Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 18 August 2025, replaces which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Ports Act, 1908
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025 is designed to replace the Indian Ports Act, 1908, ending more than a century of colonial-era regulation.
Which statutory consultative body does the Indian Ports Bill, 2025 establish to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States?
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Correct answer: C — Maritime State Development Council
The Bill establishes the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) as a statutory consultative body to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States; it will prepare a National Perspective Plan.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Ports Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates compliance with international conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management. 2. It creates Dispute Resolution Committees for sector-specific redressal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the legislation mandates compliance with conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management and creates Dispute Resolution Committees for timely sector-specific redressal.
In August 2025, the DRI seized 119.4 kg of Alprazolam at a clandestine manufacturing facility in which district?
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Correct answer: A — Anakapalli, Andhra Pradesh
DRI officers seized 119.4 kg of Alprazolam worth about ₹23.88 crore at a clandestine facility in Atchuthapuram, Anakapalli District, Andhra Pradesh.
From which date are the Uttarakhand Madrasa Education Board Act, 2016 and the 2019 madrasa recognition rules to stand repealed under the Bill approved by the State Cabinet in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 1 July 2026
1 July 2026, under the Uttarakhand Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025.
Once enacted, the Uttarakhand Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025 will permit the study of which languages in recognised minority educational institutions?
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Correct answer: B — Gurmukhi and Pali
Gurmukhi and Pali, as stated in the Cabinet decision of 17 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Uttarakhand Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025: 1. It extends minority educational institution status to Sikhs, Jains, Christians, Buddhists and Parsis, besides Muslims. 2. The Cabinet decided to introduce it in the Assembly session beginning on 19 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Earlier, minority educational institution status in Uttarakhand applied only to the Muslim community.
Which State recorded the highest disposal rate of consumer cases in July 2025, at 277%?
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Correct answer: D — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu recorded 277%, followed by Rajasthan at 214% and Telangana at 158%; the NCDRC itself achieved 122%.
e-Jagriti, the unified consumer grievance redressal platform, was launched on which date?
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Correct answer: A — 1 January 2025
The Department of Consumer Affairs launched e-Jagriti on 1 January 2025 as a next-generation unified digital platform for consumer grievance redressal.
Consider the following statements about consumer case disposal and e-Jagriti as reported in August 2025: 1. A disposal rate above 100% means more cases were resolved than were filed in the period. 2. e-Jagriti has been made operational only at the NCDRC so far, not in State commissions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a disposal rate of over 100% indicates that the number of cases resolved exceeded the number filed. Statement 2 is incorrect: e-Jagriti is operational at the NCDRC and across all 36 States and Union Territories.
C.P. Radhakrishnan, named the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025, was serving as the Governor of which State at the time?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
Amit Shah congratulated Governor of Maharashtra C.P. Radhakrishnan on being nominated as the NDA's candidate for the Vice-Presidential election.
Which body's decision did Amit Shah credit for the nomination of C.P. Radhakrishnan as the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate?
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Correct answer: A — The party Parliamentary Board
Amit Shah expressed gratitude to Prime Minister Narendra Modi and all members of the party Parliamentary Board for this decision.
Consider the following statements about the reactions to C.P. Radhakrishnan's nomination as NDA Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025: 1. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive grassroots work in Kerala. 2. Amit Shah said Radhakrishnan's experience would enhance the prestige of the Upper House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive work at the grassroots in Tamil Nadu.
What was the code name of the DRI operation that busted a clandestine mephedrone factory in Bhopal in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Operation Crystal Break
The DRI busted the clandestine mephedrone manufacturing facility in Bhopal in a coordinated operation code-named 'Operation Crystal Break'.
How much mephedrone (in liquid form) did the DRI seize at the Bhopal facility on 16 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 61.20 kg
The search on 16 August 2025 led to the recovery and seizure of 61.20 kg of mephedrone in liquid form valued at ₹92 crore.
Consider the following statements about the DRI's Bhopal mephedrone case of August 2025: 1. Mephedrone is a psychotropic substance under the NDPS Act, 1985. 2. It was the first clandestine mephedrone factory dismantled by the DRI in the past year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: mephedrone is listed as a psychotropic substance under the NDPS Act, 1985. Statement 2 is incorrect: this was the sixth clandestine mephedrone factory dismantled by the DRI in the past one year.
Following the demise of La. Ganesan in August 2025, which Governor was asked to discharge the functions of the Governor of Nagaland in addition to his own duties?
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Correct answer: B — Governor of Manipur
The President appointed Ajay Kumar Bhalla, Governor of Manipur, to discharge the functions of the Governor of Nagaland in addition to his own duties.
The Independence Day address delivered by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 15 August 2025 was his which address from the Red Fort?
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Correct answer: D — 12th
PIB noted that the address on the 79th Independence Day marked Prime Minister Modi's 12th Independence Day address from the Red Fort.
Under the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana announced on 15 August 2025, how much will newly employed youth receive?
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
Under the ₹1 lakh crore PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, newly employed youth will receive ₹15,000; the scheme aims to benefit 3 crore young Indians.
In his 2025 Independence Day address, the Prime Minister linked 'Samudra Manthan' to the launch of which mission?
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Correct answer: C — National Deepwater Exploration Mission
Pointing to the large share of the budget spent on importing petrol, diesel and gas, the Prime Minister announced the launch of the National Deepwater Exploration Mission, described as 'Samudra Manthan'.
Consider the following statements about announcements in the Prime Minister's Independence Day address of 2025: 1. Work is underway on 10 new nuclear reactors as part of a plan to raise nuclear power capacity over tenfold by 2047. 2. Next-generation GST reforms were announced to be unveiled on Republic Day 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Prime Minister said work is underway on 10 new nuclear reactors to increase nuclear power capacity by over ten times by 2047. Statement 2 is incorrect: next-generation GST reforms were to be unveiled on Diwali, described as a Diwali gift.
Consider the following statements about the Prime Minister's Independence Day address of 2025: 1. A High-Power Demography Mission was announced to address demographic imbalance caused by infiltration and illegal migration in border areas. 2. The Prime Minister said India would roll out its first Made in India semiconductor chip by the end of the year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Prime Minister announced a High-Power Demography Mission to address demographic imbalance due to infiltration and illegal migration in border areas, and said the first Made in India chip would be rolled out by the end of the year.
What GDP growth rate for the last financial year did President Droupadi Murmu cite in her address on the eve of the 79th Independence Day?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
In her address, the President noted GDP growth of 6.5% in the last financial year and said India was the fastest-growing major economy.
Consider the following statements about President Droupadi Murmu's address on the eve of the 79th Independence Day: 1. She described justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the four pillars of the Constitution. 2. She referred to Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas observed on 14 August. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The President described justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the four pillars of the Constitution and referred to Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas.
Ajit Bhagwanrao Kadethankar, Sushil Manohar Ghodeswar and Aarti Arun Sathe were appointed Additional Judges of which High Court in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bombay High Court
The three were appointed Additional Judges of the Bombay High Court for a period of two years.
Consider the following statements about the Intellectual Property Office building inaugurated in Dwarka, New Delhi, on 13 August 2025: 1. It supports India's role as an International Searching Authority and International Preliminary Examining Authority under the Patent Cooperation Treaty. 2. The expansion project was undertaken by the National Buildings Construction Corporation (NBCC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The expansion, approved in 2018, was completed in 2025 at about ₹88 crore.
The expanded ISA building of the Intellectual Property Office inaugurated on 13 August 2025 can accommodate over how many personnel?
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Correct answer: B — 700
700; the old IPO building could accommodate 200.
Who admitted the motion for removal of Justice Yashwant Varma and constituted an inquiry committee on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla
Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla admitted the motion signed by 146 MPs and constituted a three-member inquiry committee.
Under which law was the three-member committee to probe the charges against Justice Yashwant Varma constituted?
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Correct answer: C — Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
The Speaker constituted the committee under Section 3(2) of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
Consider the following statements about the inquiry committee constituted in the Justice Yashwant Varma case in August 2025: 1. It includes a sitting judge of the Supreme Court. 2. It was constituted by the Chief Justice of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the committee includes Supreme Court judge Justice Aravind Kumar. Statement 2 is incorrect: the committee was constituted by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla after admitting the removal motion.
Who among the following is NOT a member of the inquiry committee constituted in the Justice Yashwant Varma case?
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Correct answer: D — Justice Sanjiv Khanna
The committee comprises Justice Aravind Kumar of the Supreme Court, Madras High Court Chief Justice Manindra Mohan Shrivastava and senior advocate B.V. Acharya; Sanjiv Khanna is not a member.
Under the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament in August 2025, which body grants recognition to sports bodies?
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Correct answer: C — National Sports Board
The bill sets up a National Sports Board to grant recognition to sports bodies; the National Sports Tribunal is a separate institution created by the bill.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025: 1. Executive committees of sports bodies can have up to 15 members, including at least four women. 2. The Lok Sabha passed the bill before the Rajya Sabha did. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The bill provides for executive committees of up to 15 members with at least two outstanding sportspersons and four women, and the Lok Sabha passed it on 11 August before the Rajya Sabha approved it on 12 August 2025.
The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed alongside the sports governance bill reinforces the autonomy of which body?
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Correct answer: A — National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA)
The anti-doping amendment reinforces the autonomy of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), as required by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
Which of the following is NOT among the bodies provided for in the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Sports Ombudsman Council
The bill provides for a National Olympic Committee, a National Paralympic Committee, national and regional federations, a National Sports Board and a National Sports Tribunal; it does not create a 'National Sports Ombudsman Council'.
On which date was the Public Service Commission, the predecessor of UPSC, first set up?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October 1926
The Public Service Commission was first set up on 1 October 1926; UPSC will mark its centenary from 1 October 2025 to 1 October 2026.
Consider the following statements about the history of the UPSC: 1. The first Public Service Commission was set up on the recommendations of the Lee Commission. 2. The commission was renamed the Union Public Service Commission on 26 January 1950. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 under the Government of India Act, 1919 on the Lee Commission's recommendations, and it was renamed UPSC on 26 January 1950.
Which Supreme Court bench passed the order of 11 August 2025 directing that stray dogs in Delhi-NCR be moved to shelters?
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Correct answer: B — Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan
The order in the suo motu case 'In Re: City Hounded by Strays, Kids Pay Price' was passed by a bench of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan.
In its order of 11 August 2025, the Supreme Court asked authorities to start by creating shelters for about how many stray dogs?
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Correct answer: C — 5,000
The court directed the authorities to begin by creating shelters for about 5,000 dogs and to report within eight weeks.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's stray dogs order of 11 August 2025: 1. The court directed that dogs picked up should not be released back onto the streets. 2. The directions applied only to the New Delhi Municipal Council area. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the court directed that the stray dogs picked up must not be released back. Statement 2 is incorrect: the directions covered the NCT of Delhi, Noida, Ghaziabad, Gurugram and Faridabad.
As per the Supreme Court's order of 11 August 2025, dogs in shelters are to be sterilised, dewormed and immunised in line with which rules?
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Correct answer: D — Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023
The court directed that the dogs be sterilised, dewormed and immunised as per the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023.
Who headed the Select Committee whose recommendations were incorporated in the Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Baijayant Panda
The revised Income-Tax Bill incorporated most of the recommendations of the Select Committee headed by Baijayant Panda.
The Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha in August 2025 seeks to replace which law?
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Correct answer: B — Income-Tax Act, 1961
The revised Income-Tax Bill aims to replace the six-decade-old Income-Tax Act, 1961.
Consider the following statements about the tax bills passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025: 1. Both bills were passed by voice vote without debate. 2. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Old Pension Scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: both bills were passed by voice vote without any debate amid Opposition protests. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme.
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025 provides tax exemptions to subscribers of which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Unified Pension Scheme
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 aims to provide tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme and also changes block assessment for income tax search cases.
The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament on 11 August 2025 replaces the Merchant Shipping Act of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1958
The bill replaces the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which had 561 sections.
Consider the following statements about the Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. The Act it replaces had 561 sections. 2. The new Bill is structured into 16 parts and 325 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 had 561 sections, and the new Bill offers a streamlined framework of 16 parts and 325 clauses.
The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 aligns India's domestic laws with the conventions of which international body?
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Correct answer: D — International Maritime Organisation
The bill aims to align domestic laws with international best practices and International Maritime Organisation (IMO) conventions.
The Cooperative Election Authority, which held its first consultative meeting with states on 11 August 2025, was notified under which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002
The CEA was notified on 11 March 2024 under Section 45 of the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, as amended in 2023.
Who chaired the first consultative meeting of the Cooperative Election Authority with State Cooperative Election Authorities on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Devendra Kumar Singh
The meeting was chaired by Devendra Kumar Singh, Chairperson of the Cooperative Election Authority.
Political parties are registered with the Election Commission of India under which provision?
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Correct answer: C — Section 29A of the RP Act, 1951
Political parties, including RUPPs, are registered with the ECI under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
How many registered unrecognised political parties did the ECI delist in the first round on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 334
In the first round, the ECI delisted 334 RUPPs on 9 August 2025, reducing listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520; 476 more were identified in the second round.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's RUPP delisting exercise of August 2025: 1. Registration guidelines provide for delisting a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years. 2. After the first round, the number of listed RUPPs rose to 2,854. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years is taken off the list. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first round reduced listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520.
How many Type-VII multi-storey flats for MPs did PM Modi inaugurate at Baba Kharak Singh Marg on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 184
PM Modi inaugurated 184 newly constructed Type-VII multi-storey flats for Members of Parliament at BKS Marg, New Delhi.
The four towers of the MPs' housing complex inaugurated at BKS Marg in August 2025 are named after rivers. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Narmada
The four towers are named Kosi, Krishna, Godavari and Hooghly; there is no tower named Narmada.
What milestone did UIDAI mark for Aadhaar Face Authentication on 10 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 200 crore transactions
UIDAI celebrated 200 crore Aadhaar Face Authentication transactions on 10 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about Aadhaar Face Authentication: 1. It reached 100 crore transactions in January 2025. 2. The rise from 100 crore to 200 crore transactions took more than a year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Face Authentication transactions doubled to 100 crore in January 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the count doubled from 100 crore to 200 crore in less than six months.
Who was the CEO of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) when Aadhaar Face Authentication crossed 200 crore transactions in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhuvnesh Kumar
Bhuvnesh Kumar.
How many Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) did the Election Commission delist on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 334
The ECI delisted 334 RUPPs that were found non-compliant.
Before the August 2025 delisting, how many State Parties were registered with the Election Commission of India?
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Correct answer: B — 67
The ECI said there were 6 National Parties, 67 State Parties and 2,854 RUPPs registered with it.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's delisting of RUPPs in August 2025: 1. Delisted parties lose benefits under Sections 29B and 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. A party aggrieved by the order can appeal to the Commission within 30 days. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Delisted parties cannot claim benefits under Sections 29B and 29C of the RP Act, 1951, and an aggrieved party may appeal to the Commission within 30 days of the order.
Which department notified the scheme for the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2026 in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) issued the scheme guidelines for the 23rd NAeG 2026.
How many awards will be conferred under the National Awards for e-Governance 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 16
A total of 16 awards, 10 Gold and 6 Silver, will be conferred across seven categories under NAeG 2026.
What is the central outlay for the four new components of Special Development Packages for Assam and Tripura approved on 8 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,250 crore
The Centre will provide ₹4,250 crore under the Central Sector Scheme of SDPs: ₹4,000 crore for Assam and ₹250 crore for Tripura.
The ₹250-crore Tripura component of the Special Development Packages approved in August 2025 follows a Memorandum of Settlement with which groups?
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Correct answer: C — NLFT and ATTF
The ₹250 crore is for development of tribals of Tripura under the MoS signed with the NLFT and ATTF (National Liberation Front of Twipra and All Tripura Tiger Force).
Consider the following statements about the Special Development Packages components approved in August 2025: 1. The Assam government will contribute ₹3,000 crore from its own resources. 2. The ₹500-crore component for the NCHAC area relates to a settlement with the Dimasa groups DNLA/DPSC. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Of the ₹7,250 crore total, ₹3,000 crore will be contributed by the Assam government, and ₹500 crore is for the NCHAC area inhabited by DNLA/DPSC groups.
Consider the following statements about the Memoranda of Settlement behind the new SDP components: 1. The settlement with the ULFA groups was signed in 2022. 2. The settlement with the NLFT/ATTF was signed in 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the ULFA settlement was signed in 2023 (it was the Adivasi groups' settlement that was signed in 2022). Statement 2 is correct: the NLFT/ATTF settlement was signed in 2024.
What Gross Merchandise Value did the Government e Marketplace (GeM) record in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹5.4 lakh crore
GeM recorded ₹5.4 lakh crore in Gross Merchandise Value in FY 2024-25.
Consider the following statements about GeM's 9th Foundation Day in August 2025: 1. The celebration was held on the theme 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. 2. Caution money for sellers was doubled to curb non-performance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the theme was 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. Statement 2 is incorrect: caution money for sellers was eliminated, not doubled.
The Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025, which cleared Parliament on 7 August 2025, replaces which part of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958?
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Correct answer: D — Part XIV
The Bill replaces Part XIV of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 with new legislation aligned with global cabotage norms.
What coastal cargo target by 2030 did the Shipping Minister link to the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 230 million metric tonnes
Sarbananda Sonowal said the legislation is central to increasing India's coastal cargo share to 230 million metric tonnes by 2030.
Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates the formulation of a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan. 2. It provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Bill mandates a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan and provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping with real-time, regularly updated data.
Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha before the Lok Sabha. 2. It comprises six chapters and 42 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill first, on 3 April 2025, and the Rajya Sabha passed it on 7 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the Bill has six chapters and 42 clauses.
On which date was the poll, if necessary, scheduled for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 9 September 2025
The ECI fixed 9 September 2025 as the date on which a poll shall, if necessary, be taken.
Who was appointed Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha
Shri P.C. Mody, Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha, was appointed the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025.
What security deposit must each candidate make for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
Every candidate has to deposit a sum of ₹15,000 (Rupees Fifteen Thousand only).
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025 schedule: 1. The last date for withdrawal of candidatures was 25 August 2025. 2. Nomination papers had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's entry in the electoral roll of the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. 25 August 2025 was fixed as the last date for withdrawal, and each nomination paper had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's electoral roll entry for the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered.
Kartavya Bhavan-3, inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 6 August 2025, is located on which road in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: B — Kartavya Path
The Prime Minister addressed the inauguration programme of Kartavya Bhavan-3 at Kartavya Path, New Delhi.
According to the Prime Minister at the Kartavya Bhavan inauguration, about how much does the government spend every year on rent for scattered ministry offices?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1,500 crore
The Prime Minister said the annual expenditure on rent for ministries operating from rented buildings is about ₹1,500 crore.
At the inauguration of Kartavya Bhavan-3 on 6 August 2025, the Prime Minister said ministries were operating from about how many different locations across Delhi?
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Correct answer: C — 50
50 locations, many in rented buildings, costing about ₹1,500 crore a year in rent.
The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 6 August 2025, repeals an Act of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1925
The Bill repeals the century-old Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925.
Which internationally accepted set of maritime rules does the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 adopt?
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Correct answer: D — Hague-Visby Rules
The Bill adopts the Hague-Visby Rules, a globally accepted maritime standard also followed by countries like the United Kingdom.
Consider the following statements about the maritime bills of 6 August 2025: 1. The Lok Sabha passed the Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 on the same day the Rajya Sabha passed the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025. 2. The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha by Minister of State Shantanu Thakur. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. On 6 August 2025 the Lok Sabha cleared the Merchant Shipping Bill and the Rajya Sabha passed the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, which was introduced by MoS Shantanu Thakur.
As per the government's reply of August 2025, how many infrastructure projects have been evaluated through the Network Planning Group mechanism under PM GatiShakti?
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Correct answer: C — 293
So far, 293 infrastructure projects amounting to ₹13.59 lakh crore have been evaluated through the NPG mechanism.
Consider the following statements about the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, as stated in August 2025: 1. It has a specific and separate fund allocation in the Union Budget. 2. 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on the platform. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan has no specific or separate fund allocation. Statement 2 is correct: 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on PMGS NMP.