code on Minimum Pension, 2020
The four Codes are the Code on Wages 2019, Industrial Relations Code 2020, Code on Social Security 2020 and the OSH Code 2020. There is no Code on Minimum Pension.
Under the Code on Social Security, 2020, as implemented in November 2025, aggregators must contribute towards gig and platform workers:
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Correct answer: A — 1–2% of annual turnover, capped at 5% of the amount paid/payable to such workers
Aggregators must contribute 1–2% of annual turnover, capped at 5% of the amount paid/payable to gig and platform workers.
Consider the following statements about the Labour Codes made effective in November 2025: 1. Employers must provide all workers above the age of 40 years with a free annual health check-up. 2. Women are barred from working night shifts in underground mining. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: women may work night shifts and in all types of work, including underground mining, with their consent and mandatory safety measures.
According to the final estimates for 2024-25 released in November 2025, India's total foodgrain production was:
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Correct answer: C — 357.73 million tonnes
Foodgrain production in 2024-25 reached a record 357.73 million tonnes, up from 332.30 million tonnes in 2023-24.
As per the final estimates for 2024-25, India's total oilseed production was estimated at:
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Correct answer: B — 429.89 lakh tonnes
Oilseed output in 2024-25 was a record 429.89 lakh tonnes, 33.20 lakh tonnes more than 396.69 lakh tonnes in 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about the final crop production estimates for 2024-25: 1. Rice production reached a record 1,501.84 lakh tonnes. 2. Maize production fell compared with 2023-24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: maize rose to 434.09 lakh tonnes from 376.65 lakh tonnes in 2023-24.
What is the name of India's first indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for sickle cell disease, launched in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — BIRSA 101
The therapy is named 'BIRSA 101', after Bhagwan Birsa Munda.
Which institution developed the BIRSA 101 gene therapy?
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Correct answer: B — CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology
BIRSA 101 was developed at CSIR–Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB).
Consider the following statements about the BIRSA 101 gene therapy: 1. CSIR-IGIB signed a technology transfer agreement with the Serum Institute of India for it. 2. It is based on IGIB's engineered enFnCas9 CRISPR platform. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: CSIR-IGIB and Serum Institute of India exchanged a technology transfer agreement to translate the enFnCas9 CRISPR platform into affordable therapies.
Which instalment of PM-KISAN, worth about ₹18,000 crore for around 9 crore farmers, was released on 19 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 21st
The 21st instalment of PM-KISAN was released on 19 November 2025.
From which city did PM Narendra Modi release the 21st PM-KISAN instalment?
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Correct answer: B — Coimbatore
It was released from Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu, at the South India Natural Farming Summit 2025.
According to PM Modi's address at Coimbatore in November 2025, how much has been transferred directly to farmers' bank accounts under PM-KISAN so far?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4 lakh crore
The PM said ₹4 lakh crore has been transferred directly to small farmers under PM-KISAN so far.
Which two risks were brought under PMFBY coverage in November 2025, to be rolled out from Kharif 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Wild animal attack and paddy inundation
Crop loss from wild animal attack (as a localised risk add-on) and paddy inundation (localised calamity) will be covered from Kharif 2026.
Under the revised PMFBY modalities, within how many hours must farmers report crop loss due to wild animal attack through the Crop Insurance App?
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Correct answer: C — 72 hours
Farmers must report losses within 72 hours with geotagged photographs.
From which crop season will the new PMFBY covers for wild animal attack and paddy inundation be rolled out?
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Correct answer: B — Kharif 2026
The modalities will be rolled out from Kharif 2026. Paddy inundation had been removed from the localised calamity category in 2018.
The National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance 2.0, launched in November 2025, covers which period?
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Correct answer: C — 2025–29
NAP-AMR 2.0 covers 2025–29.
In which year was India's first National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance launched?
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Correct answer: A — 2017
The first NAP-AMR was launched in 2017, after discussions that began in 2010.
Which state was ranked first among states in the 6th National Water Awards conferred in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Maharashtra
Maharashtra ranked first, Gujarat second and Haryana third.
According to President Murmu, roughly how many groundwater recharge structures have been built under Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari since its launch last year?
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Correct answer: C — 35 lakh
More than 35 lakh groundwater recharge structures have been completed under JSJB.
Consider the following statements about the 6th National Water Awards: 1. Gujarat was ranked second in the best-state category. 2. The awards were conferred at Rashtrapati Bhavan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the President conferred the awards at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
In India's National Statement at COP30, Bhupender Yadav called for COP30 to be remembered as a:
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Correct answer: D — COP of Implementation
India called for COP30 to be a 'COP of Implementation' and a 'COP of Delivery on Promises'.
According to India's COP30 National Statement, by how much has India's emission intensity declined since 2005?
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Correct answer: B — Over 36%
India's emission intensity has declined by over 36% since 2005.
Consider the following statements made in India's National Statement at COP30: 1. Non-fossil sources account for more than half of India's installed power capacity, a target achieved five years ahead of 2030. 2. India will declare its revised NDCs up to 2035 and its first Biennial Transparency Report on time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per India's National Statement delivered on 17 November 2025.
Who is the Chairman of the Sixteenth Finance Commission, which submitted its report in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Arvind Panagariya
Dr Arvind Panagariya heads the Sixteenth Finance Commission. N.K. Singh headed the Fifteenth.
The report of the Sixteenth Finance Commission covers which award period?
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Correct answer: C — 2026-27 to 2030-31
The report covers five years starting 1 April 2026, i.e. 2026-27 to 2030-31.
Consider the following statements about the Sixteenth Finance Commission: 1. It was constituted by the President under Article 280(1) of the Constitution. 2. Its report will be laid before Parliament under Article 275. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the report is laid before Parliament by the Finance Minister under Article 281. Article 275 deals with grants-in-aid to States.
What compliance timeline do the DPDP Rules, 2025 give organisations?
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Correct answer: C — 18 months
The Rules provide an 18-month phased compliance timeline.
Under the DPDP framework, appeals against decisions of the Data Protection Board lie with:
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Correct answer: D — TDSAT
Appeals against the Board's decisions lie with the Appellate Tribunal, TDSAT.
Consider the following statements about the DPDP Act, 2023 and the DPDP Rules, 2025: 1. Consent Managers must be Indian companies. 2. The framework follows the SARAL design — Simple, Accessible, Rational and Actionable. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per MeitY's release on the notification of the Rules.
How many cheetahs did Botswana gift to India under Project Cheetah, marked during President Droupadi Murmu's visit in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Eight
The President's Secretariat said the event marked Botswana's symbolic donation of eight cheetahs to India.
At which nature reserve did the Presidents of India and Botswana witness the release of cheetahs into a quarantine facility on 13 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Mokolodi Nature Reserve
The two Presidents visited the Mokolodi Nature Reserve, where cheetahs from the Ghanzi region were released into a quarantine facility.
Consider the following statements about the November 2025 cheetah gift from Botswana: 1. The cheetahs released at the quarantine facility originated from Botswana's Ghanzi region. 2. The President of Botswana who joined President Murmu was Mokgweetsi Masisi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The cheetahs came from the Ghanzi region. Botswana's President at the event was Duma Gideon Boko, not Mokgweetsi Masisi.
By how much did India's TB incidence decline between 2015 and 2024, according to the WHO Global TB Report 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 21%
India's TB incidence fell 21%, from 237 to 187 per lakh population; the global decline was 12%.
What was India's TB incidence per lakh population in 2024, as per the WHO Global TB Report 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 187
Incidence fell from 237 per lakh in 2015 to 187 per lakh in 2024.
Consider the following statements based on the Health Ministry's release on the WHO Global TB Report 2025: 1. India's TB treatment success rate of 90% is above the global rate of 88%. 2. The TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan was started in December 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
India's treatment success rate is 90% against 88% globally, and the release says the TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan started in December 2024.
What was India's provisional CPI-based headline inflation for October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 0.25%
MoSPI put October 2025 headline CPI inflation at 0.25%, the lowest of the current series and 119 basis points below September.
What was all-India food inflation, based on the Consumer Food Price Index, in October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — −5.02%
All-India CFPI food inflation was −5.02%; −4.85% and −5.18% were the rural and urban figures.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for October 2025: 1. Headline inflation was the lowest year-on-year rate of the current CPI series. 2. Rural headline inflation was 0.88%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Headline inflation of 0.25% was the lowest of the current series. Rural headline inflation was −0.25%; 0.88% was the urban figure.
What is the total outlay of the Export Promotion Mission approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹25,060 crore
The Export Promotion Mission has an outlay of ₹25,060 crore for FY 2025–26 to FY 2030–31. ₹20,000 crore is the credit support under the separate Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters.
Consider the following statements about the Export Promotion Mission: 1. NIRYAT PROTSAHAN focuses on access to affordable trade finance for MSMEs. 2. NIRYAT DISHA focuses on non-financial enablers such as branding, compliance and logistics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The EPM has two sub-schemes: NIRYAT PROTSAHAN for trade finance and NIRYAT DISHA for non-financial support.
Which existing export support schemes are consolidated into the Export Promotion Mission?
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Correct answer: A — Interest Equalisation Scheme and Market Access Initiative
The Cabinet release says the EPM consolidates the Interest Equalisation Scheme (IES) and the Market Access Initiative (MAI).
What is the capacity of the Punatsangchhu-II Hydroelectric Project in Bhutan, inaugurated during PM Modi's visit in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1020 MW
The 1020 MW Punatsangchhu-II project was inaugurated; 1200 MW is the capacity of Punatsangchhu-I.
What was the size of the Line of Credit to Bhutan announced during PM Modi's visit in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,000 crore
The list of outcomes includes an INR 4,000 crore Line of Credit to Bhutan.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Bhutan in November 2025: 1. A decision to establish an Immigration Check Post at Hatisar across Gelephu. 2. A grant of land in Bodh Gaya for a Bhutanese temple and guest house. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
An ICP at Hatisar across Gelephu was agreed. The land grant for a Bhutanese temple, monastery and guest house is in Varanasi, not Bodh Gaya.
According to PM Modi's address on 7 November 2025, in which journal did Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay publish 'Vande Mataram' in 1875?
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Correct answer: B — Bangadarshan
PM Modi said Bankim Babu published Vande Mataram in Bangadarshan in 1875; it also appears in his novel Anandamath.
Consider the following statements: 1. Rabindranath Tagore sang 'Vande Mataram' at the Calcutta session in 1896. 2. The year-long commemoration of 150 years of 'Vande Mataram' runs from 7 November 2025 to 7 November 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PM Modi recalled that Tagore sang Vande Mataram at the Calcutta Session in 1896, and the programme launched a commemoration from 7 November 2025 to 7 November 2026.
What did PM Modi release on 7 November 2025 to mark 150 years of 'Vande Mataram'?
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Correct answer: D — A commemorative coin and postage stamp
A special commemorative coin and postage stamp dedicated to Vande Mataram were released.
The Supreme Court's 6 November 2025 ruling that grounds of arrest must be given in writing to every arrestee was based on which constitutional provision?
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Correct answer: B — Article 22(1)
The court held that the Article 22(1) requirement to inform an arrested person of the grounds of arrest applies to all offences and must be met in writing.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 6 November 2025 judgment in Mihir Rajesh Shah vs State of Maharashtra: 1. Grounds of arrest must be supplied in writing, in a language the arrestee understands, for offences under all statutes. 2. Where written grounds cannot be given at the time of arrest, they must be supplied at least 24 hours before production for remand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The court required written grounds in the arrestee's language for all offences; if not given at arrest, they must be supplied at least two hours (not 24 hours) before production for remand.
Who authored the Supreme Court judgment of 6 November 2025 making written grounds of arrest mandatory for all offences?
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Correct answer: D — Justice Augustine George Masih
The Bench of CJI B.R. Gavai and Justice Augustine George Masih delivered the verdict; Justice Masih wrote the 52-page judgment.
Who formally unveiled the India AI Governance Guidelines on 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood, Principal Scientific Adviser
The guidelines were formally unveiled by Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood, Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
The India AI Governance Guidelines released in November 2025 were drafted by a high-level committee chaired by whom?
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Correct answer: A — Prof. Balaraman Ravindran, IIT Madras
The guidelines were drafted by a high-level committee under the chairmanship of Prof. Balaraman Ravindran, IIT Madras.
Consider the following statements about the India AI Governance Guidelines (November 2025): 1. The framework includes seven guiding principles (Sutras) and recommendations across six pillars of AI governance. 2. The guidelines propose a new standalone AI law to replace existing legislation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The framework has seven Sutras and six pillars; MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan said the focus remains on using existing legislation wherever possible, so statement 2 is wrong.
The IndiaAI Mission, under which the AI Governance Guidelines were released, was approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 March 2024 with what outlay?
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,371.92 crore
The Cabinet approved the IndiaAI Mission on 7 March 2024 with a budget outlay of ₹10,371.92 crore.
The launch of the India AI Governance Guidelines in November 2025 was described as a key milestone ahead of which event?
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Correct answer: C — India–AI Impact Summit 2026
MeitY said the launch marks a key milestone ahead of the India–AI Impact Summit 2026.
Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, which began on 4 November 2025, covers how many States and Union Territories?
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Correct answer: B — 9 States and 3 UTs
SIR Phase II covers 9 States and 3 UTs (Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry).
Consider the following statements about SIR Phase II (November 2025): 1. The Election Commission ordered it under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Its enumeration period runs until 4 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ECI ordered the SIR under Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950, and the enumeration period runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
Approximately how many electors are covered by Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision that began in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 51 crore
Phase II covers nearly 51 crore electors across 321 districts and 1,843 Assembly constituencies.
Which of the following is NOT among the States/UTs covered by SIR Phase II, which began on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Assam
Phase II covers Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry; Assam is not in the list.
The Rules for 'Sustainable Harnessing of Fisheries in the Exclusive Economic Zone', notified on 4 November 2025, fulfil an announcement made in which Union Budget?
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Correct answer: C — 2025–26
The Rules fulfil the Budget 2025–26 announcement of an enabling framework for sustainable fisheries from the Indian EEZ and high seas.
According to the Fisheries Ministry (November 2025), the Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep together account for what share of India's EEZ area?
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Correct answer: D — 49%
The ministry said the island regions of Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep together account for 49% of India's EEZ area.
Consider the following statements about the EEZ fisheries Rules notified in November 2025: 1. Mechanised and large motorised vessels need an Access Pass, available free of cost through the ReALCraft portal. 2. Foreign fishing vessels can obtain an Access Pass through joint-venture arrangements with Indian firms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Access Pass is free through ReALCraft for mechanised and large motorised vessels, but foreign fishing vessels are not allowed an Access Pass under any arrangement.
Which vessel concept, allowing mid-sea transshipment, is introduced by the EEZ fisheries Rules of November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mother-and-child vessels
The Rules introduce the mother-and-child vessel concept, allowing mid-sea transshipment under RBI-regulated monitoring.
What is the size of the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme Fund launched by PM Modi at ESTIC 2025 on 3 November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1 lakh crore
PM Modi launched the ₹1 lakh crore RDI Scheme Fund to promote private sector–driven R&D.
Where was the Emerging Science, Technology and Innovation Conclave (ESTIC) 2025 held?
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Correct answer: A — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
PM Modi addressed ESTIC 2025 at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi; the conclave ran from 3 to 5 November 2025.
Under the RDI Scheme approved by the Union Cabinet on 1 July 2025, the Special Purpose Fund that acts as custodian of funds is set up within which body?
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Correct answer: C — Anusandhan National Research Foundation
The Special Purpose Fund within the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) is the first-level custodian; DST is the nodal department.
At ESTIC 2025, PM Modi said the number of registered patents in India had increased by how many times over the last decade?
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Correct answer: B — 17 times
The PM said India's R&D expenditure had doubled in the last decade and registered patents had increased 17 times.