Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which Article of the Constitution entrusts Panchayats with preparing plans for economic development and social justice, the basis of the People's Plan Campaign?
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Correct answer: D — Article 243G
PIB (MoPR): Article 243G recognises Panchayats as institutions of local self-government and entrusts them with the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule.
Consider the following statements about the People's Plan Campaign (PPC): 1. Panchayat Development Plans cover the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 2. PPC 2025–26, launched on 2 October 2025, prepares Panchayat Development Plans for the financial year 2025–26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (MoPR): PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule. PPC 2025–26 was launched on 2 October 2025 to prepare PDPs for the financial year 2026–27, not 2025–26.
Before UIDAI's October 2025 waiver, what fee was charged per Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) for a child outside the free age windows?
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Correct answer: C — ₹125
PIB (MeitY/UIDAI): the first and second MBUs were free if done at ages 5–7 and 15–17; thereafter a prescribed fee of ₹125 per MBU was charged. The waiver makes MBU effectively free for all children aged 5–17.
Consider the following statements about Aadhaar for children: 1. Fingerprints and iris biometrics are not captured for Aadhaar enrolment of children below five years of age. 2. UIDAI's waiver of MBU charges, effective 1 October 2025, will remain in force for two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: fingerprints and iris are not captured below age five because they are not mature. The MBU charge waiver took effect on 1 October 2025 and is in force for one year, not two.
Bastar Dussehra, attended by Amit Shah at Jagdalpur on 4 October 2025, is a festival lasting how many days?
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Correct answer: D — 75 days
PIB (MHA): Amit Shah described the 75-day-long Bastar Dussehra as significant not only for the tribal community and Chhattisgarh but for the whole country.
The Muria Darbar, a tradition of public dialogue linked to Bastar Dussehra, has been held since which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1874
PIB (MHA): Amit Shah said the Muria Darbar, with its active participation, judicial system and tradition of public dialogue since 1874, is no less than a global heritage.
Consider the following statements about the Bastar Dussehra event of 4 October 2025: 1. The 10th instalment of Chhattisgarh's Mahtari Vandan Yojana was released at the event. 2. Amit Shah reiterated 31 March 2026 as the date by which Naxalism will be completely eradicated. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB (MHA): it was the 20th (not 10th) instalment of the Mahtari Vandan Yojana — ₹607 crore to 70 lakh mothers. Shah firmly stated that 31 March 2026 is the set date by which Naxalism will be completely eradicated.
What period of authorisation has TRAI recommended for digital radio broadcasting by private broadcasters (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 15 years
PIB (TRAI): the period of authorisation for digital radio broadcasting should be 15 years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's October 2025 recommendations on digital radio: 1. New broadcasters should start digital radio in simulcast mode, allowing one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned frequency. 2. Frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction under Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (TRAI): digital radio should commence in simulcast mode (one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned spot frequency), and frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction in accordance with Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
TRAI has recommended an authorisation fee of what share of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) for digital radio in 'A+' and 'A' category cities?
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Correct answer: A — 4%
PIB (TRAI): authorisation fee is 4% of AGR for cities of category 'A+', 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D'; for 'Others' (border/hilly areas of NE, J&K, Ladakh and island territories) and 'E' category, 2% of AGR for the first 3 years.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Drishti IAS in October 2025 for misleading UPSC CSE 2022 results advertisements?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5 lakh
PIB (Department of Consumer Affairs): CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹5 lakh on Drishti IAS (VDK Eduventures Pvt. Ltd.) for misleading ads claiming '216+ selections in UPSC CSE 2022'.
Under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is 'misleading advertisement' defined, as cited by the CCPA in the Drishti IAS case?
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Correct answer: B — Section 2(28)
PIB: concealing the courses taken by successful candidates was held to be a misleading advertisement under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019; Section 2(9) (consumer rights) was cited for the right to make an informed choice.
How many eligible Village Councils in Mizoram benefit from the XV Finance Commission untied grants released in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 808
PIB (MoPR): the second instalment of ₹14.40 crore for 2025–26 plus a withheld ₹0.1209 crore for 2023–24 will benefit all 808 eligible Village Councils in Mizoram.
Consider the following statements about XV Finance Commission grants to rural local bodies: 1. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation recommend the release, and the Ministry of Finance releases the grants in two instalments in a financial year. 2. Untied grants can be used for location-specific felt needs under the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (MoPR): MoPR and the Ministry of Jal Shakti (DDWS) recommend XV FC grants for RLBs/PRIs, which the Ministry of Finance releases in two instalments a year; untied grants are for location-specific felt needs under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule.
As clarified by the CCPA in October 2025 after GST 2.0 complaints, at what GST rate does domestic LPG continue to be taxed?
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Correct answer: D — 5%
CCPA clarified that domestic LPG continues at 5% GST, with no change under the reforms.
After the hike approved on 1 October 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees?
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Correct answer: C — 58%
The 3% increase takes DA from 55% to 58% of basic pay.
From which date is the DA/DR increase approved by the Cabinet on 1 October 2025 effective?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2025
The additional instalment of DA and DR is effective from 1 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the DA hike approved in October 2025: 1. It will benefit about 68.72 lakh Central Government employees. 2. The increase follows a formula based on the recommendations of the 8th Central Pay Commission. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: 68.72 lakh is the number of pensioners (employees are 49.19 lakh), and the formula is based on the 7th Central Pay Commission.
How much additional tax devolution did the Union Government release to States on 1 October 2025 as an advance instalment?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,01,603 crore
The Centre released ₹1,01,603 crore on 1 October 2025, in addition to the regular instalment due on 10 October.
Which State received the largest share of the advance tax devolution released on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received the largest share at ₹18,227 crore.
The Union Cabinet on 1 October 2025 approved nationwide celebrations to mark how many years of the national song 'Vande Mataram'?
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Correct answer: A — 150 years
The Cabinet approved nationwide celebrations to commemorate 150 years of 'Vande Mataram'.
About how many electors are on Bihar's final electoral roll published on 30 September 2025 after the Special Intensive Revision?
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Correct answer: A — 7.42 crore
The final roll published on 30 September 2025 has about 7.42 crore electors.
About how many electors were left out of Bihar's draft electoral roll of 1 August 2025 during the Special Intensive Revision?
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Correct answer: C — 65 lakh
About 65 lakh electors were removed from the draft list; 3.66 lakh more were removed later and 21.53 lakh added.
How many Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) took part in Bihar's Special Intensive Revision of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 243
The exercise involved 243 EROs (one per assembly constituency), 2,976 AEROs and DEOs of all 38 districts.
Consider the following statements about Bihar's Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of 2025: 1. The draft electoral roll was published on 1 September 2025. 2. About 21.53 lakh eligible electors were added to the draft list through Form 6. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the draft roll was published on 1 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct.
Vijay Kumar Malhotra, who died in September 2025, defeated which leader in the 1999 Lok Sabha election from Delhi?
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Correct answer: C — Manmohan Singh
Malhotra defeated Manmohan Singh in the 1999 Lok Sabha election; Singh later became Prime Minister in 2004.
Vijay Kumar Malhotra was the first president of which party unit?
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Correct answer: A — BJP's Delhi unit
Malhotra was the first president of the BJP's Delhi unit.
Consider the following statements about Vijay Kumar Malhotra: 1. He served as Chief Minister of Delhi after the 1993 Assembly election. 2. He was a three-term Lok Sabha MP. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: he was Chief Metropolitan Councillor of Delhi in 1967 (before statehood), not Chief Minister, and he was a five-term Lok Sabha MP.
Through which mechanism did the Home Ministry say in September 2025 that it would continue dialogue with the Apex Body Leh and the Kargil Democratic Alliance?
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Correct answer: D — High Powered Committee (HPC) on Ladakh
The MHA said it would welcome talks with ABL and KDA through the High Powered Committee on Ladakh or any such platform.
Recruitment for how many government posts has begun in the Union Territory of Ladakh, according to the Home Ministry's statement of 29 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 1,800
The MHA said recruitment for 1,800 government posts has commenced in Ladakh.
Consider the following statements about the Home Ministry's Ladakh statement of 29 September 2025: 1. The ministry said the High Powered Committee process had led to women's reservation in the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils. 2. The ministry said recruitment for 18,000 government posts had begun in Ladakh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: recruitment has begun for 1,800 posts.
In which city did UIDAI hold the fourth Aadhaar Samvaad on 29 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Hyderabad
The fourth Aadhaar Samvaad was held in Hyderabad; earlier editions were in Bengaluru, Mumbai and Delhi.
Which Aadhaar Day did the Aadhaar MyStamp unveiled by India Post in September 2025 commemorate?
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Correct answer: D — 16th
The Aadhaar MyStamp and special cover marked the 16th Aadhaar Day.
What was the theme of UIDAI's fourth Aadhaar Samvaad held in Hyderabad on 29 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Connect, Empower and Innovate
The Hyderabad edition's theme was 'Connect, Empower and Innovate'.
By what date did Union Home Minister Amit Shah say, at Bharat Manthan-2025 on 28 September 2025, that India will be free from Naxalism?
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Correct answer: B — 31 March 2026
Amit Shah said India will be free from Naxalism by 31 March 2026.
Operation Black Forest, cited by Amit Shah in September 2025, was carried out on which date?
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Correct answer: D — 23 May 2025
Amit Shah said a major Naxal camp was destroyed in Operation Black Forest on 23 May 2025, with 27 hardcore Naxalites killed.
Consider the following statements about Amit Shah's address at Bharat Manthan-2025 on 28 September 2025: 1. Amit Shah said Left-wing extremism spread mainly because of a lack of development. 2. Amit Shah said 27 hardcore Naxalites were killed in Operation Black Forest. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Amit Shah said those claiming lack of development caused Naxalism are misleading the country, and that Naxalism itself is the cause of under-development. Statement 2 is correct.
Which festival did PM Modi say in the 126th Mann Ki Baat (28 September 2025) the government is trying to get included in UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list?
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Correct answer: B — Chhath Mahaparva
The PM said the government is striving to include Chhath Mahaparva in UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list.
How many days did Lieutenant Commanders Dilna and Roopa take to complete the Navika Sagar Parikrama, as discussed in Mann Ki Baat on 28 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 238
They sailed about 47,500 km in 238 days, from Goa on 2 October 2024 to 29 May 2025.
The 126th Mann Ki Baat on 28 September 2025 coincided with the birth anniversary of which two personalities?
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Correct answer: A — Bhagat Singh and Lata Mangeshkar
PM Modi noted that 28 September is the birth anniversary of Shaheed Bhagat Singh and Lata Mangeshkar.
How many officers did the Election Commission decide in September 2025 to deploy as central observers for the Bihar election and bye-elections?
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Correct answer: A — 470
The ECI decided to deploy 470 officers: 320 IAS, 60 IPS and 90 from IRS/IRAS/ICAS and other services.
Under which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 does the Election Commission deploy observers?
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Correct answer: C — Section 20B
Observers are deployed under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951.
Consider the following pairs of assembly constituencies and states/UT where bye-elections were announced in 2025: 1. Ghatsila – Jharkhand 2. Nuapada – Odisha 3. Dampa – Manipur How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: D — Only two
Ghatsila (Jharkhand) and Nuapada (Odisha) are correct; Dampa is in Mizoram, not Manipur.
The 40-hour mediation training run by the Department of Financial Services and the Supreme Court's mediation committee in September 2025 was for presiding officers of which tribunals?
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Correct answer: D — Debts Recovery Tribunals
The programme (24–28 September 2025) trained presiding officers of Debts Recovery Tribunals and senior public sector bank executives.
Who heads the one-member Commission of Inquiry set up by the Tamil Nadu government into the Karur stampede of 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Retired judge Aruna Jagadeesan
Chief Minister M.K. Stalin constituted a one-member Commission of Inquiry headed by retired High Court judge Aruna Jagadeesan.
What was the final death toll of the Karur stampede at the TVK rally, reached on 29 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 41
At least 39 died on 27 September; the toll rose to 41 on 29 September when a woman under treatment died.
What ex-gratia did the Prime Minister announce from the PMNRF for the next of kin of each person who died in the Karur stampede?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2 lakh
The PM announced ₹2 lakh from the PMNRF per deceased and ₹50,000 for the injured; ₹10 lakh was the Tamil Nadu government's relief.
Consider the following statements about the Karur stampede of 27 September 2025: 1. The Tamil Nadu government announced ₹10 lakh for the family of each person who died. 2. The stampede took place in Karur's Velusamypuram during a rally of the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the State announced ₹10 lakh per deceased, and the stampede occurred at Velusamypuram during a TVK rally addressed by Vijay.
Under which law was Ladakh activist Sonam Wangchuk detained on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — National Security Act
Sonam Wangchuk was detained under the National Security Act on an order of the District Magistrate, Leh.
In which jail was Sonam Wangchuk lodged after his detention on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Jodhpur Central Jail
Sonam Wangchuk was moved to Jodhpur Central Jail in Rajasthan the same night.
Consider the following statements about Sonam Wangchuk's detention in September 2025: 1. The detention order was issued by the Union Home Secretary. 2. The detention came on the same day as the violence in Leh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the order was issued by the District Magistrate, Leh, and the detention on 26 September came two days after the violence of 24 September.
Under which law did the CCPA penalise FirstCry ₹2 lakh in September 2025 for misleading price representation?
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Correct answer: D — Consumer Protection Act, 2019
The order was passed under Sections 10, 20 and 21 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Under the ECI decision of 25 September 2025, which round of EVM/VVPAT counting can be taken up only after postal ballot counting is completed?
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Correct answer: B — The penultimate (second-last) round
The penultimate round of EVM/VVPAT counting will be taken up only after postal ballot counting is completed at that centre.
At what time does EVM counting start on counting day, according to the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — 8:30 AM
Postal ballot counting starts at 8:00 AM and EVM counting at 8:30 AM.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's postal ballot counting decision of September 2025: 1. The ECI described it as its 30th initiative in six months. 2. The ECI cited a fall in the number of postal ballots as the reason. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: postal ballots have increased substantially because of home voting for PwDs and voters aged 85+.
Under the XV Finance Commission, untied grants to rural local bodies can be used for subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Eleventh Schedule
Untied grants can be used for location-specific needs under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs.
Which state received the largest share of the XV Finance Commission untied grants released on 25 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received ₹1,548.38 crore, Bihar ₹801.01 crore and Himachal Pradesh ₹67.96 crore.
Under which Act was the Indian Statistical Institute declared an Institution of National Importance?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Statistical Institute Act, 1959
Parliament enacted the Indian Statistical Institute Act, 1959, declaring ISI an Institution of National Importance; a draft ISI Bill, 2025 was released on 25 September 2025.
Who imposed a curfew across Leh district after the violence of 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Lieutenant Governor Kavinder Gupta
Ladakh Lieutenant Governor Kavinder Gupta imposed a curfew across Leh district after four people were killed.
The protest in Leh that turned violent on 24 September 2025 was demanding statehood and inclusion of Ladakh under which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: A — Sixth Schedule
The protest sought statehood and Sixth Schedule status for Ladakh.
Who is the President of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT), launched on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Justice Sanjaya Kumar Mishra
Justice Sanjaya Kumar Mishra is the President of GSTAT.
Apart from the Principal Bench in New Delhi, how many State Benches will the GSTAT have?
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Correct answer: C — 31
GSTAT will function through a Principal Bench in New Delhi and 31 State Benches across 45 locations.
Consider the following statements about the composition of each GSTAT bench: 1. Each bench has two Judicial Members. 2. Each bench has only one Technical Member, drawn from the Centre. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: each bench has two Technical Members – one from the Centre and one from the State.
How many infrastructure projects did the PM review at the 49th PRAGATI meeting on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Eight
The PM reviewed eight projects spanning 15 States/UTs with investment of over ₹65,000 crore.
Which declaration was adopted at the 28th National Conference on e-Governance in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Visakhapatnam Declaration
The conference concluded in Visakhapatnam with the adoption of the 'Visakhapatnam Declaration'.
Consider the following statements about the 28th National Conference on e-Governance: 1. It was co-hosted by DARPG, MeitY and the Government of Andhra Pradesh. 2. The National e-Governance Awards 2026 website was launched at its valedictory session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: DARPG, MeitY and the Andhra Pradesh government co-hosted it, and DARPG Secretary V. Srinivas launched the NeGA 2026 website.
Which Gram Panchayat won the Gold Award in the new grassroots category of the National Awards for e-Governance 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rohini, Maharashtra
Rohini Gram Panchayat in Dhule district, Maharashtra, won Gold; West Majlishpur won Silver.
Where were the National Awards for e-Governance 2025 for Gram Panchayats conferred on 22 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Visakhapatnam
The awards were conferred at the 28th National Conference on e-Governance in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
In his address to the nation on 21 September 2025, what did PM Modi call the beginning of the next-generation GST reforms?
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Correct answer: D — GST Bachat Utsav (savings festival)
The Prime Minister said a 'GST savings festival' (GST Bachat Utsav) would begin from 22 September.
According to PM Modi's address of 21 September 2025, what share of goods earlier taxed at 12% GST moved to the 5% rate?
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Correct answer: B — 99%
The Prime Minister said 99%, i.e. nearly 100%, of goods earlier taxed at 12% had come under the 5% rate.
PM Modi said that the income tax and GST relief decisions taken in one year would save people more than:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2.5 lakh crore
Combining income tax and GST relief, the Prime Minister said people would save more than ₹2.5 lakh crore.
In his address of 21 September 2025, PM Modi said income up to what amount had been made tax-free this year?
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Correct answer: B — ₹12 lakh
The Prime Minister said the government made income up to ₹12 lakh tax-free this year.