Punjab State Staff Selection Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Where was the 32nd meeting of the Northern Zonal Council held on 17 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Faridabad
Amit Shah chaired the 32nd NZC meeting in Faridabad, Haryana.
According to Amit Shah at the 32nd NZC meeting, what share of the issues discussed in Zonal Council meetings so far has been resolved?
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Correct answer: C — 81.43%
1,303 of the 1,600 issues discussed — 81.43% — have been resolved.
Which of the following Vande Bharat Express trains was flagged off by PM Modi from Varanasi on 8 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Banaras–Khajuraho
The four trains were Banaras–Khajuraho, Firozpur–Delhi, Lucknow–Saharanpur and Ernakulam–Bengaluru.
With the four new trains flagged off on 8 November 2025, the number of operational Vande Bharat trains in India crossed which figure?
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Correct answer: C — 160
PM Modi said that with these four trains, the total number of operational Vande Bharat trains had exceeded 160.
Consider the following trains: 1. Lucknow–Saharanpur Vande Bharat 2. Patna–Howrah Vande Bharat Which of the above was/were among the four Vande Bharat trains flagged off from Varanasi on 8 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Lucknow–Saharanpur was among the four (with Banaras–Khajuraho, Firozpur–Delhi and Ernakulam–Bengaluru); Patna–Howrah was not.
How many stubble burning incidents did Punjab record between 15 September and 6 November 2025, as noted by CAQM?
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Correct answer: C — 3,284
Punjab recorded 3,284 incidents against 5,041 in the same period of 2024; Haryana reported 206 against 888.
How many farm fire incidents did Haryana report between 15 September and 6 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 206
Haryana reported 206 farm fires, against 888 in the same period of 2024, which CAQM credited to incentives and enforcement.
Consider the following statements about the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM): 1. It is constituted under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021. 2. The Act dissolved the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) for the National Capital Region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The CAQM Act, 2021 (Act 29 of 2021) provides for constituting the Commission; it repealed the 1998 order setting up EPCA and dissolved the EPCA for NCR (India Code, PRS).
Haryana, which celebrates Haryana Day on 1 November, was formed in 1966 under which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
Section 3 of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 formed the State of Haryana on the appointed day, 1 November 1966.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Union Territory of Chandigarh was formed on 1 November 1966 under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966. 2. 1 November 2000 was notified as the appointed day of the Madhya Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000, which created Chhattisgarh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Section 4 of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 formed the UT of Chandigarh on 1 November 1966, and MHA notified 1 November 2000 as the appointed day of the Madhya Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000.
Under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the new State of Kerala was formed on 1 November 1956 from which existing State?
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Correct answer: D — Travancore-Cochin
The Act defines the new State of Kerala as corresponding to the existing State of Travancore-Cochin.
At the Chhattisgarh Rajat Mahotsav in Nava Raipur on 1 November 2025, marking 25 years of the state, the PM inaugurated and laid foundation stones for projects worth over:
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Correct answer: A — ₹14,260 crore
PIB reported that the PM inaugurated and laid foundation stones for projects worth over ₹14,260 crore covering roads, industry, healthcare and energy.
Which State is ranked first in Category A of the State Mining Readiness Index released by the Ministry of Mines in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Madhya Pradesh
PIB: the top three in Category A are Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Which States are the top three in Category C of the State Mining Readiness Index?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab, Uttarakhand and Tripura
PIB: in Category C, the top three ranks were obtained by Punjab, Uttarakhand and Tripura; Goa, Uttar Pradesh and Assam top Category B.
Consider the following statements about the State Mining Readiness Index (SMRI): 1. Its release fulfils an announcement made in the Union Budget 2025-26. 2. Its indicators pertain mainly to coal and lignite blocks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: SMRI fulfils the Union Budget 2025-26 announcement; its indicators — auction performance, early mine operationalisation, exploration and sustainable mining — pertain to non-coal minerals.
At the 10 October 2025 review of Delhi-NCR air pollution, which app was designated as the single online app for disseminating the Air Quality Index?
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Correct answer: C — SAMEER
PIB: Bhupender Yadav suggested that the SAMEER app will be the single online app for disseminating the Air Quality Index and directed CAQM to issue instructions accordingly.
Consider the following statements about the Delhi-NCR air pollution review of 10 October 2025: 1. The Minister reviewed the installation of OCEMS in Orange Category industries only. 2. Paddy straw management was reviewed in Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: OCEMS installation was reviewed in Red Category and 17 categories of polluting industries, and paddy straw management was reviewed in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
The Ghatsila (ST) Assembly constituency, where a bye-election was announced on 6 October 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Jharkhand
PIB (ECI): 45-Ghatsila (ST) in Jharkhand fell vacant on the death of Ramdas Soren.
Consider the following statements about the bye-elections announced on 6 October 2025: 1. The Budgam seat in Jammu and Kashmir fell vacant on the resignation of Omar Abdullah. 2. The Anta seat in Rajasthan fell vacant on the death of the sitting member. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): 27-Budgam fell vacant on the resignation of Omar Abdullah; 193-Anta fell vacant on the disqualification of Kanwarlal.
How many officers did the Election Commission decide in September 2025 to deploy as central observers for the Bihar election and bye-elections?
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Correct answer: A — 470
The ECI decided to deploy 470 officers: 320 IAS, 60 IPS and 90 from IRS/IRAS/ICAS and other services.
Under which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 does the Election Commission deploy observers?
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Correct answer: C — Section 20B
Observers are deployed under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951.
Consider the following pairs of assembly constituencies and states/UT where bye-elections were announced in 2025: 1. Ghatsila – Jharkhand 2. Nuapada – Odisha 3. Dampa – Manipur How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: D — Only two
Ghatsila (Jharkhand) and Nuapada (Odisha) are correct; Dampa is in Mizoram, not Manipur.
Farmers of which three states received the 21st instalment of PM-KISAN first, on 26 September 2025, because of recent floods?
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Correct answer: C — Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Uttarakhand
The 21st instalment was prioritised for flood- and landslide-hit Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Uttarakhand.
About how much money was transferred to farmers in the three flood-hit states under the 21st PM-KISAN instalment on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Over ₹540 crore
More than ₹540 crore went to over 27 lakh farmers, including about 2.7 lakh women farmers.
What is the length of the Rajpura–Mohali new rail line sanctioned in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 18 km
The 18 km line will cost ₹443 crore and link the Malwa region directly with Chandigarh.
How many special trains did the Railway Minister announce for Chhath and Diwali 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 12,000
A record 12,000 special trains will run during Chhath and Diwali, up from 7,724 last year.
According to the Railway Minister in September 2025, what is Punjab's railway budget for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5,421 crore
Punjab's railway budget rose to ₹5,421 crore in 2025-26 from an average of ₹225 crore in 2009-14.
After the September 2025 expansion, at how many airports is the Fast Track Immigration–Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP) operational?
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Correct answer: B — 13
With Lucknow, Thiruvananthapuram, Trichy, Kozhikode and Amritsar added on 11 September 2025, Amit Shah said FTI-TTP is operational at a total of 13 airports.
Which of the following airports was NOT among the five added to FTI-TTP on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jaipur
The five airports added were Lucknow, Thiruvananthapuram, Trichy, Kozhikode and Amritsar.
Which two upcoming airports does the Home Ministry plan to integrate with FTI-TTP?
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Correct answer: A — Navi Mumbai and Jewar
Amit Shah said the Ministry of Home Affairs has planned to integrate the programme with the upcoming Navi Mumbai and Jewar airports.
How much financial assistance did the Prime Minister announce for flood-affected Himachal Pradesh on 9 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,500 crore
The PM announced ₹1,500 crore for Himachal Pradesh after an aerial survey and a review meeting in Kangra; ₹1,600 crore was announced for Punjab.
Where did the Prime Minister hold the official flood review meeting in Punjab on 9 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Gurdaspur
After the aerial survey, the PM held an official review meeting in Gurdaspur with officials and elected representatives.
Under which scheme will children orphaned by the 2025 floods and landslides in Himachal Pradesh and Punjab receive comprehensive support, as announced by the PM?
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Correct answer: A — PM CARES for Children scheme
The PM announced comprehensive support under the PM CARES for Children scheme for children orphaned due to the recent floods and landslides.
Consider the following statements about the PM's flood relief announcements of 9 September 2025: 1. The second instalments of SDRF and PM Kisan Samman Nidhi will be released in advance. 2. Damaged houses will be geotagged under PM Awas Yojana for accurate assessment. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the releases say the second instalments of SDRF and PM Kisan Samman Nidhi will be released in advance, and damaged houses will be geotagged under PM Awas Yojana for accurate damage assessment and faster aid.
Where has the Commission for Air Quality Management set up a dedicated year-round cell for paddy stubble management, as announced on 29 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — SAS Nagar (Mohali), Punjab
PIB (29 July 2025): CAQM established a Dedicated CAQM Cell at Kisan Vikas Chamber, Kalkat Bhawan, SAS Nagar (Mohali), Punjab.
Besides paddy stubble management, the new CAQM cell in Mohali will monitor pollution control in identified thermal power plants with a focus on:
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Correct answer: C — Biomass co-firing
PIB: the cell will also monitor and coordinate air pollution control measures in identified thermal power plants, particularly biomass co-firing.
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, the five ex officio State Members of CAQM come from:
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Correct answer: A — Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
CAQM Act, 2021 (Act 29 of 2021), Section 3(2)(c): five ex officio Members who are Chief Secretaries or Secretaries in charge of environment in the NCT of Delhi and the States of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
The Nilambur Assembly constituency, where a bye-election was announced in May 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
35-Nilambur is in Kerala.
The bye-elections announced by the ECI on 25 May 2025 covered how many Assembly constituencies in how many states?
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Correct answer: A — Five constituencies in four states
Five constituencies: Kadi (SC) and Visavadar in Gujarat, Nilambur in Kerala, Ludhiana West in Punjab and Kaliganj in West Bengal.
Consider the following statements about voter enrolment as noted by the ECI in May 2025: 1. Section 14 of the Representation of the People Act 1950 was amended by the Election Laws (Amendment) Act 2021. 2. After the amendment, there are four qualifying dates in a year to enrol as a voter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the ECI release.
What was the total value of the six ODA loan agreements India signed with JICA on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — JPY 191.736 billion
The six loan agreements were worth JPY 191.736 billion in total.
Which project received the largest loan among the six Japanese ODA agreements signed on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Delhi MRTS Project (Phase 4 Additional Corridors) (I)
The Delhi MRTS Phase 4 Additional Corridors (I) loan was the largest at JPY 79.726 billion.
Under the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025, an aquaculture promotion and livelihood improvement project is in which State?
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Correct answer: C — Assam
The Assam State Aquaculture Promotion and Livelihood Improvement Project received JPY 3.580 billion.
Consider the following statements about the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025: 1. Two of the six loans are for projects in Tamil Nadu. 2. The Punjab project financed under these loans is an urban transport project. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Tamil Nadu has two: the Chennai desalination plant and the TN Investment Promotion Program. The Punjab project is for biodiversity and natural resources conservation, not urban transport.
How many new NABL-accredited food testing labs will the Ministry of Food Processing Industries support in 2025-26, as announced on 22 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 100
Ravneet Singh Bittu announced financial support for 100 new NABL-accredited food testing laboratories in 2025-26.
Under which scheme has the Ministry of Food Processing Industries sanctioned 205 food testing laboratory projects, as stated in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana
The labs are part of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana, which allocated ₹503.47 crore for 205 laboratory projects.
In how many phases did all 288 assembly constituencies of Maharashtra vote in the 2024 assembly election?
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Correct answer: D — One
PIB (ECI): all 288 ACs in Maharashtra voted in a single phase on 20 November 2024.
According to the ECI, what was the total value of seizures since the announcement of the Maharashtra and Jharkhand assembly elections and the bye-elections, as of polling day on 20 November 2024?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,139 crore
PIB (ECI): seizure figures crossed ₹1,000 crore and stood at ₹1,139 crore in total since the announcement of the assembly elections and bye-elections.
Consider the following about the by-polls held on 20 November 2024: 1. By-polls were held in 9 assembly constituencies of Uttar Pradesh. 2. The Kedarnath assembly constituency in Uttarakhand also went to by-polls. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (ECI): Uttar Pradesh had polling in 9 ACs, Punjab 4, and Kedarnath (Uttarakhand) and Palakkad (Kerala) also went to by-polls, along with the Nanded Lok Sabha seat.
Which is India's first coastal industrial corridor, as described by DPIIT?
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Correct answer: B — East Coast Economic Corridor
PIB (DPIIT): the East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC) is India's first coastal corridor.
Which was India's first industrial corridor, before the four corridors approved in November 2016?
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Correct answer: D — Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor
PIB (DPIIT): India's first corridor was the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC).
At what MSP was Grade 'A' paddy being procured in Punjab in KMS 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,320 per quintal
PIB (Food): paddy is being purchased at MSP of ₹2,320 per quintal for Grade 'A' paddy.
As of 8 November 2024, how much paddy had FCI and state agencies procured in Punjab in KMS 2024-25?
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Correct answer: D — 120.67 LMT
PIB (Food): of 126.67 LMT arrivals, 120.67 LMT had been procured by state agencies and FCI.
Under the amended rules (November 2024), what is the environmental compensation per stubble-burning incident for a farmer with less than two acres?
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Correct answer: A — ₹5,000
PIB (MoEFCC): for land under two acres the EC was revised from ₹2,500 to ₹5,000 per incident.
For a farmer with more than five acres, the revised environmental compensation for stubble burning (November 2024) is:
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Correct answer: D — ₹30,000
PIB (MoEFCC): for land over five acres the EC was revised from ₹15,000 to ₹30,000 per incident.
Consider the following about the revised environmental compensation for stubble burning (November 2024): 1. The amendment rules were notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. 2. For farmers with two acres or more but less than five acres, the rate is ₹10,000 per incident. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: MoEFCC notified the Amendment Rules on 6 November 2024 (G.S.R. 690(E)); the 2-to-under-5-acre rate went from ₹5,000 to ₹10,000. Both are correct.
How much paddy had FCI and state agencies procured in Punjab in KMS 2024-25 as of 2 November 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 85.41 LMT
PIB (Food & Public Distribution): of 90.69 LMT arrivals, 85.41 LMT had been procured by state agencies and FCI as of 2 November 2024.
At what MSP per quintal was Grade 'A' paddy procured in Punjab in KMS 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — ₹2,320
PIB (Food & Public Distribution): paddy is being purchased at MSP of ₹2,320 for Grade 'A' paddy.
Consider the following about paddy procurement in Punjab for KMS 2024-25: 1. Procurement commenced on 1 October 2024. 2. The Centre fixed an estimated procurement target of 158 LMT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Food & Public Distribution): procurement began on 1 October 2024 (statement 1 correct); the estimated target is 185 LMT, not 158 LMT (statement 2 wrong).
Under which law was the State of Haryana formed on 1 November 1966?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966: s. 2(b) appointed day is 1 November 1966; s. 3 forms the State of Haryana from territories of the existing State of Punjab.
Besides Haryana, which new Union territory was formed on 1 November 1966 under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966?
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Correct answer: D — Chandigarh
Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966, s. 4: a new Union territory to be known as Chandigarh was formed on and from the appointed day.
On which date was the State of Chhattisgarh created?
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Correct answer: C — 1 November 2000
PIB (Vice-President's Secretariat, 2025): the State of Chhattisgarh was created on 1st November 2000; the PM greeted it on its Foundation Day on 1 Nov 2024.