Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
President Droupadi Murmu graced which convocation of Gujarat Vidyapith, Ahmedabad, on 11 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 71st
PIB: the President graced the 71st convocation ceremony of Gujarat Vidyapith at Ahmedabad on 11 October 2025.
What was the code name of the DRI operation that busted a gold smuggling syndicate at Mumbai's CSMI Airport in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Operation Golden Sweep
PIB: the DRI operation code-named 'Operation Golden Sweep' seized 10.488 kg of gold worth about ₹12.58 crore and arrested 13 people.
Consider the following statements about 'Operation Golden Sweep': 1. Those arrested included six Bangladeshi nationals. 2. Transit passengers hid gold in egg-shaped wax capsules inside their bodies and handed it to airport staff in the international departure area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the 13 arrested included two Bangladeshi and six Sri Lankan nationals (not six Bangladeshis); transit passengers concealed gold in egg-shaped wax capsules inside their bodies and passed it to complicit staff in the international departure area.
After the recent GST reforms, what is the GST rate on tendu leaves, according to the PIB explainer on Jharkhand (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 5%
PIB: the GST rate on tendu leaves has been reduced from 18% to 5%, and on bamboo from 12% to 5%.
Consider the following statements from the PIB explainer on GST reforms and Jharkhand (October 2025): 1. Jharkhand accounts for nearly 26% of India's total iron ore reserves. 2. GST on iron has been reduced from 18% to 5%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Jharkhand accounts for nearly 26% of India's iron ore reserves; GST on iron was cut from 12% (not 18%) to 5%.
Where was the revamped Sugamya Bharat App launched on 11 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Purple Fest, Goa
PIB: DEPwD launched the revamped Sugamya Bharat App at the Purple Fest in Goa.
Consider the following statements about the revamped Sugamya Bharat App: 1. It was developed with the support of SBI Foundation. 2. The app was originally launched under the Accessible India Campaign (Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the app was developed with SBI Foundation's support (technical partners NAB Delhi, ISTEM and Mission Accessibility) and was originally launched under the Accessible India Campaign.
Which port in Tamil Nadu was recognised as a Green Hydrogen Hub under the National Green Hydrogen Mission in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — V.O. Chidambaranar Port
PIB: MNRE recognised Deendayal (Gujarat), V.O. Chidambaranar (Tamil Nadu) and Paradip (Odisha) port authorities as Green Hydrogen Hubs.
Consider the following statements about the recognition of Green Hydrogen Hubs (October 2025): 1. Under Component B2 of the guidelines, MNRE provides direct financial assistance to the recognised hubs. 2. The revised guidelines for Hydrogen Valley Innovation Clusters and Green Hydrogen Hubs were issued on 27 June 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: under Component B2, MNRE may recognise hubs without direct financial assistance, enabling access to benefits under other schemes; the revised guidelines were issued on 27 June 2025.
When is the India–AI Impact Summit 2026 scheduled to be held in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: A — 19–20 February 2026
PIB: the India AI-Impact Summit 2026, hosted by MeitY, will be held on 19–20 February 2026 in New Delhi.
Consider the following statements about the India–AI Impact Summit 2026: 1. It is guided by three sutras — People, Planet and Progress. 2. Its seven thematic chakras include 'Science' and 'Democratizing AI Resources'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the summit is guided by the sutras of People, Planet and Progress, translated into seven chakras, including Science and Democratizing AI Resources.
According to NITI Aayog's tax working paper of October 2025, the Income-tax Act, 2025 continues to criminalise how many actions and omissions?
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Correct answer: B — 35 across 13 provisions
PIB: the paper highlights that the 2025 Act continues to criminalise 35 actions and omissions across 13 provisions, most prescribing mandatory imprisonment.
Consider the following statements about the NITI Tax Policy Working Paper Series: 1. The first paper in the series dealt with Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors in India. 2. The second paper recommends removing criminal sanctions even for cases of fraud and wilful evasion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the first paper was on certainty, transparency and uniformity in Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors; the second paper recommends restricting criminal sanctions to cases involving fraud or wilful evasion, not removing them.
Which Indian institute under the Department of Science & Technology played a crucial part in the first imaging of two orbiting black holes in OJ287 (reported October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences, Nainital
PIB: ARIES, Nainital, an autonomous institute of DST, played a crucial part; its scientists Alok C. Gupta and Shubham Kishore were among the authors.
Consider the following statements about the OJ287 black hole observation: 1. The image was obtained using the RadioAstron space telescope together with ground-based observatories. 2. The larger of the two black holes was seen launching a twisting jet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the team used the RadioAstron space telescope with ground-based observatories; it was the smaller black hole that was seen launching a jet that twists like a 'wagging tail'.
At the 10 October 2025 review of Delhi-NCR air pollution, which app was designated as the single online app for disseminating the Air Quality Index?
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Correct answer: C — SAMEER
PIB: Bhupender Yadav suggested that the SAMEER app will be the single online app for disseminating the Air Quality Index and directed CAQM to issue instructions accordingly.
Consider the following statements about the Delhi-NCR air pollution review of 10 October 2025: 1. The Minister reviewed the installation of OCEMS in Orange Category industries only. 2. Paddy straw management was reviewed in Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: OCEMS installation was reviewed in Red Category and 17 categories of polluting industries, and paddy straw management was reviewed in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
CMC Vellore's Centre for Stem Cell Research recently completed India's first-in-human gene therapy trial for which disease?
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Correct answer: D — Hemophilia A
PIB: Dr Jitendra Singh lauded CSCR for completing India's first-in-human gene therapy trial for Hemophilia A, a bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of clotting Factor VIII.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Hemophilia A gene therapy at CMC Vellore used AAV vectors instead of lentiviral vectors. 2. According to Dr Jitendra Singh, India ranks 3rd in Asia-Pacific and 12th globally in biomanufacturing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: CSCR used lentiviral vectors instead of the commonly used AAV (the reverse of statement 1); the Minister said India ranks 3rd in Asia-Pacific and 12th globally in biomanufacturing.
What combined initial funding have India and the UK committed to the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre?
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Correct answer: A — £24 million over four years
PIB: India and the UK have committed a combined initial £24 million over four years to the initiative.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre: 1. Its three focus areas are AI in telecom, quantum communication and semiconductor design. 2. It is delivered jointly by UKRI and India's Department of Telecommunications under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the three focus areas are transforming telecom with AI, non-terrestrial networks and telecom cybersecurity (not quantum or semiconductors); the Centre is delivered by UKRI and DoT under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative.
Which Australian naval facility in Sydney did Rajnath Singh visit on 10 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — HMAS Kuttabul
PIB: Rajnath Singh visited the historic and strategic naval facility HMAS Kuttabul in Sydney on 10 October 2025.
In which year was the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership established, as recalled by Rajnath Singh in Sydney?
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Correct answer: C — 2020
PIB: Rajnath Singh spoke of the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership 2020 as the banner for re-positioning defence relations.
Consider the following statements from Rajnath Singh's address at the India–Australia Defence Industry Business Round Table (October 2025): 1. Australia has identified India as a 'Top Tier Partner', removing certain regulatory barriers to technology sharing. 2. India allows FDI in defence up to 49% under the automatic route. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Rajnath Singh said Australia has identified India as a Top Tier Partner; he said the FDI policy has been liberalised up to 74% (not 49%) under the automatic route.
Under the ECI notification of 7 October 2025, how many alternative photo identity documents can an elector use if they cannot produce the EPIC?
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Correct answer: B — 12
PIB: ECI's notification of 7 October 2025 permits electors on the roll who cannot produce their EPIC to show any one of 12 alternative photo identity documents.
Consider the following statements: 1. ECI directs the issue of EPICs under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 read with the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960. 2. The UDID card issued by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment is one of the alternative documents allowed for voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: ECI is empowered under the RP Act, 1951 read with the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 to direct the issue of EPICs; the Unique Disability ID (UDID) card is among the 12 alternative photo IDs.
According to NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy' (October 2025), India's tech services sector could create up to how many new jobs in the next five years?
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Correct answer: D — 4 million
PIB: the roadmap says India's tech services sector has the opportunity to create up to 4 million new jobs in the next five years.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy': 1. It was developed by NITI Aayog's Frontier Tech Hub in collaboration with NASSCOM and BCG. 2. It recommends launching a National AI Talent Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the roadmap was developed by NITI's Frontier Tech Hub with NASSCOM and BCG, and recommends a National AI Talent Mission working with the IndiaAI Mission.
Who was designated Mental Health Ambassador by the Union Health Ministry on World Mental Health Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Deepika Padukone
PIB: J P Nadda said Deepika Padukone has been designated as the Mental Health Ambassador for raising awareness about access to mental health services.
After the October 2025 upgrade, the Tele MANAS app is available in how many regional languages in addition to English and Hindi?
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Correct answer: B — 10
PIB: the Tele MANAS app will now be available in 10 regional languages in addition to English and Hindi.
The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) signed an MoU in October 2025 with which entity to support the Bharat Taxi ride-hailing platform?
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Correct answer: B — Sahakar Taxi Cooperative Limited
PIB: NeGD and Sahakar Taxi Cooperative Limited formalised their collaboration through an MoU for advisory and technical support to Bharat Taxi, to be launched in December 2025.
Where was the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference, attended by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla in October 2025, held?
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Correct answer: A — Bridgetown, Barbados
PIB: the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference was held in Bridgetown, Barbados, where Om Birla led the Indian Parliamentary Delegation.
In which year did the Government of India gift the Speaker's chair in the Barbados Parliament, to mark Barbados' independence?
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Correct answer: D — 1966
PIB: the historic Speaker's chair was a gift from the Government of India in 1966 to mark Barbados' independence.
In which South African city was the G20 Trade & Investment Ministers' Meeting held in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Gqeberha
PIB: MoS Jitin Prasada participated in Day-1 proceedings of the G20 Trade & Investment Ministers' Meeting (TIMM) in Gqeberha.
Consider the following statements: 1. At the G20 TIMM in October 2025, India called for restoring a fully functional two-tier WTO dispute settlement system with an operational Appellate Body. 2. The G20 comprises 20 countries and the European Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Jitin Prasada called for a fully functional two-tier dispute settlement system with an operational appellate body; the G20 comprises 19 countries, the European Union and the African Union.
After the recent GST reforms, what is the GST rate on handloom woven fabrics, according to the PIB explainer on Manipur (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 5%
PIB: the GST on handloom woven fabrics was reduced from 12% to 5%, benefiting about 2.5 lakh weavers in Manipur.
Consider the following statements from the PIB explainer on GST reforms and Manipur (October 2025): 1. Around 10,000 farmers are engaged in coffee cultivation in Manipur. 2. GST on packaged coffee was reduced from 12% to 5%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: around 10,000 farmers grow coffee in Manipur; GST on packaged coffee was cut from 18% (not 12%) to 5%.
During UK PM Keir Starmer's October 2025 visit, which UK university received in-principle approval to open a campus in GIFT City?
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Correct answer: B — University of Surrey
PIB (list of outcomes): in-principle approval was given for opening a campus of the University of Surrey in GIFT City; Lancaster University received an LoI for Bengaluru.
India and the UK agreed in October 2025 to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of which missile system?
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Correct answer: D — Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM)
PIB (joint statement): both leaders announced agreement to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM) systems to support India's air defence.
Consider the following statements about UK PM Keir Starmer's visit to India (October 2025): 1. Phase II of the UK-India Critical Minerals Supply Chain Observatory includes a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad. 2. It was Starmer's second official visit to India as Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Phase II of the Observatory will establish a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad; the joint statement says this was Prime Minister Starmer's first official visit to India.
About how many officials did the Election Commission deploy for the 2025 Bihar Assembly election?
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Correct answer: A — 8.5 lakh
PIB: around 8.5 lakh election officials have been deployed, including nearly 4.53 lakh polling personnel and 2.5 lakh police officials.
Consider the following statements about the 2025 Bihar Assembly election arrangements: 1. For the first time, one General Observer has been deployed for each of Bihar's 243 constituencies. 2. Personnel deployed are deemed to be on deputation to the Election Commission under Section 28A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: in a first, one General Observer has been deployed for each of the 243 constituencies; all deployed personnel are deemed to be on deputation to ECI under Section 28A of the RP Act, 1951.
What did the Election Commission direct parties, candidates and star campaigners to do with AI-generated or synthetic campaign content during the Bihar elections?
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Correct answer: D — Label it prominently
PIB: parties, leaders, candidates and star campaigners shall take necessary measures for prominent labelling of AI-generated/synthetic content shared for campaigning.
According to PM Modi at the Global Fintech Fest 2025, India's approach to AI rests on which three principles?
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Correct answer: C — Equitable Access, Population-scale Skilling, Responsible Deployment
PIB: the PM said India's approach to AI is built on three key principles — Equitable Access, Population-scale Skilling and Responsible Deployment.
What was the central theme of the Global Fintech Fest 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Empowering Finance for a Better World – Powered by AI, Augmented Intelligence, Innovation, and Inclusion
PIB: GFF 2025's central theme is 'Empowering Finance for a Better World' – Powered by AI, Augmented Intelligence, Innovation, and Inclusion.
Under the October 2025 amendments to the PLI scheme for textiles, the minimum investment for new applicants in the Part-1 category was reduced to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹150 crore
PIB: with effect from 1 August 2025, the minimum investment for new applicants was reduced from ₹300 crore to ₹150 crore in Part-1 and from ₹100 crore to ₹50 crore in Part-2.
Consider the following statements about the amended PLI scheme for textiles: 1. The incremental turnover required to qualify for incentives has been reduced from 25% to 10%. 2. The application portal has been opened until 31 March 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: from FY 2025–26 applicants need a minimum 10% incremental turnover (down from 25%); the application portal is open until 31 December 2025, not 31 March 2026.
Which India–Australia implementing arrangement was signed at the inaugural Defence Ministers' Dialogue in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation
PIB (joint statement): ministers welcomed the signing of the Australia–India Implementing Arrangement on Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation; the air-to-air refuelling arrangement had been signed in 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue (October 2025): 1. It was the inaugural edition, and the ministers agreed to hold it annually. 2. Australia's first defence trade mission to India took place from 7 to 10 October 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the October 2025 meeting was the inaugural Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue, with a commitment to an annual dialogue; ministers welcomed Australia's first defence trade mission to India from 7 to 10 October 2025.
The design of the Sabarmati HSR station, terminal of the Mumbai–Ahmedabad bullet train corridor, is inspired by:
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Correct answer: D — Mahatma Gandhi's charkha at Sabarmati Ashram
PIB: the Sabarmati HSR station is inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's charkha at Sabarmati Ashram; the Dandi March appears as a mural on the multimodal hub.
Consider the following statements about the Mumbai–Ahmedabad bullet train project (October 2025): 1. The Sabarmati rolling stock depot, spread over 84 hectares, is the largest of the three depots. 2. Of the 508 km corridor, 400 km of viaduct has been completed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the 84-hectare Sabarmati depot is the largest of three depots; 325 km of viaduct (and 400 km of pier work) has been completed — not 400 km of viaduct.
What is the duration of the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 launched in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 60 days
PIB: the 60-day Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 prioritises six enhanced key strategies.
Consider the following statements about the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign: 1. The first campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day. 2. At the launch of TFYC 3.0, the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at AIIMS, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the inaugural campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day; the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at NIMHANS, Bengaluru, not AIIMS.
In October 2025 the combined assets under management of NPS and Atal Pension Yojana crossed which mark?
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Correct answer: C — ₹16 lakh crore
PIB: the combined AUM of NPS and APY crossed the ₹16 lakh crore mark on 9 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about the pension sector (October 2025): 1. The combined subscriber base of NPS and APY has surpassed 9 crore. 2. PFRDA's Multiple Scheme Framework became effective from 1 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the subscriber base has surpassed 9 crore; the Multiple Scheme Framework is effective from 1 October 2025, not 1 April 2025.
How many critical and strategic mineral blocks are offered in Tranche VI of the auction launched in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 23
PIB: Tranche VI, launched on 16 September 2025, includes 23 critical and strategic mineral blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.
Consider the following statements about Tranche VI of the critical mineral block auction: 1. It comprises 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases. 2. It was launched by the Ministry of Mines on 16 September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Tranche VI was launched on 16 September 2025 and includes 23 blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.
How many medicinal substances will the CCRAS DRAVYA portal catalogue in its first phase?
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Correct answer: C — 100
PIB: in its first phase, the DRAVYA portal aims to catalogue information on 100 key medicinal substances.
How much did Andhra Pradesh's rural local bodies receive as the first instalment of XV Finance Commission untied grants for 2025–26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹410.76 crore
PIB: the first instalment of untied grants for Andhra Pradesh, amounting to ₹410.76 crore, has been disbursed; ₹680.71 crore went to West Bengal.
Consider the following statements about XV Finance Commission grants released in October 2025: 1. Untied grants may be used by rural local bodies to pay salaries and establishment costs. 2. The Andhra Pradesh instalment benefits all 13,327 gram panchayats of the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: untied grants are for location-specific needs under the 29 Eleventh Schedule subjects, except salaries and establishment costs; the Andhra instalment benefits 13,092 eligible gram panchayats out of 13,327.