Teaching Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Exercise Tiger Triumph 2025, which culminated at Kakinada on 11 April 2025, is a tri-service exercise between India and which country?
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Correct answer: D — United States
United States: it is a bilateral India–US tri-service HADR amphibious exercise.
Where was the harbour phase of Exercise Tiger Triumph 2025 held from 1 to 7 April?
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Correct answer: A — Visakhapatnam
Visakhapatnam hosted the harbour phase; the exercise culminated with the Distinguished Visitors' Day at Kakinada.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Tiger Triumph: 1. It was first held in 2019. 2. The 2025 edition was its third edition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Tiger Triumph was first held in 2019, and the Defence Ministry called the 2025 exercise the fourth edition, not the third.
The Indian Institute of Creative Technologies (IICT), for which an MoU was signed on 11 April 2025, will be located in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Mumbai
Mumbai, at Dadasaheb Phalke Film City, Goregaon.
The Indian Institute of Creative Technologies is meant mainly for which sector?
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Correct answer: A — AVGC-XR (animation, visual effects, gaming, comics and extended reality)
AVGC-XR (animation, visual effects, gaming, comics and extended reality) is the sector the IICT will serve.
The first phase of the Naval Commanders' Conference 2025, presided over by Rajnath Singh, was held at which naval base?
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Correct answer: D — Karwar
Karwar, where IOS SAGAR was flagged off and Project Seabird facilities were inaugurated; the second phase was in New Delhi.
Under which project were nine marine piers and eight residential buildings inaugurated at Karwar during the Naval Commanders' Conference 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Project Seabird
Project Seabird, the infrastructure project at the Karwar naval base.
What is the last date for nominations for the Padma Awards 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 31 July 2025
31 July 2025; nominations opened on 15 March 2025.
On which portal are nominations for the Padma Awards accepted?
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Correct answer: B — Rashtriya Puraskar Portal
Rashtriya Puraskar Portal (awards.gov.in); nominations are accepted only online.
NITI Aayog's April 2025 automotive report sets what target for India's auto component production by 2030?
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Correct answer: C — US$145 billion
US$145 billion by 2030, along with raising India's GVC share from 3% to 8%.
According to NITI Aayog's April 2025 report, what is India's rank among the world's vehicle producers?
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Correct answer: C — Fourth
Fourth: India produces about 6 million vehicles out of about 94 million globally.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's report 'Automotive Industry: Powering India's Participation in Global Value Chains': 1. It was launched by NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Suman Bery. 2. It aims to raise India's share in global auto component value chain trade from 3% to 8%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Suman Bery launched the report, which targets an increase in India's GVC share from 3% to 8%.
The ASEAN co-chair of the 8th AITIGA Joint Committee meeting held in New Delhi in April 2025 was from which country?
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Correct answer: D — Malaysia
Malaysia: Dr Sugumari S. Shanmugam co-chaired with India's Additional Secretary Rajesh Agrawal.
In the acronym AITIGA, what does 'TIG' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Trade in Goods
Trade in Goods: AITIGA is the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement.
How much renewable energy capacity did India add in FY 2024-25, according to MNRE?
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Correct answer: C — 29.52 GW
29.52 GW, a record; 23.83 GW of it was solar, and 50.04 GW is the total wind capacity.
What was India's total installed renewable energy capacity as of 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 220.10 GW
220.10 GW, up from 198.75 GW a year earlier; 105.65 GW is the solar share.
Consider the following statements about India's solar capacity as of 31 March 2025: 1. Total installed solar capacity crossed 100 GW. 2. Rooftop solar accounted for more than half of the total solar capacity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Total solar capacity was 105.65 GW, but rooftop solar was 17.02 GW; ground-mounted installations made up 81.01 GW.
What was India's total installed wind energy capacity at the end of FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 50.04 GW
50.04 GW, after 4.15 GW was added during the year; 11.58 GW is bioenergy capacity.
From which country was Tahawwur Hussain Rana, an accused in the 26/11 Mumbai attacks case, extradited to India in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — United States
United States: the US Marshals Service surrendered him to Indian authorities on 9 April 2025.
Which Indian agency formally arrested Tahawwur Rana on his arrival in New Delhi on 10 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Investigation Agency
National Investigation Agency (NIA); NIA and NSG teams escorted him from Los Angeles.
Consider the following statements about Tahawwur Rana's extradition: 1. A US magistrate judge certified his extradition to India on 16 May 2023. 2. He is an Indian citizen. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. His extradition was certified on 16 May 2023 in the Central District of California; he is a Canadian citizen of Pakistani origin.
Tahawwur Rana's extradition to India in April 2025 followed proceedings initiated under which instrument?
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Correct answer: A — India-US Extradition Treaty
India-US Extradition Treaty: the NIA said he was held in US judicial custody pursuant to proceedings initiated under it.
By what percentage was the 'material cost' under PM POSHAN raised with effect from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 9.50%
9.50%, at an additional Central cost of about ₹954 crore in 2025-26.
What is the revised per-student, per-day material cost for Bal Vatika and primary classes under PM POSHAN from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹6.78
₹6.78, up from ₹6.19; upper primary rises from ₹9.29 to ₹10.17.
Consider the following statements about the PM POSHAN material cost revision of April 2025: 1. It is based on the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW). 2. The revised rates are minimum mandatory rates, and states/UTs may contribute more. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The revision is based on the Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers (CPI-RL) compiled by the Labour Bureau, not CPI-IW; the rates are minimum mandatory rates.
About how many students in how many schools are covered by PM POSHAN, as stated by the Ministry of Education in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 11.20 crore students in 10.36 lakh schools
11.20 crore students in 10.36 lakh government and government-aided schools.
Where did India finish in the medal table of the ISSF World Cup in Buenos Aires that ended on 10 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Second
Second, with 8 medals (4 gold, 2 silver, 2 bronze), behind China.
Which Indian shooter won the women's 10m air pistol gold at the ISSF World Cup in Buenos Aires in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Suruchi Inder Singh
Suruchi Inder Singh won the gold; Esha Singh won silver in the women's 25m pistol.
Consider the following statements about India at the ISSF World Cup, Buenos Aires 2025: 1. Sift Kaur Samra won gold in the women's 50m rifle 3 positions. 2. India won gold in the 10m air pistol mixed team event. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Sift Kaur Samra won the women's 50m rifle 3 positions gold; in the 10m air pistol mixed team, Suruchi Inder Singh and Saurabh Chaudhary won bronze, and China won gold.
World Homoeopathy Day 2025 marked which birth anniversary of Dr Samuel Hahnemann, the founder of homoeopathy?
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Correct answer: C — 270th
270th birth anniversary, according to the Ministry of Ayush.
Where was the Ministry of Ayush's World Homoeopathy Day 2025 convention held?
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Correct answer: D — Mahatma Mandir, Gandhinagar
Mahatma Mandir Convention and Exhibition Centre, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
What was the theme of the World Homoeopathy Day 2025 convention?
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Correct answer: D — Education, Practice and Research in Homoeopathy
Education, Practice and Research in Homoeopathy was the theme; over 8,000 delegates attended.
Which university conferred an Honoris Causa doctorate on President Droupadi Murmu during her visit to Slovakia in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Constantine the Philosopher University, Nitra
Constantine the Philosopher University in Nitra, named after Saint Constantine Cyril.
Who is the President of Slovakia who accompanied President Murmu to the Jaguar Land Rover factory in Bratislava on 10 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Peter Pellegrini
Peter Pellegrini, the President of Slovakia, accompanied her on the factory visit.
How many Urban Ayushman Arogya Mandirs are to be set up in Delhi under PM-ABHIM, as announced on 10 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,139
1,139 Urban Ayushman Arogya Mandirs, within the ₹1,749 crore approved for Delhi.
What total annual health cover will AB-PMJAY beneficiary families in Delhi get, including the Delhi government's top-up?
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Correct answer: C — ₹10 lakh
₹10 lakh: ₹5 lakh under AB-PMJAY plus an additional ₹5 lakh from the Delhi government.
Consider the following statements about the Delhi health announcements of 10 April 2025: 1. About 36 lakh people in Delhi are expected to benefit from AB-PMJAY. 2. ₹1,749 crore has been approved for Delhi under PM-ABHIM. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda cited 36 lakh beneficiaries, and ₹1,749 crore was approved under PM-ABHIM for Urban AAMs, IPHLs and Critical Care Blocks.
At the review with Union Minister Pralhad Joshi on 10 April 2025, Uttar Pradesh reaffirmed its target of how much solar energy capacity?
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Correct answer: C — 22 GW
22 GW of solar energy capacity, according to MNRE.
To what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee reduce the policy repo rate in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6.00 per cent
6.00 per cent, after a 25 basis point cut; 5.75 per cent became the SDF rate and 6.25 per cent the MSF rate and Bank Rate.
Consider the following statements about the RBI MPC meeting of 7-9 April 2025: 1. The MPC changed its policy stance from neutral to accommodative. 2. The repo rate decision was taken by a 4-2 majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The MPC changed its stance from neutral to accommodative, and the repo rate cut was unanimous, not a split vote.
What CPI inflation rate did the RBI project for 2025-26 in its April 2025 policy?
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Correct answer: D — 4.0 per cent
4.0 per cent; 3.6 per cent and 4.4 per cent are the Q1 and Q4 projections, and 6.5 per cent is the GDP growth projection.
The MPC meeting held from 7 to 9 April 2025 was its:
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Correct answer: C — 54th meeting
54th meeting, the first of financial year 2025-26, chaired by Governor Sanjay Malhotra.
Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate Navkar Mahamantra Divas on 9 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, where he also proposed nine resolutions.
Consider the following statements about Navkar Mahamantra Divas, 2025: 1. The Prime Minister proposed nine resolutions, the first being water conservation. 2. According to PIB, people from more than 108 countries joined the global chant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Water conservation was the first of the nine resolutions, and PIB reported participation from more than 108 countries.
Which of the following was NOT among the nine resolutions proposed by the PM on Navkar Mahamantra Divas?
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Correct answer: D — Using only digital payments
Using only digital payments was not among them; the list included tree planting in Mother's name, exploring India and natural farming, along with water conservation, cleanliness, Vocal for Local, healthy lifestyle, yoga and sports, and helping the poor.
The Tirupati-Pakala-Katpadi rail doubling approved in April 2025 lies in which states?
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Correct answer: D — Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu; the 104-km section covers three districts in the two states.
Consider the following statements about the Tirupati-Pakala-Katpadi project: 1. It is the tripling of an existing double line. 2. It covers three districts in two states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The project doubles a single-line section of 104 km, and it covers three districts in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Where was the 3rd BIMSTEC Agriculture Ministerial Meeting held on 9 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Kathmandu
Kathmandu, Nepal; India was represented by Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
Consider the following statements about BIMSTEC Agriculture Ministerial Meetings (BAMM): 1. The first BAMM was held in Thailand. 2. The second BAMM was held in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The second BAMM was held in India on 10 November 2022; the first was held in Myanmar on 12 July 2019.
The Modernization of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM) approved in April 2025 is a sub-scheme of:
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Correct answer: B — Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY); M-CADWM was approved for 2025-26.
What is the initial total outlay approved for M-CADWM for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,600 crore
₹1,600 crore; ₹1,878.31 crore is the Zirakpur bypass and ₹1,332 crore the Tirupati-Pakala-Katpadi doubling, approved the same day.
Consider the following statements about M-CADWM: 1. Irrigation assets are to be transferred to Water User Societies through Irrigation Management Transfer. 2. The initial approval is for a nationwide rollout in every district from 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Assets go to Water User Societies, but the initial approval is for pilot projects through challenge funding to states; a National Plan is to follow from April 2026.
In the first Panchayat Advancement Index (2022-23), which state had the highest number of Front Runner Gram Panchayats?
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Correct answer: C — Gujarat
Gujarat, with 346 Front Runners, followed by Telangana with 270.
The Panchayat Advancement Index measures Gram Panchayats' performance across how many themes of Localised SDGs?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
Nine themes of Localised SDGs, using 435 local indicators.
Consider the following statements about the PAI 2022-23 baseline report: 1. Of about 2.16 lakh validated Gram Panchayats, 699 were Front Runners. 2. Aspirants formed the largest category of Gram Panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. There were 699 Front Runners, and Aspirants (61.2%) outnumbered Performers (35.8%).
The Zirakpur Bypass approved by the CCEA in April 2025 connects which two national highways?
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Correct answer: C — NH-7 and NH-5
NH-7 and NH-5: it starts at the NH-7 (Zirakpur-Patiala) junction and ends at the NH-5 (Zirakpur-Parwanoo) junction in Panchkula.
Under which mode will the Zirakpur Bypass be built?
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Correct answer: D — Hybrid Annuity Mode
Hybrid Annuity Mode, at a total capital cost of ₹1,878.31 crore.
President Droupadi Murmu's visit to Slovakia in April 2025 was the first by an Indian President in how many years?
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Correct answer: D — 29 years
29 years; her visit to Portugal on the same tour was the first by an Indian President in 27 years.
Consider the following MoUs exchanged during President Murmu's talks in Bratislava on 9 April 2025: 1. Cooperation in MSMEs between NSIC and the Slovak Business Agency. 2. Diplomatic training between SSIFS and the Slovak Ministry of Foreign and European Affairs. Which of the above were exchanged?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both were exchanged in the presence of Presidents Murmu and Pellegrini.
According to PLFS 2024, what was the all-India unemployment rate in Current Weekly Status (CWS)?
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Correct answer: C — 4.9%
4.9%, down from 5.0% in 2023; 6.7% is the urban rate and 3.2% the PS+SS rate.
Consider the following statements about PLFS 2024: 1. In CWS, urban female unemployment declined from 8.9% to 8.2%. 2. In Principal and Subsidiary Status (PS+SS), the all-India unemployment rate declined in 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Urban female unemployment (CWS) fell to 8.2%, but the PS+SS unemployment rate rose from 3.1% to 3.2%.
When did the National Statistics Office launch the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)?
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Correct answer: B — April 2017
April 2017, to make labour force data available at more frequent intervals.
The first NoC issued through IWAI's new digital portal in April 2025 was for a jetty at Malim in Goa on which waterway?
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Correct answer: C — River Mandovi (NW-68)
River Mandovi (NW-68); the NoC went to Marina India Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. for a jetty of about ₹8 crore.
Under the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025, a private entity needs a No Objection Certificate from which body to build a terminal on a National Waterway?
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Correct answer: A — Inland Waterways Authority of India
Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), which also developed the new digital portal.
The India-UK Economic and Financial Dialogue held on 9 April 2025 was which edition, and where was it held?
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Correct answer: B — 13th, London
13th, London; it ended with the adoption of a Joint Statement.
Who led the UK delegation at the 13th India-UK Economic and Financial Dialogue?
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Correct answer: A — Rachel Reeves
Rachel Reeves, Chancellor of the Exchequer; the Indian side was led by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
From which date did the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 come into force?
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Correct answer: B — 8 April 2025
8 April 2025, as notified by the Ministry of Minority Affairs under section 1(2); the Act received assent on 5 April 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It received the President's assent on 8 April 2025. 2. It changes the short title of the Waqf Act, 1995 by substituting the words 'Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development' for 'Waqf'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Act received assent on 5 April 2025; 8 April 2025 is the date it came into force.
From which date did the Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Act, 2025 come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 9 April 2025
9 April 2025, under notification S.O. 1676(E) of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, a day after the Waqf (Amendment) Act took effect.
When was the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 8 April 2015
8 April 2015; the scheme completed 10 years on 8 April 2025.
What is the current maximum loan limit under PMMY after the increase announced in the Union Budget 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 lakh
₹20 lakh, raised from ₹10 lakh with effect from 24 October 2024 through the new Tarun Plus category.
Consider the following statements about PMMY: 1. According to the Finance Minister, nearly 68% of MUDRA loan accounts have been sanctioned to women. 2. The Tarun Plus category is open to any first-time borrower. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Tarun Plus (₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh) is only for borrowers who have availed and successfully repaid loans under the Tarun category.
Under PMMY, the Shishu category covers loans up to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹50,000
₹50,000; Kishor covers loans above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh.
Which bench of the Supreme Court delivered the judgment in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu on 8 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan
Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan; the judgment was authored by Justice Pardiwala.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the Supreme Court declare the ten Tamil Nadu Bills deemed to have received assent?
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Correct answer: B — Article 142
Article 142, which empowers the Court to pass orders necessary for doing complete justice.
Consider the following statements about the timelines prescribed in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025): 1. If the Governor withholds assent contrary to the advice of the State Council of Ministers, the Bill must be returned with a message within a maximum of three months. 2. The President is required to decide on Bills reserved under Article 201 within three months, recording reasons for any delay. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Court set a three-month limit for returning a Bill with a message when assent is withheld against advice, and a three-month period for the President under Article 201.
How many re-passed Bills did the Supreme Court declare deemed to have been assented to in its 8 April 2025 judgment?
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Correct answer: D — Ten
Ten; the Assembly had re-passed them on 18 November 2023 and the Governor reserved them for the President on 28 November 2023.
How many Regional Rural Banks were amalgamated in the fourth phase notified on 8 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 26
26 RRBs in 10 states and 1 UT; the total number of RRBs falls from 43 to 28.
After the fourth phase of amalgamation, how many RRBs will function in the country?
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Correct answer: D — 28
28, in 26 states and 2 UTs, with more than 22,000 branches.
Consider the following statements about RRB amalgamation: 1. The fourth phase follows the principle of 'One State One RRB'. 2. In Phase-I (FY 2006 to FY 2010), the number of RRBs was reduced from 196 to 82. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The fourth phase is based on 'One State One RRB', and Phase-I cut RRBs from 196 to 82.
Poshan Pakhwada 2025 was which edition, and when was it held?
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Correct answer: C — 7th, 8-22 April 2025
7th, 8-22 April 2025, organised by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Consider the following about the themes of Poshan Pakhwada 2025: 1. Focus on the First 1000 Days of Life is one of the themes. 2. Universal school breakfast is one of the themes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The four themes were the First 1000 Days, the Poshan Tracker beneficiary module, CMAM, and a healthy lifestyle to address childhood obesity; school breakfast was not among them.