APPSC (Andhra Pradesh) Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In the 127th episode of Mann Ki Baat, the PM mentioned 'Garbage Cafes' where people get a meal in exchange for plastic waste. In which city are they run?
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Correct answer: C — Ambikapur
The PM said Garbage Cafes are being run in Ambikapur, Chhattisgarh: 1 kg of plastic gets lunch or dinner, half a kg gets breakfast.
According to Mann Ki Baat (26 October 2025), mangroves have spread over about 3,500 hectares on the Dholera coast in five years. Dholera is in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Gujarat
The PM said Gujarat's Forest Department planted mangroves near Dholera near Ahmedabad; a Mangrove Learning Centre has also been set up at Kori Creek, Kutch.
As stated in Mann Ki Baat (October 2025), from which date does India enter the 150th year of the national song 'Vande Mataram'?
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Correct answer: B — 7 November 2025
The PM said that on 7 November India will enter the 150th year of 'Vande Mataram'; Tagore first sang it in 1896.
Koraput coffee, praised by the PM in the 127th Mann Ki Baat, is grown in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Odisha
The PM said people from Odisha had written to him about Koraput coffee and praised its taste.
Queen Sirikit, whose passing PM Modi condoled on 26 October 2025, was the Queen Mother of which country?
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Correct answer: B — Thailand
PIB: the PM condoled the passing of Her Majesty Queen Sirikit, The Queen Mother of Thailand.
Which body hosted the Asia Pacific Accident Investigation Group (APAC-AIG) meeting in India for the first time, from 28 to 31 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB)
PIB: the AAIB, on behalf of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, hosted the four-day APAC-AIG meeting and workshop.
About how many aircraft accident investigators were expected at the APAC-AIG meeting hosted by India in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 90
PIB: approximately 90 representatives from accident investigation authorities of Asia-Pacific countries and ICAO were expected.
Who chaired the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) meeting on 25 October 2025 that reviewed preparedness for the impending cyclone in the Bay of Bengal?
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Correct answer: B — Cabinet Secretary Dr. T. V. Somanathan
PIB: Cabinet Secretary Dr. T. V. Somanathan chaired the NCMC meeting; the Union Home Secretary and NDMA officials attended.
Consider the following statements about the NCMC review of 25 October 2025: 1. Fishermen were advised not to venture into the sea off Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Yanam and Odisha from 26 to 29 October. 2. The Indian Coast Guard had shepherded over 900 ships to jetties and shores. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PIB release on the NCMC meeting.
The NCMC on 25 October 2025 reviewed cyclone preparedness of several state/UT governments. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: C — West Bengal
PIB: the Cabinet Secretary reviewed the preparedness of Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry. West Bengal was not part of the review.
The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) launched the Maha MedTech Mission in collaboration with:
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Correct answer: A — ICMR and the Gates Foundation
PIB: ANRF, in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the Gates Foundation, launched the Maha MedTech Mission.
Under the Maha MedTech Mission, the maximum funding for a project in exceptional cases is:
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Correct answer: C — ₹50 crore
PIB: milestone-linked funding is ₹5–25 crore per project, and up to ₹50 crore in exceptional cases.
In the 'Maha MedTech Mission', what does 'MAHA' stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas
PIB: the full name is the Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas (MAHA) – Medical Technology.
According to the PIB backgrounder of October 2025, by when does the Union Government aim to make all affected districts Naxal-free?
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Correct answer: B — March 2026
PIB backgrounder: the unified plan aims to make all affected districts Naxal-free by March 2026.
Consider the following statements based on the PIB backgrounder on Naxalism (October 2025): 1. The number of Naxal-affected districts fell from 126 in 2014 to 18 in 2024. 2. Twelve districts are now categorised as most-affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: affected districts fell from 126 in 2014 to 18 in 2024, with only 6 (not 12) now categorised as most-affected.
The Bastariya Battalion, cited in the PIB backgrounder on Naxalism as a symbol of local participation, was formed in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2018
PIB backgrounder: the Bastariya Battalion, formed in 2018, comprises 1,143 recruits, including 400 youth from Bijapur, Sukma and Dantewada districts.
Which two institutes were recognised as Centres of Excellence under the National Critical Mineral Mission in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — IISc Bangalore and C-MET Hyderabad
PIB: the Ministry of Mines recognised IISc Bangalore and the Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET), Hyderabad, besides 7 institutes recognised earlier.
After the October 2025 recognition, how many Centres of Excellence are there under the National Critical Mineral Mission, and on what model do they operate?
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Correct answer: D — 9; hub-and-spoke consortium
PIB: with 2 new CoEs added to the 7 recognised earlier, there are 9. Each operates as a consortium on a Hub & Spoke model, with at least two industry and two R&D/academic partners; together they have about 90 spokes.
Which department integrated the Legal Information Management and Briefing System (LIMBS) with the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) for paperless payment of advocates' fees in 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Legal Affairs
PIB: the Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law & Justice, integrated LIMBS with PFMS under Special Campaign 5.0.
HLL Lifecare Limited, which paid a dividend of ₹69.53 crore to the Government for 2024–25, is what category of Central Public Sector Enterprise?
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Correct answer: C — Mini-Ratna
PIB: HLL Lifecare Limited is a Mini-Ratna CPSE under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
HLL Lifecare Limited, set up to address India's population control challenges, was established in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1966
PIB: HLL Lifecare Limited was established on 1 March 1966 and is celebrating its 60th year.
Bhashini, the AI platform for real-time translation across India's 22 scheduled languages, operates under which mission?
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Correct answer: A — National Language Translation Mission
PIB backgrounder: Bhashini, under the National Language Translation Mission (NLTM), enables real-time translation for the 22 Scheduled Languages and tribal languages.
'Sanchika', a digital repository of dictionaries, primers and storybooks for scheduled and tribal languages, belongs to which institution?
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Correct answer: D — Central Institute of Indian Languages
PIB backgrounder: Sanchika is CIIL's (Central Institute of Indian Languages) digital repository, used for AI model training and machine translation.
Under the LC75 option extended to Central Government employees in October 2025, the maximum equity allocation is:
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Correct answer: C — 75%
PIB: LC75 allows a maximum equity allocation of 75%, tapering gradually from age 35 to 55 (to 15% by age 55).
Under the Balanced Life Cycle (BLC) option for NPS/UPS subscribers, the equity allocation starts tapering from which age?
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Correct answer: D — 45 years
PIB: BLC is a modified version of LC50, with equity allocation tapering from age 45, letting employees stay in equities longer; equity is 35% by age 55.
Consider the following statements about investment options for Central Government employees (October 2025): 1. LC75 and BLC options have been extended under both NPS and the Unified Pension Scheme. 2. Scheme G invests 100% in Government securities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: LC75 and BLC were extended under both NPS and UPS; Scheme G means 100% investment in Government securities.
Where and when was the Bharat International Rice Conference (BIRC) 2025 scheduled to be held?
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Correct answer: A — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, 30–31 October 2025
PIB: BIRC 2025 will be held at Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi, on 30–31 October 2025.
According to the BIRC 2025 curtain raiser, India's rice production of about 150 million tonnes in 2024–25 accounted for roughly what share of global output?
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Correct answer: C — 28%
PIB: India produced around 150 million tonnes of rice in 2024–25 from nearly 47 million hectares, accounting for about 28 percent of global output.
The ₹1,500 crore Incentive Scheme for critical mineral recycling, approved by the Union Cabinet on 3 September 2025, is part of:
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Correct answer: A — National Critical Mineral Mission
PIB: the ₹1,500 crore Incentive Scheme for critical mineral recycling is a part of the National Critical Mineral Mission; guidelines were issued on 2 October 2025.
Under the critical mineral recycling incentive scheme, the total incentive for a large recycler is capped at:
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Correct answer: B — ₹50 crore
PIB: to enlist more beneficiaries, total incentive is capped at ₹50 crore for big recyclers and ₹25 crore for small recyclers.
The private sleeper bus that caught fire near Chinnatekur in Kurnool district on 24 October 2025 was travelling on which route?
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Correct answer: A — Hyderabad to Bengaluru
The Hindu and Indian Express: the V. Kaveri Travels bus was travelling from Hyderabad to Bengaluru when it hit a motorcycle and caught fire near Kurnool.
What ex-gratia did the Prime Minister announce from the PMNRF after the Kurnool bus fire of October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2 lakh per deceased and ₹50,000 per injured
PIB: an ex-gratia of ₹2 lakh from PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased and ₹50,000 to the injured.
Which one of the following was NOT among the new airports added by scheduled domestic airlines in the Winter Schedule 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shravasti
PIB: Amravati, Hissar, Purnia and Rupsi are the new airports in WS25, whereas operations from Shravasti (along with Aligarh, Moradabad, Chitrakoot, Bhavnagar, Ludhiana and Pakyong) were suspended.
Under the Winter Schedule 2025 (26 October 2025 – 28 March 2026), domestic airlines' 26,495 weekly departures are to and from how many airports?
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Correct answer: B — 126
PIB: 26,495 departures per week to/from 126 airports in WS25, compared to 25,610 departures per week from 129 airports in Summer Schedule 2025.
What is the new toll-free helpline number for POSHAN and the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana, live from 1 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1515
PIB: the new helpline number 1515 will be live from 1 November 2025, replacing the existing number 14408.
The 'Pratibha Setu' portal, highlighted by the Prime Minister at the Rozgar Mela in October 2025, is meant for:
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Correct answer: A — Candidates who reached the UPSC final list but were not selected
PIB: the Pratibha Setu Portal offers opportunities to candidates who reached the final list of UPSC but were not selected; public and private institutions engage with them through it.
According to the Prime Minister at the Rozgar Mela on 24 October 2025, how many appointment letters had been issued through Rozgar Melas alone?
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Correct answer: A — Over 11 lakh
PIB: the PM said the government has issued over 11 lakh appointment letters through Rozgar Melas alone.
What was the approximate total value of proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 23 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹79,000 crore
PIB: the DAC, chaired by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh, approved proposals amounting to a total of about ₹79,000 crore.
Landing Platform Docks (LPDs), cleared by the DAC in October 2025 to enable amphibious operations, are for which service?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Navy
PIB: for the Indian Navy, AoN was granted for Landing Platform Docks, which will help the Navy undertake amphibious operations along with the Army and Air Force.
The Collaborative Long Range Target Saturation/Destruction System (CLRTS/DS), capable of autonomous take-off, landing and payload delivery, was cleared by the DAC in October 2025 for:
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Correct answer: C — Indian Air Force
PIB: for the Indian Air Force, AoN was accorded for CLRTS/DS, which can autonomously take off, land, navigate, detect and deliver payload in the mission area.
Under the October 2025 amendment to Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021, an intimation to intermediaries for removal of unlawful content can be issued (where the rank exists) only by an officer not below the rank of:
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Correct answer: C — Joint Secretary
PIB: intimations can now only be issued by a senior officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary or equivalent (or a Director where such rank is not appointed).
Under the amended Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules (October 2025), which police officer can issue a content-removal intimation to intermediaries?
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Correct answer: A — A specially authorised officer not below Deputy Inspector General
PIB: in case of police authorities, only an officer not below the rank of Deputy Inspector General of Police (DIG), specially authorised, can issue such intimation.
Consider the following statements about the October 2025 amendment to Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021: 1. All intimations will be reviewed monthly by an officer not below the rank of Secretary of the Appropriate Government. 2. The term 'reasoned intimation' was introduced to align the rule with Section 69A of the IT Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: monthly review by a Secretary-level officer is mandated; 'reasoned intimation' aligns the rule with the 'actual knowledge' requirement of Section 79(3)(b), not Section 69A.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 provisions effective from 1 November 2025, a depositor can nominate up to how many persons?
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Correct answer: C — Four
PIB: customers may nominate up to four persons, either simultaneously or successively.
Under the new nomination rules effective 1 November 2025, which type of nomination is permitted for articles in safe custody and safety lockers?
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Correct answer: B — Only successive nomination
PIB: for articles in safe custody and safety lockers, only successive nominations are permitted; deposit accounts can have either.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations, including the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. 2. Its nomination provisions came into force on 1 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Act has 19 amendments across five laws. Certain other sections came into force on 1 August 2025; the nomination provisions (Sections 10–13) come into force on 1 November 2025.
According to Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav on International Snow Leopard Day 2025, how many snow leopards did India's first-ever snow leopard census record?
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Correct answer: C — 718
PIB: the first-ever Snow Leopard Census recorded 718 individual snow leopards across the Indian Himalayas, with Ladakh alone hosting 477.
What was the name of the nationwide campaign with which India marked International Snow Leopard Day on 23 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — #23for23
PIB: India observed International Snow Leopard Day with '#23for23', encouraging people to do physical activity for 23 minutes to raise awareness about snow leopard conservation.
Where was the Election Commission's two-day Conference of Chief Electoral Officers on SIR preparedness held in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management, New Delhi
PIB (ECI): the two-day conference concluded at the India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
At the October 2025 CEOs' conference, the Election Commission held one-to-one interactions with CEOs of poll-bound states/UT. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB (ECI): the Commission interacted one-to-one with CEOs of Assam, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Kerala and West Bengal. Karnataka was not among them.
From which date does the Defence Procurement Manual (DPM) 2025, released by the Defence Minister in October 2025, come into effect?
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Correct answer: B — 1 November 2025
PIB: DPM 2025 is effective from November 01, 2025; RFPs issued up to October 31, 2025 remain under DPM 2009.
Under DPM 2025, what rate of liquidated damages per week applies in indigenisation cases for delayed delivery?
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Correct answer: C — 0.1% per week
PIB: in indigenisation cases only 0.1% LD per week will be levied instead of 0.5% per week; overall, maximum LD of 10% applies only in cases of inordinate delay.
Consider the following statements about the Defence Procurement Manual 2025: 1. RFPs issued after 1 November 2025 will be governed by DPM 2025, while earlier RFPs remain under DPM 2009. 2. It governs capital acquisition of major weapon platforms worth about ₹1 lakh crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: DPM 2025 governs revenue procurement (not capital acquisition) of approx ₹1 lakh crore by the three Services and other MoD establishments.
In October 2025, India was re-elected Vice-Chairperson of the COP10 Bureau (Asia-Pacific) of which international instrument?
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Correct answer: D — International Convention against Doping in Sport
PIB: India was re-elected Vice-Chairperson of the Bureau for Asia-Pacific (Group IV) at COP10 to the International Convention against Doping in Sport, held at UNESCO HQ, Paris.
Which country was elected Chairperson of the COP10 Bureau of the International Convention against Doping in Sport in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Azerbaijan
PIB: Azerbaijan was elected Chairperson of the COP10 Bureau; Brazil, Zambia and Saudi Arabia were elected Vice-Chairs for their regional groups, along with India.
The three training modules on Public Health Management of Chemical Emergencies, released in October 2025, were developed by:
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Correct answer: B — National Centre for Disease Control with NDMA, with technical support from WHO India
PIB: the three specialised modules were developed by NCDC (MoHFW) in collaboration with NDMA and with technical support from WHO India.
Where was the 14th India–Bhutan Meeting on Border Management and Security held in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Thimphu
PIB (MHA): the 14th India-Bhutan Meeting on Border Management and Security was held in Thimphu, Bhutan, on 16–17 October 2025.
Before the 14th India–Bhutan Meeting on Border Management and Security in October 2025, the previous such meeting was held in:
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Correct answer: B — 2019
PIB (MHA): the last such meeting was held in the year 2019.
Citing NCRB data, the NHRC said in October 2025 that how many people died from exposure to cold waves in India between 2019 and 2023?
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Correct answer: D — 3,639
PIB (NHRC): citing the NCRB report 'Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India', a total of 3,639 people reportedly died from exposure to cold waves between 2019 and 2023.
According to the Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025, what is India's global rank in total forest area?
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Correct answer: C — 9th
PIB: India moved up to 9th position in total forest area as per GFRA 2025; it was 10th in the previous assessment.
The Global Forest Resources Assessment (GFRA) 2025 was released by which organisation?
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Correct answer: B — Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
PIB: GFRA 2025 was released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in Bali.
Consider the following statements regarding India in the Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025: 1. India retained its 3rd position worldwide in annual forest area gain. 2. The assessment was released by FAO at Rome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: India maintained its 3rd position in annual forest area gain; the GFRA 2025 was released by FAO in Bali, not Rome.
The 16th session of UNCTAD (UNCTAD XVI), where Piyush Goyal led India's delegation in October 2025, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Geneva
PIB: Piyush Goyal attended the XVIth Session of UNCTAD in Geneva and delivered India's national statement.
In which year was the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) established?
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Correct answer: B — 1964
PIB (UNCTAD XVI release): UNCTAD, established in 1964, promotes the integration of developing countries into the global economy through trade, investment and sustainable development.
Consider the following statements based on India's address at UNCTAD XVI (October 2025): 1. India contributes about 17% of global emissions, in line with its share of world population. 2. India's current clean energy capacity was stated as 500 GW. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: India contributes only 3.5% of global emissions despite hosting 17% of the world's population; clean energy stands at 250 GW, with 500 GW as the 2030 target.
India's 7 nm processor announced in October 2025 is being developed by which institution?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
PIB backgrounder: the 7 nm processor is being developed by IIT Madras through its SHAKTI initiative.
Consider the following statements about the SHAKTI processor initiative: 1. It was started in 2013 and is based on an open-source instruction set architecture. 2. The 7 nm processor under it is mainly targeted at smartphones and consumer wearables. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB backgrounder: SHAKTI started in 2013 on an open-source ISA (RISC-V); the 7 nm processor targets server applications in financial services, communications, defence and strategic sectors.