Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Justice Pavankumar Bhimappa Bajanthri was appointed Chief Justice of which High Court in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Patna High Court
The President appointed Justice Bajanthri, a judge of the Patna High Court, as Chief Justice of the Patna High Court.
On which portal of the National Consumer Helpline was a dedicated GST grievance category enabled in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INGRAM
The Department of Consumer Affairs enabled a dedicated GST category on the NCH's INGRAM portal.
Which form can an elector file to apply for deletion of an entry from the electoral roll, as referred to by the ECI in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Form 7
Form 7 is used to apply for deletion of an entry; filing it does not by itself delete the entry.
Consider the following statements based on the ECI's statement of 19 September 2025: 1. Under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, no name is deleted without notice to the affected person and an opportunity of being heard. 2. Of 6,018 online deletion applications in Aland, Karnataka, 5,994 were accepted. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: only 24 of the 6,018 Aland applications were found genuine and accepted, while 5,994 were rejected.
What is the name of the new EPFO facility announced in September 2025 that lets members view a summary of their PF passbook within the member portal?
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Correct answer: D — Passbook Lite
EPFO introduced 'Passbook Lite' in its member portal for a simple summarised view of contributions, withdrawals and balance.
In the EPFO reforms of September 2025, 'Annexure K', made available online to members, refers to which document?
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Correct answer: A — Transfer Certificate for PF transfer
EPFO enabled online access to Annexure K, the Transfer Certificate, for transparency in PF transfers.
Under which rule of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, did the ECI revise guidelines for EVM ballot papers in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rule 49B
The ECI revised the existing guidelines under Rule 49B of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, for the design and printing of EVM ballot papers.
Under the revised ECI guidelines of September 2025, what colour of paper is to be used for EVM ballot papers in Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: A — Pink
For Assembly elections, pink-coloured paper of specified RGB values is to be used; ballot papers are printed on 70 GSM paper.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's revised EVM ballot paper guidelines of September 2025: 1. Candidates' photographs will be printed in colour, with the face occupying three-fourths of the photo space. 2. Serial numbers of candidates and NOTA will be printed in Devanagari numerals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Photographs will be in colour with the face covering three-fourths of the space, but serial numbers will be printed in the international form of Indian numerals, not Devanagari numerals.
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs invited public comments in September 2025 on establishing Indian 'MDP' firms. What does MDP stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Multi-Disciplinary Partnership
The MCA invited comments on the establishment of Indian Multi-Disciplinary Partnership (MDP) firms, linked to developing domestic consulting and auditing firms.
What is the number of the MANAS anti-drug helpline that Amit Shah urged greater use of at the ANTF heads conference in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1933
Amit Shah said greater use should be made of the MANAS helpline number 1933.
How much quantity of drugs was destroyed under the NCB drug disposal campaign launched by Amit Shah on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1.37 lakh kg
Under the campaign, 1.37 lakh kilograms of drugs worth ₹4,800 crore were destroyed at 11 locations.
Consider the following statements about the three-pronged anti-drug strategy outlined by Amit Shah at the second ANTF heads conference: 1. It calls for a humane approach towards the drug supply chain. 2. It calls for a strategic approach towards demand reduction. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. Shah called for a ruthless approach to the drug supply chain, a strategic approach to demand reduction and a humane approach to harm reduction.
Which bench of the Supreme Court passed the interim order on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 on 15 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — CJI B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih
The interim order of 15 September 2025 was passed by a bench of Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih.
Under the Supreme Court's interim directions on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, what is the maximum number of non-Muslim members allowed in the Central Waqf Council and in a State Waqf Board, respectively?
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Correct answer: A — 4 and 3
The Court directed that the Central Waqf Council should not have more than 4 non-Muslim members and a State Waqf Board not more than 3, recording the Solicitor General's statement to the same effect.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's interim order of 15 September 2025 on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. The Court stayed the operation of the entire Act until the petitions are finally decided. 2. The condition that a person must be practising Islam for at least five years to create a waqf was stayed until State Governments frame rules for a mechanism to determine it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Court found no case to stay the entire statute. Statement 2 is correct: the five-year condition was stayed until State Governments frame rules, since without a mechanism it could lead to arbitrary exercise of power.
While staying the Collector's powers to decide disputes over waqf property under the amended Act, which constitutional principle did the Supreme Court say would be violated if the executive determined citizens' rights?
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Correct answer: D — Separation of powers
The Court said permitting the Collector to adjudicate the rights of citizens would violate the separation of powers, and stayed those provisions until the Waqf Tribunal decides.
With which agency did UPSC collaborate for its AI-enabled facial authentication pilot during the NDA and CDS examinations on 14 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — National e-Governance Division (NeGD)
The pilot was undertaken in collaboration with the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) at select centres in Gurugram.
In which city were the select centres where UPSC piloted AI-based facial recognition on 14 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Gurugram
The pilot was carried out at select centres in Gurugram, with about 2,700 successful scans for 1,129 candidates.
Who was appointed Chief Justice of the High Court of Manipur by a Law Ministry communiqué of 14 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Justice M. Sundar
The President appointed Justice M. Sundar, a judge of the Madras High Court, as Chief Justice of the Manipur High Court on the superannuation of Justice Kempaiah Somashekar.
At which place in Manipur did PM Modi lay the foundation stone of projects worth over ₹7,300 crore on 13 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Churachandpur
PM Modi laid the foundation stone of multiple development projects worth over ₹7,300 crore at Churachandpur; projects worth over ₹1,200 crore were inaugurated at Imphal.
Which project, with an investment of over ₹3,600 crore, did PM Modi highlight at Imphal on 13 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Manipur Urban Roads Project
The PM highlighted the Manipur Urban Roads Project (over ₹3,600 crore) and the Manipur Infotech Development Project (over ₹500 crore).
During his Manipur visit in September 2025, PM Modi recalled that which leader had called Manipur 'the gateway to India's independence'?
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Correct answer: D — Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
The PM said Netaji Subhas had called Manipur the gateway to India's independence.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's Manipur visit of 13 September 2025: 1. At Imphal, he highlighted the Manipur Infotech Development Project, with an investment of over ₹500 crore. 2. He called for strengthening dialogue to build a bridge of harmony between the hills and the valley. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: at Imphal the PM highlighted the Manipur Infotech Development Project (over ₹500 crore) and urged continued dialogue to build harmony between the hills and the valley.
Which state legislature hosted the 11th CPA India Region Conference that concluded on 13 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Karnataka
The 11th Commonwealth Parliamentary Association India Region Conference was hosted by the Karnataka Legislature in Bengaluru from 11 to 13 September 2025.
Who is the President of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA) India Region, as stated at the 11th CPA India Region Conference?
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Correct answer: C — Lok Sabha Speaker
Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla addressed the conference as President of the CPA India Region.
Consider the following statements about the 11th CPA India Region Conference: 1. Its theme centred on dialogue and discussion in legislative institutions as a foundation of public trust. 2. The valedictory address was delivered by the Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the theme was 'Dialogue and Discussion in Legislative Institutions: A Foundation of Public Trust and a Means to Fulfill Public Aspirations'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the valedictory address was delivered by Karnataka Governor Thaawar Chand Gehlot.
Who administered the oath of office to C.P. Radhakrishnan as Vice President of India on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President Droupadi Murmu
President Droupadi Murmu administered the oath of office of Vice President to C.P. Radhakrishnan at Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Which post did C.P. Radhakrishnan hold immediately before becoming Vice President of India?
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Correct answer: A — Governor of Maharashtra
Radhakrishnan was formerly the Governor of Maharashtra; he had earlier been Governor of Jharkhand with additional charge of Telangana and Puducherry.
From which Lok Sabha constituency was C.P. Radhakrishnan elected in 1998 and 1999?
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Correct answer: B — Coimbatore
Radhakrishnan was elected to the Lok Sabha for the first time from Coimbatore in 1998 and re-elected in 1999.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. C.P. Radhakrishnan is the 17th person to hold the office of Vice President of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Radhakrishnan took oath as the 15th Vice President and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; 'seventeenth' refers to the number of the Vice-Presidential election held in 2025, not to the office-holder.
The annual licensing policy for opium poppy cultivation for crop year 2025-26 covers farmers in which three states?
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Correct answer: B — Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
The policy announced on 12 September 2025 covers farmers in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, with about 1.21 lakh farmers estimated to be eligible.
Under the opium licensing policy for 2025-26, cultivators with an average morphine yield between 3.0 and 4.2 kg per hectare become eligible for which method of cultivation?
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Correct answer: C — Concentrate of Poppy Straw (CPS) method with unlanced poppy straw
Cultivators with morphine yields between 3.0 and 4.2 kg per hectare can cultivate unlanced poppy straw under the Concentrate of Poppy Straw (CPS) method, with a five-year licence; those at 4.2 kg or above are retained as opium gum cultivators.
After the September 2025 expansion, at how many airports is the Fast Track Immigration–Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP) operational?
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Correct answer: B — 13
With Lucknow, Thiruvananthapuram, Trichy, Kozhikode and Amritsar added on 11 September 2025, Amit Shah said FTI-TTP is operational at a total of 13 airports.
Which of the following airports was NOT among the five added to FTI-TTP on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jaipur
The five airports added were Lucknow, Thiruvananthapuram, Trichy, Kozhikode and Amritsar.
Which two upcoming airports does the Home Ministry plan to integrate with FTI-TTP?
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Correct answer: A — Navi Mumbai and Jewar
Amit Shah said the Ministry of Home Affairs has planned to integrate the programme with the upcoming Navi Mumbai and Jewar airports.
Under the ECI's polling station rationalisation reviewed in September 2025, no polling station should have more than how many electors?
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Correct answer: C — 1,200
The Commission reviewed rationalisation of polling stations to ensure that no polling station has over 1,200 electors.
The ECI's conference of Chief Electoral Officers on 10 September 2025 assessed preparedness for which exercise?
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Correct answer: B — Nationwide Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls
The Commission assessed the preparedness of the offices of CEOs of all States/UTs for the nationwide SIR exercise.
Where was the ECI's conference of Chief Electoral Officers held on 10 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — India International Institute for Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi
The third CEOs' conference of the year was held at IIIDEM in New Delhi.
The CCS rules released on 10 September 2025 enable Central Government employees to choose between NPS and which scheme?
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Correct answer: C — Unified Pension Scheme (UPS)
The CCS (Implementation of the Unified Pension Scheme under the National Pension System) Rules, 2025 let employees choose between NPS and the newly introduced UPS.
At which event were the CCS (Implementation of UPS under NPS) Rules, 2025 released?
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Correct answer: A — 14th Pension Adalat at Vigyan Bhawan
Jitendra Singh released the rules during the 14th Pension Adalat held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, on 10 September 2025.
How many votes did C.P. Radhakrishnan secure in the Vice-Presidential election of 9 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 452
Returning Officer P.C. Mody declared Radhakrishnan elected with 452 first-preference votes; B. Sudershan Reddy received 300.
Who was the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential election of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha
The ECI said the Returning Officer was the Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha; P.C. Mody announced the result.
Out of 781 eligible electors in the Vice-Presidential election of September 2025, how many cast their votes?
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Correct answer: B — 767
The ECI said 767 of the 781 eligible electors voted and 15 ballot papers were declared invalid, leaving 752 valid votes.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election of 2025: 1. With 15 ballots declared invalid, the majority of first-preference votes required to win was 377. 2. The certificate of election was signed by the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners on 9 September 2025, the day of the poll. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. With 752 valid votes the required majority was 377, but the ECI said the certificate of election was signed on 10 September 2025, the day after the poll.
Under IEPFA's September 2025 proposal for simplified documentation, what is the claim value limit for demat securities?
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Correct answer: D — Up to ₹15 lakh
The proposals would apply to claims up to ₹5 lakh (physical securities), ₹15 lakh (demat securities) and dividends up to ₹10,000.
The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) functions under which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
IEPFA was established on 7 September 2016 under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
In which year was the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) established?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
IEPFA was established on 7 September 2016 under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Advocates Amitabh Kumar Rai and Rajiv Lochan Shukla were appointed Judges of which High Court in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Allahabad High Court
The Law Ministry notified their appointment as Judges of the Allahabad High Court on 6 September 2025.
In September 2025, the Kuki-Zo Council decided to open which National Highway in Manipur for free movement of commuters and essential goods?
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Correct answer: B — NH-02
The Kuki-Zo Council decided to open National Highway-02 for free movement of commuters and essential goods.
The tripartite Suspension of Operations (SoO) agreement signed on 4 September 2025 involved the MHA, the Government of Manipur and which groups?
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Correct answer: C — Kuki National Organisation and United People's Front
The tripartite meeting among the MHA, Government of Manipur, KNO and UPF concluded with the signing of the SoO agreement.
For what period is the renegotiated Suspension of Operations agreement signed on 4 September 2025 effective?
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Correct answer: D — One year from signing
The SoO agreement on renegotiated ground rules is effective from the date of signing for a period of one year.
Consider the following statements about the Manipur developments of 4 September 2025: 1. The Kuki-Zo Council committed to cooperate with security forces deployed by the Government of India along NH-02. 2. The SoO agreement was signed on the same ground rules as before, without renegotiation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The KZC committed to cooperate with central security forces along NH-02. The SoO agreement was signed on renegotiated terms and conditions (ground rules), so statement 2 is wrong.
Fast-track mergers, whose scope was widened by the MCA in September 2025, are governed by which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
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Correct answer: C — Section 233
Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for fast-track mergers through Central Government approval.
Under Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, the Central Government's power to approve fast-track mergers is delegated to:
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Correct answer: A — Regional Directors
The release says fast-track mergers are approved by the Central Government, delegated to Regional Directors.
Consider the following statements about the September 2025 amendment widening fast-track mergers: 1. Before the amendment, Section 233 already allowed mergers between two or more small companies. 2. The amendment allows fast-track mergers of subsidiaries of the same holding company even where the transferor company is listed. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Section 233(1) already covered small companies and holding–wholly owned subsidiary mergers. The new class for fellow subsidiaries applies only where the transferor company is not listed, so statement 2 is wrong.
The Unified RERA Portal was launched on 4 September 2025 at the meeting of which body?
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Correct answer: A — Central Advisory Council under the RERA Act, 2016
Union Minister Manohar Lal launched the portal at the 5th meeting of the Central Advisory Council constituted under the RERA Act, 2016.
In which year was the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, under which the Unified RERA Portal's Central Advisory Council is constituted, enacted?
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Correct answer: B — 2016
The Central Advisory Council is constituted under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016.
On which date was the Union Public Service Commission established, according to the UPSC centenary announcement of September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 1926
UPSC Chairman Dr. Ajay Kumar recalled that UPSC was established on 1 October 1926.
UPSC's 'Pratibha Setu' portal is meant for:
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Correct answer: B — Candidates who reached the interview stage but did not make the final list
Through Pratibha Setu, candidates who reached the interview stage but could not make the final list get recruitment opportunities in other organisations.
Consider the following statements about UPSC's centenary plans announced in September 2025: 1. The centenary year runs from 1 October 2025 to 1 October 2026. 2. The proposed Centre of Excellence will be a repository of best practices of UPSC only, excluding State PSCs. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The centenary year runs from 1 October 2025 to 1 October 2026. The proposed CoE will be a repository of best practices of both UPSC and the State PSCs, so statement 2 is wrong.
The country's first Khelo India Water Sports Festival, mentioned in Mann Ki Baat on 31 August 2025, was held at:
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Correct answer: B — Dal Lake, Srinagar
The Prime Minister said the first Khelo India Water Sports Festival was held at Dal Lake in Srinagar, with more than 800 athletes.
The 'Pratibha Setu' portal, highlighted in the 125th Mann Ki Baat, contains data of:
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Correct answer: B — Candidates who cleared all stages of UPSC exams but did not make the final merit list
Pratibha Setu holds a databank of over ten thousand candidates who cleared all UPSC exam stages but were not in the final merit list, so private companies can employ them.
Consider the following statements based on the 125th Mann Ki Baat (31 August 2025): 1. Madhya Pradesh won the maximum number of medals at the first Khelo India Water Sports Festival. 2. 'Solar Didi' Devki ji, praised by the PM, is from Muzaffarpur district of Bihar. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The PM congratulated Madhya Pradesh for the most medals (followed by Haryana and Odisha) and praised Devki ji of Ratanpura village, Muzaffarpur, as 'Solar Didi'.
According to the ECI's Bihar SIR bulletin of 31 August 2025, the draft electoral roll contained about how many electors?
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Correct answer: D — 7.24 crore
The bulletin refers to claims and objections on the draft roll of 7.24 crore electors.
During the Bihar SIR, a claim for inclusion of a name in the draft roll and an objection to an inclusion are filed respectively in:
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Correct answer: C — Form 6 and Form 7
The ECI bulletin refers to Claims in Form 6 and Objections in Form 7.
For which of the following did the MHA constitute Inter-Ministerial Central Teams on 31 August 2025? 1. Himachal Pradesh 2. Uttarakhand 3. Punjab 4. Jammu & Kashmir Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2, 3 and 4
IMCTs were constituted, one each, for Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab and the UT of Jammu & Kashmir.
The Inter-Ministerial Central Teams constituted by the MHA on 31 August 2025 are each led by:
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Correct answer: B — A Joint Secretary-level officer of MHA/NDMA
The Central Teams are led by a senior officer of Joint Secretary level in MHA/NDMA.
Consider the following statements about the Central Teams announced by the MHA on 31 August 2025: 1. The teams include officers from the Department of Expenditure and the Ministry of Jal Shakti. 2. An IMCT and a Multi-Sectoral Team had already visited Himachal Pradesh before this announcement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The teams have officers from Expenditure, Agriculture, Jal Shakti, Power, Road Transport and Highways and Rural Development, and the release notes an IMCT and a Multi-Sectoral Team had already visited Himachal Pradesh.
As per NeGD's announcement of 31 August 2025, which State offers the highest number of e-Government services on DigiLocker/e-District?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
Maharashtra leads with 254 services, followed by Delhi (123), Karnataka (113), Assam (102) and Uttar Pradesh (86).
Consider the following statements about NeGD's milestone announced on 31 August 2025: 1. The services are available in all 36 States and Union Territories. 2. NeGD functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the National e-Governance Division functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
The '112 Janrakshak' project under Dial 112, inaugurated by Amit Shah on 31 August 2025, belongs to which State?
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Correct answer: A — Gujarat
Amit Shah inaugurated the '112 Janrakshak' projects in Ahmedabad, launching a fleet of Dial 112 police vehicles in Gujarat.
The National Conference of Chairpersons of SC/ST Welfare Committees of Parliament and State Legislatures, which concluded on 30 August 2025, was held in:
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Correct answer: A — Bhubaneswar
The two-day conference concluded in Bhubaneswar, with Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla addressing the valedictory session.
Consider the following statements about the conference on SC/ST welfare committees that concluded on 30 August 2025: 1. Speaker Om Birla urged every State Assembly to constitute a dedicated Committee on the Welfare of SCs and STs. 2. The 'Bhubaneswar Agenda 2025' was described as a roadmap for an equitable and inclusive society by 2047. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Lok Sabha Secretariat release.