India Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In which script is the Santhali version of the Constitution of India, released on 25 December 2025, written?
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Correct answer: A — Ol Chiki
PIB 2208453: the President said the Constitution is now available in the Santhali language, written in the Ol Chiki script.
Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
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Correct answer: C — 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
PIB 2208453 and 2208484: Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
Consider the following statements about the Santhali Constitution released in December 2025: 1. The Ol Chiki script was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925. 2. The translation was published by the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice. 3. It was released at a joint sitting in Parliament House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208484: Ol Chiki was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 and the translation was published by the Legislative Department. It was released at Rashtrapati Bhavan, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), which completed 25 years in December 2025, was launched on:
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Correct answer: B — 25 December 2000
PIB backgrounder 2208381: PMGSY was launched on 25 December 2000 to ensure all-weather connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.
PMGSY-IV (2024–29) aims to connect how many rural habitations?
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Correct answer: A — 25,000
PIB backgrounder 2208381: under PMGSY-IV, 25,000 habitations are to be connected through 62,500 km of roads with an outlay of ₹70,125 crore. (1,63,339 habitations were sanctioned under Phase I.)
In which year was the Road Connectivity Project for Left Wing Extremism Affected Areas (RCPLWEA) under the PMGSY framework launched?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
PIB backgrounder 2208381: RCPLWEA was launched in 2016 as a targeted intervention; PMGSY Phase II began in 2013.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Vision IAS in December 2025 for misleading UPSC result advertisements?
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Correct answer: A — ₹11 lakh
PIB 2208482: the CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹11 lakh on Vision IAS (AjayVision Education Private Limited).
'Misleading advertisement' is defined under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, as cited by the CCPA in its December 2025 order against a coaching institute?
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Correct answer: C — Section 2(28)
PIB 2208482: concealment of material information constituted a misleading advertisement under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
In which city did the Prime Minister inaugurate the Rashtra Prerna Sthal on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Lucknow
PIB 2208531: the PM inaugurated the Rashtra Prerna Sthal in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
The Rashtra Prerna Sthal in Lucknow has statues of which three leaders?
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Correct answer: D — Syama Prasad Mookerjee, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and Atal Bihari Vajpayee
PIB 2208531: the grand statues at the site are of Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee, Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay and Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
In which Odisha district was Naxal Central Committee member Ganesh Uike neutralised, as announced on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Kandhamal
PIB 2208505: six Naxalites including Central Committee member Ganesh Uike were neutralised in a major operation in Kandhamal, Odisha.
By what date has the Union Home Ministry resolved to eliminate Naxalism, as reiterated on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 31 March 2026
PIB 2208505: 'We are resolved to eliminate Naxalism before the 31st of March 2026.'
Good Governance Day, observed on 25 December, marks the birth anniversary of:
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Correct answer: B — Atal Bihari Vajpayee
PIB 2208924: the Good Governance Day workshop commemorated the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. (Malaviya was also born on 25 December, but the Day honours Vajpayee.)
According to DARPG, how many public grievances were redressed during Good Governance Week 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Over 45 lakh
PIB 2208924: Good Governance Week saw over 57,000 camps, disposal of over 3 crore service delivery applications and redressal of over 45 lakh public grievances.
At what price per meal do Delhi's Atal Canteens, launched on 25 December 2025, serve food?
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Correct answer: D — ₹5
The Hindu, The Tribune and IANS: the canteens serve a full meal for ₹5; the government bears the remaining ₹25 per plate.
Consider the following statements about Delhi's Atal Canteen scheme: 1. 45 of the planned 100 canteens were opened on 25 December 2025. 2. The Delhi government bears ₹25 of the cost of each plate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Hindu, The Tribune and IANS: 45 of 100 planned canteens opened on 25 December and the government bears ₹25 per plate. Both statements are correct.
Under the railway fare rationalisation effective 26 December 2025, Second Class Ordinary fares do not increase for journeys up to:
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Correct answer: B — 215 km
PIB 2208532: in Second Class Ordinary there is no increase in fare for journeys up to 215 km.
By how much per kilometre were Mail/Express fares (AC and non-AC) revised from 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2 paise
PIB 2208532: in Mail/Express trains the fare increase is 2 paise per km across non-AC and AC classes.
Consider the following statements about the railway fare rationalisation of December 2025: 1. There is no change in fares for suburban services and season tickets. 2. Reservation fees and superfast surcharges have also been raised. 3. Revised fares apply only to tickets booked on or after 26 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208532: suburban and season ticket fares are unchanged and the new fares apply only to tickets booked on or after 26 December 2025. Reservation fees and superfast surcharges are unchanged, so statement 2 is wrong.
Who released 'Mahamana Vangmay', the final series of Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya's collected works, on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Vice President C.P. Radhakrishnan
PIB 2208546: Vice President C.P. Radhakrishnan released Mahamana Vangmay at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements about 'Mahamana Vangmay': 1. The second and final series comprises 12 volumes. 2. It is published by the Publications Division of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. 3. The first series was released by the Prime Minister in 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2208546: the final series has 12 volumes (about 3,500 pages), it is published by the Publications Division, and the first series was released by PM Modi in 2023. All three are correct.
How many Good Governance Awards did Haryana present at its state-level Good Governance Day event on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 9
The Tribune and Chandigarh City News: CM Nayab Singh Saini presented nine awards, four for flagship schemes and five state-level awards.
The Security of Service portal launched by Haryana on 25 December 2025 serves which group?
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Correct answer: B — Contractual employees
ETV Bharat: the portal links contractual employees to service security under the Haryana Contractual Employees (Security of Service) Act of 2024; The Tribune reports the contractual employees' portal going live on Good Governance Day, 25 December 2025.
What is the name of the unified WhatsApp chatbot for government services launched by Odisha on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ama Sathi
The New Indian Express and Pragativadi: CM Mohan Charan Majhi launched the 'Ama Sathi Unified WhatsApp Chatbot'.
Odisha's 'Ama Sathi' chatbot, launched in December 2025, gives access to how many government services?
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Correct answer: D — Over 150
The New Indian Express and Pragativadi: the chatbot provides access to over 150 essential government services.
Which body has the Environment Ministry asked to identify additional no-mining zones and prepare a Management Plan for Sustainable Mining for the Aravallis (December 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education
PIB 2208234: MoEF&CC directed ICFRE to identify additional areas where mining should be prohibited while preparing the MPSM for the entire Aravalli region.
As described by the Environment Ministry in December 2025, the Aravalli Range stretches between:
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Correct answer: A — Gujarat and the National Capital Region
PIB 2208234: the Aravallis form a continuous geological ridge extending from Gujarat to the National Capital Region.
Consider the following statements about the Centre's December 2025 directions on the Aravallis: 1. States must not grant any new mining leases anywhere in the Aravallis. 2. All mines already operating in the Aravallis must close immediately. 3. The Management Plan for Sustainable Mining will be placed in the public domain for consultation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208234: the ban covers grant of new mining leases and the MPSM will be placed in the public domain. Existing mines are to be regulated stringently in line with the Supreme Court's order, not closed, so statement 2 is wrong.
The BlueBird Block-2 satellite launched by LVM3-M6 on 24 December 2025 belongs to which company?
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Correct answer: C — AST SpaceMobile
ISRO and PIB 2208090: the mission launched the BlueBird Block-2 satellite of US-based AST SpaceMobile under a commercial agreement with NSIL.
Into which orbit did LVM3-M6 place the BlueBird Block-2 satellite?
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Correct answer: A — Low Earth Orbit
ISRO and The Hindu: LVM3-M6 placed BlueBird Block-2 in low Earth orbit (LEO).
Consider the following statements about ISRO's LVM3: 1. LVM3-M6 was the sixth operational flight of LVM3. 2. LVM3's upper stage is the C25 cryogenic stage. 3. LVM3 can carry about 8,000 kg to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: LVM3-M6 is the sixth operational flight and LVM3 has S200 strap-ons, an L110 core and a C25 cryogenic upper stage. Its GTO capability is 4,200 kg, so statement 3 is wrong.
What was the theme of National Consumer Day 2025, observed on 24 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Efficient and Speedy Disposal through Digital Justice
PIB 2208179: the theme for National Consumer Day 2025 was 'Efficient and Speedy Disposal through Digital Justice'.
According to the Consumer Affairs Minister on National Consumer Day 2025, how much did the National Consumer Helpline secure in refunds between April and December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹42.6 crore
PIB 2208179: the NCH facilitated refunds of ₹42.6 crore across 30 sectors by resolving over 63,800 refund grievances between April and December 2025. (₹2.13 crore is the CCPA's total penalties.)
Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust (RIIT), approved by SEBI as a public InvIT in December 2025, is sponsored by:
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Correct answer: B — National Highways Authority of India
PIB 2208143: NHAI-sponsored Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust has received SEBI approval as an InvIT.
Which investor group is the NHAI's public InvIT, RIIT, primarily meant to target?
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Correct answer: C — Retail and domestic investors
PIB 2208143: the public InvIT creates a long-term investment instrument primarily targeting retail and domestic investors.
Where was the two-day PESA Mahotsav held on 23–24 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Visakhapatnam
PIB 2208189: the two-day PESA Mahotsav (23–24 December 2025) was held at Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
How many states are listed as PESA States by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj?
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Correct answer: D — Ten
PIB 2208189: participants came from all ten PESA States — Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana.
Which of the following states is NOT a PESA State, as per the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (December 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB 2208189: the ten PESA States are Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana; Karnataka is not among them.
Which Indian Standard released by BIS on National Consumer Day 2025 covers incense sticks (agarbatti)?
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Correct answer: D — IS 19412:2025
PIB 2208829: IS 19412:2025 – Incense Sticks (Agarbatti) — Specification was released on National Consumer Day 2025. IS 19445 is for bomb disposal systems and IS 19262 for electric tractors.
The BIS standard IS 19445:2025 on bomb disposal systems was taken up at the request of the Ministry of Home Affairs and which DRDO laboratory?
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Correct answer: A — Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory
PIB 2209191: formulation of IS 19445:2025 was initiated on a request from the MHA and the Terminal Ballistic Research Laboratory (TBRL), DRDO, which also convened the drafting panel.
Consider the following statements about BIS standards released on National Consumer Day 2025: 1. IS 19412:2025 prohibits the use of certain insecticides such as permethrin and fipronil in agarbattis. 2. IS 19262:2025 is a test code for electric agricultural tractors. 3. IS 19412:2025 applies only to machine-made agarbattis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208829 and 2209159: IS 19412 bans insecticides including permethrin and fipronil, and IS 19262 is the electric tractor test code. IS 19412 classifies agarbattis as machine-made, hand-made and traditional masala, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Delhi Metro Phase V(A) corridor approved on 24 December 2025 will connect the Central Vista and Kartavya Bhawans?
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Correct answer: D — R.K. Ashram Marg – Indraprastha
PIB 2208096: the R.K. Ashram Marg–Indraprastha section (9.913 km) will provide Metro connectivity to the Central Vista area and all Kartavya Bhawans.
What is the total length of the three Delhi Metro Phase V(A) corridors approved by the Cabinet in December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 16.076 km
PIB 2208096: the three corridors together make up 16.076 km. (111 km is Phase-IV, now under construction.)
Consider the following statements about Delhi Metro Phase V(A) approved in December 2025: 1. Its total cost is ₹12,014.91 crore. 2. The new sections extend the Magenta Line and the Golden Line. 3. All 13 new stations will be elevated. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208096: the cost is ₹12,014.91 crore and the extensions are of the Magenta and Golden Lines. Of the 13 stations, 10 will be underground and 3 elevated, so statement 3 is wrong.
GRAP Stage-IV, revoked across the NCR on 24 December 2025, had been invoked on 13 December 2025 when Delhi's average AQI crossed:
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Correct answer: D — 450
PIB 2208266: the Commission invoked Stage-IV on 13 December 2025 when Delhi's average AQI breached the 450 mark; it was revoked when the AQI improved to 271.
Which body revoked GRAP Stage-IV restrictions across the NCR on 24 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Commission for Air Quality Management
PIB 2208266: the Sub-Committee on GRAP of the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) revoked Stage-IV.
In December 2025, which state's Cabinet approved in principle a permanent, photo-embedded nativity card to replace the nativity certificate?
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Correct answer: C — Kerala
The Hindu and ABP Live (PTI): the Kerala Cabinet gave in-principle approval on 24 December 2025 for a permanent nativity card with a photo.
Which Kerala department was asked to draft the law giving legal validity to the proposed nativity card?
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Correct answer: B — Revenue Department
The Hindu and ABP Live (PTI): the Revenue Department was tasked with preparing a draft law, in consultation with the Law Department.
The Revised Jharia Master Plan, reviewed by the Coal Minister in December 2025, mainly addresses which problems in the Jharia Coalfield?
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Correct answer: B — Mine fires, land subsidence and rehabilitation
PIB 2208187: the RJMP, approved by the CCEA on 25 June 2025, aims to address mine fires, land subsidence and rehabilitation in the Jharia Coalfield.
Under the Revised Jharia Master Plan, which body rehabilitates non-BCCL families from endangered areas?
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Correct answer: D — Jharia Rehabilitation and Development Authority
PIB 2208187: rehabilitation of non-BCCL families is undertaken by the Jharia Rehabilitation and Development Authority (JRDA) under the State Government, while BCCL rehabilitates families within its operational areas.
Who was conferred the Rashtriya Vigyan Ratna Puraskar 2025 (posthumously) on 23 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jayant Vishnu Narlikar
PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Ratna for lifetime achievement was awarded posthumously to astrophysicist Prof. Jayant Vishnu Narlikar.
The Rashtriya Vigyan Team Puraskar 2025 was won by which team, credited with the 'Purple Revolution'?
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Correct answer: C — CSIR Aroma Mission
PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Team Award went to the CSIR-led Aroma Mission, which promoted lavender cultivation in the Himalayan region ('Purple Revolution').
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2025: 1. It was the second edition of the awards. 2. The Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is for scientists below the age of 45. 3. Lavender cultivation promoted by the winning team began at Bhaderwah and Gulmarg. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207860: the 2025 ceremony was the second edition; Vigyan Yuva–SSB is for scientists below 45; and lavender entrepreneurship began from Bhaderwah and Gulmarg in J&K. All three are correct.
Kisan Diwas (National Farmers' Day), observed on 23 December, marks the birth anniversary of which former Prime Minister?
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Correct answer: A — Chaudhary Charan Singh
ICAR: Kisan Diwas, observed annually on 23 December, commemorates the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Chaudhary Charan Singh.
Chaudhary Charan Singh, whose birth anniversary is observed as Kisan Diwas, was India's Prime Minister in which order?
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Correct answer: C — Fifth
ICAR-IIWM report (23.12.2025): National Farmers' Day commemorates the birth anniversary of India's fifth Prime Minister, Shri Chaudhary Charan Singh.
What is the total installed capacity of the Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project, whose first unit began commercial operation in December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 2,000 MW
PIB 2207797: the Subansiri Lower project is 2,000 MW (8 × 250 MW); the North-East will receive 1,000 MW from it.
The Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project is located along the border of which two states?
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Correct answer: B — Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
Deccan Herald and TOI: the project at Gerukamukh is situated along the Assam–Arunachal Pradesh border.
Consider the following statements about the Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project: 1. It is designed as a run-of-the-river scheme with small pondage. 2. Its dam is a 116-metre concrete gravity dam, the largest in North-East India. 3. It is being developed by NTPC Limited. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207797: Subansiri Lower is a run-of-the-river scheme with small pondage and has a 116-m concrete gravity dam, the largest in the North-East. The developer is NHPC, not NTPC, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which of the following correctly describes the Akash-NG missile system whose User Evaluation Trials were completed in December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Indigenous RF seeker and solid rocket motor
PIB 2207971: Akash-NG is equipped with an indigenous RF seeker and propelled by a solid rocket motor.
Representatives of which service witnessed the User Evaluation Trials of Akash-NG?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Air Force
PIB 2207971: the trials were witnessed by senior DRDO scientists and user representatives from the Indian Air Force.
Vinod Kumar Shukla, who died on 23 December 2025, was the first Jnanpith Award winner from which state?
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Correct answer: B — Chhattisgarh
The Hindu and NDTV (PTI): Shukla was the first writer from Chhattisgarh to receive the Jnanpith Award.
Which work of Vinod Kumar Shukla won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1999?
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Correct answer: C — Deewar Mein Ek Khirkee Rahati Thi
The Tribune and Indian Express: 'Deewar Mein Ek Khirkee Rahati Thi' won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1999.
Consider the following statements about Vinod Kumar Shukla: 1. He received the 59th Jnanpith Award. 2. He was born in Rajnandgaon. 3. The Jnanpith Award was presented to him at Rashtrapati Bhavan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
NDTV and The Tribune: he got the 59th Jnanpith and was born on 1 January 1937 in Rajnandgaon. The award was presented on 21 November 2025 at his residence in Raipur, not at Rashtrapati Bhavan, so statement 3 is wrong.
As announced by MoSPI in December 2025, what will be the base year of the new Consumer Price Index series?
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Correct answer: B — 2024
PIB 2207861: the new series of CPI with base year 2024 is scheduled for release on 12 February 2026.
Consider the following statements about MoSPI's base revision plans announced in December 2025: 1. The new National Accounts (GDP) series will have 2022-23 as base year. 2. The new IIP series is scheduled for release before the new CPI series. 3. GST and PFMS data will be among the new data sources used. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2207861: GDP and IIP will have base 2022-23, and GST and PFMS are new data sources. The new CPI is due on 12 February 2026 while the new IIP is due on 28 May 2026, so statement 2 is wrong.
Where was MoSPI's first pre-release consultative workshop on the base revision of GDP, CPI and IIP held?
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Correct answer: C — Mumbai
PIB 2207861: the first pre-release consultative workshop was held on 26 November 2025 at Mumbai; the second was on 23 December 2025 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Which shipyard built 'Samudra Pratap', the Indian Coast Guard's first indigenously designed Pollution Control Vessel inducted in December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Goa Shipyard Limited
PIB 2208089: Samudra Pratap (Yard 1267) was built under the two-PCV project of Goa Shipyard Limited.
Samudra Pratap is the first Indian Coast Guard ship to be equipped with which capability?
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Correct answer: C — Dynamic Positioning (DP-1)
PIB 2208089: the PCV is the first Indian Coast Guard ship to be equipped with Dynamic Positioning capability (DP-1).
Consider the following statements about ICGS Samudra Pratap: 1. It is the largest ship in the Indian Coast Guard fleet. 2. It has over 60% indigenous content. 3. Its displacement is about 6,100 tonnes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208089: Samudra Pratap is the largest ship in the ICG fleet with over 60% indigenous content. Its displacement is 4,170 tonnes, so statement 3 is wrong.
In how many Scheduled districts of Jharkhand will the PESA rules approved by the state Cabinet on 23 December 2025 apply?
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Correct answer: C — 15
UNI and IANS: the PESA rules clear the way for the law to become operational across 15 Scheduled districts of Jharkhand.
The PESA Act, whose implementation rules Jharkhand approved in December 2025, was enacted in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1996
PIB 2208189 and UNI: the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act dates from 1996.
Under the Environment (Utilisation of Crop Residue by Thermal Power Plants) Rules, 2023, coal-based thermal plants must use a minimum blend of crop-residue pellets or briquettes of:
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Correct answer: A — 5%
PIB 2207853: the 2023 Rules mandate all coal-based TPPs to use a minimum 5% blend of biomass pellets or briquettes made of crop residue along with coal.
Which thermal power plant faced the largest proposed environmental compensation in CAQM's show cause notices of December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Talwandi Sabo Power Limited, Mansa
PIB 2207853: Talwandi Sabo Power Limited (Vedanta), Mansa, Punjab faced a proposed EC of about ₹33.02 crore, the highest of the six.