Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Environment Audit Rules, 2025 were notified by the Union Environment Ministry on:
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Correct answer: D — 29 August 2025
MoEFCC notified the Environment Audit Rules, 2025 on 29 August 2025.
Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, which body certifies and registers environment auditors?
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Correct answer: C — Environment Audit Designated Agency
Auditors are certified and registered by the Environment Audit Designated Agency (EADA) notified by MoEFCC.
Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, an individual can become a Certified Environment Auditor through:
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Correct answer: B — Recognition of Prior Learning or the National Certification Examination
Certification is through Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) or the National Certification Examination (NCE).
Consider the following statements about the Environment Audit Rules, 2025: 1. Registered Environment Auditors will be assigned to project entities by a random assignment method. 2. The rules replace State Pollution Control Boards as the authority for monitoring environmental compliance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the rules aim to bridge manpower and infrastructure gaps of CPCB, the Ministry's regional offices and State PCBs; The Hindu describes auditors as supplementing the work of State PCBs.
Under which regulations did TRAI register the first eight Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024
The DCRAs were registered under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies (DCRAs): 1. Their registration is valid for three years from 27 August 2025. 2. They will assign star ratings to properties for digital connectivity. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: registration is for five years from 27 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct.
The 'Brahmaputra Wing' inaugurated by Amit Shah on 29 August 2025 is located at:
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Correct answer: A — Raj Bhavan, Guwahati
Amit Shah inaugurated the Brahmaputra Wing at Raj Bhavan in Guwahati, Assam.
Under the draft amendments to the NDCT Rules, 2019 published on 28 August 2025, the statutory processing time for test licence applications is proposed to be reduced from 90 days to:
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Correct answer: D — 45 days
The draft reduces the overall statutory processing time for test licence applications from 90 days to 45 days.
In the context of drug regulation, 'BA/BE studies', addressed in the draft NDCT amendments of August 2025, stand for:
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Correct answer: B — Bioavailability / Bioequivalence studies
The draft amendments concern applications for Bioavailability/Bioequivalence (BA/BE) studies.
Consider the following statements about the draft amendments to the New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules, 2019 (August 2025): 1. Test licences for all drugs, including high-risk categories, will be replaced by an intimation system. 2. The Ministry expects the number of licence applications to fall by about 50%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: a small category of high-risk drugs is excluded from the intimation system. Statement 2 is correct.
The Union Cabinet approved India's bid for the Commonwealth Games 2030 on 27 August 2025. Which city has been put forward as the host?
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Correct answer: B — Ahmedabad
The Cabinet release describes Ahmedabad as an ideal host city and provides for grant-in-aid to the Gujarat Government if the bid is accepted.
As per the Cabinet release on the CWG 2030 bid, athletes from how many countries will participate in the Games?
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Correct answer: D — 72
The release states that athletes from 72 countries will participate in the Commonwealth Games.
Consider the following statements about the Cabinet decision of 27 August 2025 on CWG 2030: 1. The Cabinet approved signing a Host Collaboration Agreement and grant-in-aid to the Gujarat Government in case the bid is accepted. 2. The proposed host city's Narendra Modi Stadium hosted the 2023 ICC Cricket World Cup Final. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release of 27 August 2025.
The proposal to submit India's bid for the Commonwealth Games 2030, approved by the Union Cabinet in August 2025, was moved by which Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports
The Cabinet approved the proposal of the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports for submission of the bid.
The landslide of 26 August 2025 on the Shri Mata Vaishno Devi yatra track struck near which location?
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Correct answer: D — Adhkuwari
The landslide struck near Adhkuwari (Ardhkuwari), roughly halfway along the trek from Katra to the Vaishno Devi shrine in Reasi district, Jammu and Kashmir.
The three-member committee constituted on 29 August 2025 to enquire into the Vaishno Devi yatra track landslide is headed by the:
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Correct answer: B — Additional Chief Secretary, Jal Shakti Department, J&K
Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha, also chairman of the Shrine Board, constituted the committee headed by the Additional Chief Secretary, Jal Shakti Department, J&K; it is to report within two weeks.
The two-day Vibrant Villages Programme workshop addressed by Amit Shah on 26 August 2025 was organised by:
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Correct answer: C — Border Management Division, MHA
The workshop was organised by the Border Management Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
At the VVP workshop (August 2025), Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least what radius?
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Correct answer: B — 30 km
Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least a 30 km radius.
The Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare signed an MoU on 26 August 2025 with which body to strengthen services for over 63 lakh veterans?
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Correct answer: A — Quality Council of India
DESW signed the MoU with the Quality Council of India (QCI) in New Delhi on 26 August 2025.
XV Finance Commission untied grants to rural local bodies can be used for location-specific needs under the subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: A — Eleventh Schedule
Untied grants are used under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats), except salaries and establishment costs; the Twelfth Schedule relates to municipalities.
The 56th meeting of the Council of Indian Institutes of Technology, chaired by Dharmendra Pradhan on 25 August 2025, was held at:
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Correct answer: D — IIT Delhi
The 56th meeting of the IIT Council was convened on 25 August 2025 at IIT Delhi under the chairmanship of Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan.
At the 56th IIT Council meeting (August 2025), the Education Minister said IITs have produced over 6,000 start-ups and nearly 5,000 patents. How many unicorns did he mention?
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Correct answer: C — 56
Dharmendra Pradhan said that with over 6,000 start-ups, 56 unicorns and nearly 5,000 patents, IITs have emerged as engines of economic growth.
In August 2025, Government e Marketplace (GeM) crossed what milestone in cumulative Gross Merchandise Value since inception?
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Correct answer: D — ₹15 lakh crore
GeM crossed ₹15 lakh crore in cumulative Gross Merchandise Value since its inception in 2016.
Government e Marketplace (GeM), the online public procurement platform that crossed ₹15 lakh crore GMV in August 2025, was started in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
The Commerce Ministry stated that GeM crossed ₹15 lakh crore cumulative GMV since its inception in 2016.
The All India Speakers' Conference held at the Delhi Legislative Assembly in August 2025 commemorated the centenary of whom becoming the first elected Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly?
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Correct answer: B — Vithalbhai Patel
The conference commemorated the 100th anniversary of freedom fighter Vithalbhai Patel becoming the first elected Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly.
Where was the two-day All India Speakers' Conference inaugurated by Amit Shah on 24 August 2025 held?
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Correct answer: D — Delhi Legislative Assembly
Amit Shah inaugurated the two-day All India Speakers' Conference organised at the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
Consider the following statements about Vithalbhai Patel: 1. He became the first Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly in August 1925. 2. He was the younger brother of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Vithalbhai Patel became the first Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly on 22 August 1925. Statement 2 is incorrect: he was the elder (older) brother of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Consider the following statements about the All India Speakers' Conference of August 2025: 1. It was inaugurated by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla. 2. Chairpersons and Vice-Chairpersons of State Legislative Councils were among the participants. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the conference. Statement 2 is correct: it was attended by Speakers and Deputy Speakers of State/UT Assemblies as well as Chairpersons and Vice-Chairpersons of Legislative Councils.
The 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference, at which Om Birla will lead the Indian delegation in October 2025, is being held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Bridgetown
Om Birla will lead the Indian Parliamentary Delegation at the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference in Bridgetown, Barbados, from 5 to 12 October 2025.
On what theme will Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla address the General Assembly of the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference?
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Correct answer: A — The Commonwealth: A Global Partner
Om Birla will address the General Assembly of the 68th CPC on the theme 'The Commonwealth: A Global Partner'.
Consider the following statements about India's participation in the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference: 1. The conference is scheduled from 5 to 12 October 2025. 2. Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh is part of the Indian delegation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The delegation, led by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla and representing the CPA India Region, includes Harivansh; the conference is in Bridgetown, Barbados, from 5 to 12 October 2025.
According to the Election Commission on 24 August 2025, documents of what percentage of electors had been received in Bihar's Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls?
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Correct answer: B — 98.2%
The ECI said that documents of 98.2% of electors had been received, with 8 days left until 1 September for the remaining 1.8%.
In August 2025, the Mumbai Port Authority allotted land at Colaba, Mumbai, to the Government of Assam on lease for how many years?
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Correct answer: B — 60 years
Sarbananda Sonowal announced that four bighas of land at Colaba were allotted by the Mumbai Port Authority to the Government of Assam on lease for 60 years.
In August 2025, the CCPA fined VLCC Limited for misleading ads on CoolSculpting. According to the CCPA, the procedure is approved only for localised fat reduction in individuals with a BMI of:
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Correct answer: B — 30 or less
The CCPA noted that CoolSculpting is approved only for localised fat reduction in specific body areas and only for individuals with a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 30 or less.
What penalty did the Central Consumer Protection Authority impose on VLCC Limited in August 2025 for misleading fat-loss advertisements?
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Correct answer: A — ₹3 lakh
The CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹3 lakh on VLCC Limited for misleading advertisements on CoolSculpting fat-loss treatments.
Which judge headed the three-judge Supreme Court bench that modified the stray dogs order on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Justice Vikram Nath
The three-judge bench was led by Justice Vikram Nath, with Justices Sandeep Mehta and N.V. Anjaria.
While modifying the stray dogs order in August 2025, the Supreme Court noted that an absolute bar on releasing picked-up dogs would run contrary to Rule 11(19) of which rules?
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Correct answer: B — Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023
The bench noted that an absolute prohibition on release would run contrary to Rule 11(19) of the Animal Birth Control (ABC) Rules, 2023, framed under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
The Supreme Court's stray dogs order of 22 August 2025 modified directions it had issued on which date?
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Correct answer: D — 11 August 2025
The bench modified the court's suo motu directions of 11 August 2025, which it termed too harsh.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's stray dogs order of 22 August 2025: 1. Dogs suspected to be infected with rabies may be released back after sterilisation and immunisation. 2. Municipal authorities must create dedicated feeding spaces for stray dogs in each municipal ward. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: dogs infected or suspected to be infected with rabies, and aggressive dogs, are to be sterilised and immunised but not released back onto the streets. Statement 2 is correct: municipal authorities must create dedicated feeding spaces in each municipal ward.
NITI Aayog released the report 'Rethinking Homestays: Navigating Policy Pathways' in August 2025 in collaboration with which organisation?
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Correct answer: A — Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)
NITI Aayog launched the report in collaboration with the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI).
Who released NITI Aayog's report 'Rethinking Homestays: Navigating Policy Pathways' on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Suman Bery
The report was released by Suman Bery, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog.
Which Supreme Court bench on 22 August 2025 allowed voters excluded from Bihar's draft roll to file claims online with Aadhaar?
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Correct answer: A — Justices Surya Kant and Joymalya Bagchi
A bench of Justices Surya Kant and Joymalya Bagchi allowed claim forms to be submitted online with an Aadhaar card or any one of the 11 accepted documents.
By which cutoff date did the Supreme Court want booth-level agents to help excluded Bihar voters file their claims, as per its 22 August 2025 order?
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Correct answer: C — 1 September 2025
The court directed booth-level agents of political parties to help the roughly 65 lakh persons excluded from the draft rolls submit objections by the cutoff date of 1 September.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's Bihar SIR order of 22 August 2025: 1. Excluded voters may submit claims with an Aadhaar card or any one of the 11 prescribed documents. 2. Physical submission of the claim form was made mandatory even for online applicants. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: claims may be filed with an Aadhaar card or any one of the 11 documents. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court clarified that persons may apply online and that physical submission is not necessary.
Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025, offering or facilitating online money games can attract what maximum punishment for a first offence?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 3 years and ₹1 crore
Offering or facilitating online money games can lead to imprisonment of up to three years and a fine of up to ₹1 crore; repeat offenders face up to five years and ₹2 crore.
After receiving Presidential assent on 22 August 2025, the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act was published as which Act number of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Act No. 32
The Gazette notification states that the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 received assent on 22 August 2025 and is No. 32 of 2025.
Which ministry will prepare guidelines and standards for e-sports tournaments under the online gaming law passed in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
E-sports are recognised as a legitimate competitive sport, and the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports will prepare guidelines and standards for tournaments.
Consider the following statements about the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025: 1. The ban on online money games applies to games of skill as well as games of chance. 2. Advertising online money games can attract imprisonment of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the complete ban covers games of chance, games of skill and those combining both, and advertising such games can attract a jail term of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh.
Consider the following statements about the online gaming law of 2025: 1. The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025 and by the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. 2. Offences under its key provisions are cognisable but bailable. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 20 August and the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: offences under key provisions are cognisable and non-bailable.
How many Bills were passed by both Houses of Parliament during the Monsoon Session 2025, which was adjourned sine die on 21 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 15
According to the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, a total of 15 Bills were passed by both Houses during the session.
How many sittings did the Monsoon Session 2025 of Parliament have?
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Correct answer: B — 21
The session provided 21 sittings spread over 32 days, from 21 July to 21 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Monsoon Session 2025 of Parliament: 1. The session commenced on 21 July 2025. 2. The special discussion on Operation Sindoor in the Rajya Sabha was replied to by the Prime Minister. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the session commenced on 21 July 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: in the Rajya Sabha the discussion was replied to by the Home Minister; the Prime Minister replied in the Lok Sabha.
During the Monsoon Session 2025, the extension of President's Rule in Manipur for six months from 13 August 2025 was approved under which provision of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: D — Article 356(4)
The statutory resolution for extending President's Rule in Manipur was moved under Article 356(4) and adopted by the Lok Sabha on 30 July and the Rajya Sabha on 5 August 2025.
What was the code name of the DRI operation that seized 72 kg of hydroponic weed in Bengaluru and Bhopal in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Operation WeedOut
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence's pan-India operation was code-named 'WeedOut'.
Under which law was the hydroponic weed seized in DRI's Operation WeedOut (August 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — NDPS Act, 1985
The 72.024 kg of hydroponic weed and illegal proceeds of ₹1.02 crore were seized under the provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985.
The IIM to be set up at Guwahati under the IIM (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament in August 2025 will be India's which IIM?
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Correct answer: C — 22nd
Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan said the 22nd IIM in the country will be set up in Guwahati.
What corpus fund will IIM Guwahati receive for five years (2025–26 to 2029–30) under the IIM (Amendment) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹555 crore
The Bill's financial memorandum provides a corpus fund of ₹555 crore for IIM Guwahati for five years, 2025–26 to 2029–30.
The establishment of IIM Guwahati is one of the projects under a Special Development Package for Assam agreed in a Memorandum of Settlement signed by the Government of India, the Assam government and which group?
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Correct answer: D — United Liberation Front of Asom (ULFA)
The Bill's statement of objects says the Government of India, the State Government of Assam and representatives of ULFA signed a Memorandum of Settlement, under whose Special Development Package an IIM at Guwahati is one of the projects.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. It was passed by the Lok Sabha on 19 August and by the Rajya Sabha on 20 August 2025. 2. It amends the Indian Institutes of Management Act, 2017. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 19 August and the Rajya Sabha on 20 August 2025, and the Bill amends the Indian Institutes of Management Act, 2017.
Under the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025, removal of a Minister is linked to arrest and detention in custody for more than how many days?
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Correct answer: B — 30 days
The Bills seek removal of the PM, CMs or Ministers facing serious charges who are arrested and detained in custody for more than 30 days; removal is to take place on the 31st day.
The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 applies to charges punishable with imprisonment for a term of at least how long?
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Correct answer: D — 5 years or more
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs states the Bills cover serious criminal charges punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 5 years or more.
What is the composition of the Joint Committee to which the Lok Sabha referred the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 and two related Bills?
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Correct answer: A — 21 Lok Sabha and 10 Rajya Sabha members
The motion moved by Amit Shah referred the three Bills to a Joint Committee of 21 Lok Sabha members nominated by the Speaker and 10 Rajya Sabha members nominated by the Deputy Chairman.
Consider the following statements about the Bills introduced in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025: 1. The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 was introduced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah. 2. It was introduced along with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill, 2025 and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: Amit Shah introduced the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025, together with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill.
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. The Prime Minister is kept outside the scope of the removal provision. 2. The Joint Committee examining it is to report by the last day of the first week of the next session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Bills cover the Prime Minister as well as Union Ministers and Chief Ministers and Ministers of States and UTs. Statement 2 is correct: the motion requires the Joint Committee to report by the last day of the first week of the next session.
Who was the Returning Officer before whom C.P. Radhakrishnan's nomination papers for the Vice-Presidential election were filed on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — P.C. Mody, Secretary General of Rajya Sabha
The four sets of nomination papers were handed over to Rajya Sabha Secretary General P.C. Mody, the returning officer for the Vice-Presidential election.
How many sets of nomination papers were filed for C.P. Radhakrishnan for the Vice-Presidential election on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Four
Four sets of nomination papers were handed over to the returning officer, with Narendra Modi, Rajnath Singh, Amit Shah and Rajiv Ranjan Singh as lead proposers.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election process referred to in August 2025: 1. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are part of the electoral college. 2. A candidate's nomination must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and at least 20 as seconders. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the electoral college comprises members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, and nominated Rajya Sabha members are also eligible to vote; a nomination needs at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 as seconders.
Among the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025, what is the maximum number of voters now set per polling station?
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Correct answer: A — 1,200
The ECI listed a polling station limit of 1,200 voters to reduce crowding and shorten queues.
ECINET, listed by the Election Commission among its recent initiatives, subsumes how many apps and websites?
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Correct answer: C — 40+
ECINET is described as a one-stop digital platform subsuming 40+ apps and websites for electors and other stakeholders.
Consider the following statements about the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025: 1. Under a new SOP, EPICs are to be delivered within 30 days of an update in the electoral rolls. 2. Honorarium has been provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the new SOP enables delivery of EPICs within 15 days of an update in the electoral rolls. Statement 2 is correct: honorarium was provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time.
Judicial officer Ramesh Kumari was appointed as an Additional Judge of which High Court, as notified on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab and Haryana High Court
The President, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, appointed Ramesh Kumari, judicial officer, as an Additional Judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.
Which edition of the National Anubhav Awards, honouring retired government employees, was held at Vigyan Bhawan on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
Dr Jitendra Singh presented awards at the 8th National Anubhav Awards ceremony held with the 57th Pre-Retirement Counselling Workshop at Vigyan Bhawan; the awards were launched in 2015.
At the 20th Central Monitoring Committee meeting on river rejuvenation (19 August 2025), which State was noted as having no polluted river stretches in the latest CPCB assessment?
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Correct answer: A — Sikkim
The Committee noted that Sikkim emerged as a State with no polluted river stretches in the latest CPCB assessment, while Assam and Punjab were cited for floodplain demarcation.
How many provisions does the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 propose to decriminalise to foster Ease of Doing Business?
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Correct answer: B — 288
Of the 355 provisions proposed to be amended, 288 are to be decriminalised to foster Ease of Doing Business and 67 amended to facilitate Ease of Living.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 covers how many Central Acts?
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Correct answer: D — 16
The 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments; the 2023 Act had covered 42 Central Acts.
Under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025, the 67 amendments meant to facilitate Ease of Living are proposed under which Acts?
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Correct answer: B — NDMC Act, 1994 and Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
The Bill proposes 67 amendments under the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994 (NDMC Act) and the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to facilitate Ease of Living.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025: 1. First-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts are to attract an advisory or warning. 2. The Minister requested that the Bill be referred to a Select Committee, which is to report by the first day of the next Session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Bill provides an advisory or warning for first-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts, and Piyush Goyal requested the Speaker to refer it to a Select Committee that is to report by the first day of the next Session.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas legislation: 1. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The 2025 Bill covers Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the 2023 Act, notified on 11 August 2023, decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments.