PPSC (Punjab) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What target for Geographical Indication (GI) tags did the Commerce Minister set at the GI Samagam in January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 10,000 GI tags by 2030
PIB 2095279: Piyush Goyal set a target of 10,000 GI tags by 2030.
How many GI tags had been issued by the department as of 22 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 605
PIB 2095279: the number of GI tags issued by the department till date stands at 605.
Consider the following about the GI Samagam (January 2025): 1. It was organised by DPIIT and the India Today Group in New Delhi. 2. A committee will be constituted to oversee the 10,000 GI tag target. 3. Authorised users of GI tags fell over the last 10 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095279: DPIIT and India Today Group organised the Samagam and a committee will oversee the target; authorised users rose from 365 to 29,000.
How many net members did EPFO add in November 2024, as per payroll data released in January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 14.63 lakh
PIB 2095007: EPFO recorded a net addition of 14.63 lakh members in November 2024.
What share of EPFO's new members in November 2024 came from the 18–25 age group?
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Correct answer: B — 54.97%
PIB 2095007: 4.81 lakh new members aged 18–25 made up 54.97% of new members in November 2024.
Consider the following about EPFO payroll data for November 2024: 1. Net member addition was 14.63 lakh. 2. New member enrolment fell compared with October 2024. 3. The 18–25 age group made up less than half of new members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB 2095007: net addition was 14.63 lakh; new members rose 16.58% over October 2024; the 18–25 group was 54.97% of new members.
How many records did MoSPI's eSankhyiki platform hold when the ministry announced the milestone in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 134 million
PIB 2095118: eSankhyiki now has 134 million records within seven months of its June 2024 launch.
eSankhyiki, a platform for statistical data dissemination, belongs to which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
PIB 2095118: eSankhyiki is MoSPI's platform for statistical data dissemination.
From when will the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme, introduced in January 2025, be implemented?
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Correct answer: D — 1 April 2025
PIB 2094862: the DIA Scheme will be implemented with effect from 1 April 2025.
The Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of what size?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ¼ carat (25 cents)
PIB 2094862: the scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of less than ¼ carat (25 cents).
Consider the following about the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme: 1. It mandates an export obligation with 10% value addition. 2. Exporters with Two Star Export House status and above and US$15 million annual exports are eligible. 3. It allows duty-free import of lab-grown diamonds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094862: the scheme requires 10% value addition and is open to Two Star Export Houses with US$15 million exports; it covers natural cut and polished diamonds.
Which body organised the second meeting of the BIMSTEC Expert Group on Cyber Security Cooperation in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Security Council Secretariat
PIB 2095700: the National Security Council Secretariat organised the meeting on 21 January 2025 in New Delhi.
Over what timeframe is the BIMSTEC cyber security Action Plan proposed to be implemented?
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Correct answer: C — 5 years
PIB 2095700: the Action Plan has been proposed to be implemented within 5 years.
Consider the following about the BIMSTEC Expert Group on Cyber Security Cooperation: 1. Its second meeting was held in New Delhi on 21 January 2025. 2. Its first meeting was hosted by India in 2022. 3. The proposed Action Plan covers protection of critical information infrastructure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095700: the second meeting was in New Delhi on 21 January 2025, India hosted the first in 2022, and the Action Plan covers critical information infrastructure.
How many T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks did the Ministry of Defence contract for in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 47
PIB 2094857: the contract is for 47 T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks at ₹1,560.52 crore.
Which unit will supply the 47 T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks to the Indian Army?
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Correct answer: D — Heavy Vehicles Factory, AVNL
PIB 2094857: the contract was signed with Heavy Vehicles Factory, a unit of Armoured Vehicle Nigam Limited.
Under which procurement category was the January 2025 contract for T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks placed?
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Correct answer: C — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
PIB 2094857: the case is a Buy (Indian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured) procurement.
What was the focus of the 27th PM-STIAC meeting held on 21 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Cell and gene therapy
PIB 2094915: the 27th PM-STIAC meeting discussed cell and gene therapy in India.
Who chaired the 27th meeting of PM-STIAC?
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Correct answer: B — Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood
PIB 2094915: the meeting was chaired by Principal Scientific Adviser Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood.
To what level has India's social protection coverage doubled, as acknowledged at the ISSA seminar in New Delhi in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 48.8%
PIB 2094922: India's progress in doubling social protection coverage to 48.8% was acknowledged at the forum.
With which international organisation did the Labour Ministry and ESIC host the January 2025 seminar on social security for informal-sector workers?
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Correct answer: A — International Social Security Association
PIB 2094922: the seminar was hosted by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and ESIC in collaboration with the International Social Security Association (ISSA).
The IndiaAI CyberGuard AI Hackathon is being run by the IndiaAI Mission in collaboration with which body?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C)
PIB 2094900: IndiaAI announced the CyberGuard AI Hackathon in collaboration with I4C.
How many applicants were shortlisted for stage 2 of the IndiaAI CyberGuard AI Hackathon, out of how many submissions?
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Correct answer: D — 20 of 263
PIB 2094900: 263 submissions were received and 20 applicants were shortlisted for stage 2.
About how many cybercrime cases are reported daily on the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal, as cited for the CyberGuard AI Hackathon?
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Correct answer: C — 6,000
PIB 2094900: approximately 6,000 cases are reported daily through the NCRP.
Who administered the presidential oath to Donald Trump on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr.
Congressional Record: Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. administered the presidential oath.
Consider the following statements about the US inauguration on 20 January 2025: 1. Donald Trump was sworn in as the 47th President. 2. The vice-presidential oath to JD Vance was administered by Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. 3. The ceremony was held in the Great Rotunda. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
Congressional Record: Trump was sworn in as the 47th President in the Great Rotunda; Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh, not the Chief Justice, administered Vance's oath.
Who administered the vice-presidential oath to JD Vance on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh
Congressional Record: Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh administered the vice-presidential oath to James David Vance.
The KOICA-assisted project 'Strengthening Vocational Education and Training in Mechatronics in India', for which notes were exchanged on 20 January 2025, will be implemented by NCERT at which institute?
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Correct answer: D — RIE Bhopal
PIB 2095225: NCERT will implement the project at the Regional Institute of Education (RIE), Bhopal.
Consider the following statements about India–Korea development cooperation: 1. The NCERT mechatronics project is the first KOICA-assisted project in India. 2. Korea was designated India's ODA partner in October 2016. 3. India–Korea ties were upgraded to a Special Strategic Partnership in 2018. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095225: it is the first KOICA-assisted project in India and Korea became an ODA partner in October 2016; the Special Strategic Partnership dates from 2015, not 2018.
Who signed the Exchange of Notes for the KOICA mechatronics project on behalf of the Government of India on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Manisha Sinha
PIB 2095225: Manisha Sinha, Additional Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, signed for India.
How many companies were provisionally selected in the third round of the PLI Scheme for White Goods announced on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 24
PIB 2094465: 24 beneficiaries (18 new + 6 existing) were selected, committing ₹3,516 crore.
The PLI Scheme for White Goods covers components of which two products?
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Correct answer: B — Air conditioners and LED lights
PIB 2094465: the PLI Scheme for White Goods covers air conditioners and LED lights.
Consider the following statements about the PLI Scheme for White Goods: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 April 2021 with an outlay of ₹6,238 crore. 2. After the third round, 84 companies under the scheme are set to invest ₹10,478 crore. 3. The scheme runs from FY 2021-22 to FY 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094465: the Cabinet approved it on 7 April 2021 with ₹6,238 crore and 84 companies will invest ₹10,478 crore; the scheme period is FY 2021-22 to FY 2028-29.
Which programme has been included for the first time under the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Aspirational Blocks Programme
PIB 2094589: for the first time, the Aspirational Blocks Programme has been included under the PM's Award Scheme.
How many awards are there under the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 16
PIB 2094589: the 2024 scheme recognises civil servants through 16 awards in three categories.
What prize money will each awardee of the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2024 receive?
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Correct answer: D — ₹20 lakh
PIB 2094589: the prize money for PM's Awards 2024 awardees will be ₹20 lakh each.
Under the e-Office guidelines issued in January 2025, which system are ministries to use for managing office memoranda, circulars and orders?
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Correct answer: A — Knowledge Management System
PIB 2094588: ministries are to use the Knowledge Management System (KMS) for managing OMs, circulars and orders.
As on 20 January 2025, which rabi crop group had a smaller sown area than in the same period a year earlier?
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Correct answer: C — Oilseeds
PIB 2094564: oilseeds were at 97.62 lakh ha against 101.80 lakh ha; wheat, pulses and the total were higher.
What was the area sown under wheat as on 20 January 2025, according to the Agriculture Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — 320 lakh ha
PIB 2094564: wheat covered 320 lakh ha against 315.63 lakh ha a year earlier.
Which three countries mediated the Gaza ceasefire that took effect on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Egypt, Qatar and the United States
UN OCHA: the ceasefire came into effect through mediation by Egypt, Qatar and the United States.
How long is the first phase of the Gaza ceasefire that took effect on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 42 days
UN OCHA: the first phase of the ceasefire is 42 days.
Consider the following statements about the first day of the Gaza ceasefire (19 January 2025): 1. Three Israeli women hostages were handed over via the ICRC. 2. 90 Palestinian detainees were released. 3. Fewer than 100 aid trucks entered Gaza that day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
UN OCHA and UN News: three women hostages were released via the ICRC and 90 Palestinian detainees were freed; more than 630 aid trucks entered Gaza that day.
With which European Commissioner did Piyush Goyal hold a High Level Dialogue in Brussels on 18–19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Maroš Šefčovič
PIB 2094362: Goyal met Maroš Šefčovič, European Commissioner for Trade and Economic Security.
Consider the following statements about the Goyal–Šefčovič High Level Dialogue of January 2025: 1. It was the first in-person meeting between the two leaders. 2. It was held in New Delhi. 3. Goyal outlined six principles for an India–EU partnership. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2094362: it was their first in-person meeting and Goyal outlined six principles; the dialogue was held in Brussels, not New Delhi.
At the January 2025 India–EU High Level Dialogue, Piyush Goyal estimated the combined India–EU market at over how much?
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Correct answer: D — $24 trillion
PIB 2094362: Goyal described the combined market as currently estimated at over $24 trillion, with 2 billion people.
After EPFO's January 2025 simplification of PF transfers, about what share of transfer claims is expected to reach EPFO directly without employer intervention?
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Correct answer: D — 94%
PIB 2094230: over 1.20 crore of 1.30 crore transfer claims, about 94%, are expected to be forwarded directly to EPFO.
What share of EPFO members' grievances relate to PF transfer issues, according to EPFO in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 17%
PIB 2094230: presently 17% of total grievances pertain to transfer-related issues.
Under EPFO's January 2025 profile-update simplification, which members need only employer certification to update their details?
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Correct answer: A — Members with UAN obtained before 1 October 2017
PIB 2094229: where the UAN was obtained prior to 1 October 2017, updation requires certification of the employer only.
About how many EPFO members with pending profile-correction requests benefit immediately from the January 2025 simplification?
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Correct answer: A — 3.9 lakh
PIB 2094229: the revision will immediately benefit around 3.9 lakh members whose requests are pending.
How many property cards did PM Narendra Modi distribute under the SVAMITVA scheme on 18 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Over 65 lakh
PIB (Ministry of Panchayati Raj): over 65 lakh property cards were distributed on 18 January 2025, taking the total to 2.25 crore.
The SVAMITVA scheme is implemented by which Union Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Panchayati Raj
PIB: SVAMITVA is a scheme of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, whose Minister Rajiv Ranjan Singh attended the 18 January 2025 ceremony.
With the 18 January 2025 distribution, the total number of property cards issued under SVAMITVA reached:
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Correct answer: B — 2.25 crore
PIB: the distribution took the total number of property cards under SVAMITVA to 2.25 crore.
Consider the following statements about the SVAMITVA property card distribution on 18 January 2025: 1. It covered more than 50,000 villages across 237 districts. 2. The Union Territories covered were Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. 3. Tamil Nadu and Kerala were among the 10 states covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the ceremony covered 50,000+ villages in 237 districts, in 10 states and the UTs of J&K and Ladakh. The 10 states were Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Mizoram, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, not Tamil Nadu or Kerala.
What monthly stipend does NIXI's Internet Governance Internship (launched January 2025) offer interns?
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Correct answer: A — ₹20,000
PIB (MeitY): a fixed stipend of ₹20,000 per month is provided to interns.
Consider the following statements about NIXI's Internet Governance Internship and Capacity Building Scheme: 1. It has two parallel tracks of six months and three months. 2. It was launched by MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan, who is also NIXI's Chairman. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: the bi-annual internship has six-month and three-month tracks, and it was launched by S. Krishnan, Secretary, MeitY, and Chairman, NIXI.
Who was named vice-captain of India's squad for the ICC Champions Trophy 2025, announced on 18 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Shubman Gill
Sportstar and ET: Rohit Sharma will captain the side, with Shubman Gill as vice-captain.
Under the hybrid model for the ICC Champions Trophy 2025, India's matches are to be played in which city?
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Correct answer: C — Dubai
Sportstar: under the hybrid model agreed by the ICC, India's matches take place in Dubai; ET adds that India meet Pakistan on 23 February in Dubai.
Consider the following statements about the ICC Champions Trophy 2025 as reported at India's squad announcement: 1. The tournament is hosted by Pakistan and the UAE from 19 February to 9 March 2025. 2. India is in Group A with Pakistan, New Zealand and Bangladesh. 3. Mohammed Siraj was named in India's 15-member squad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ET: the tournament runs 19 February–9 March in Pakistan and the UAE, and India is in Group A with Pakistan, New Zealand and Bangladesh. Sportstar: Mohammed Siraj missed out on selection.
Which feature of the Sanchar Saathi mobile app, launched on 17 January 2025, lets users report suspected fraud calls and SMS?
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Correct answer: A — Chakshu
PIB (DoT): Chakshu, Reporting Suspected Fraud Communications, lets users report suspected calls and SMS from the app and phone logs.
Under National Broadband Mission 2.0, operational optical fibre connectivity is to be extended to how many villages by 2030?
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Correct answer: B — 2.70 lakh
PIB: NBM 2.0 targets OFC connectivity to 2.70 lakh villages by 2030 with 95% uptime, from about 50,000 now.
Consider the following targets of National Broadband Mission 2.0 (launched January 2025): 1. Raise the national average fixed broadband download speed to at least 100 Mbps by 2030. 2. Provide broadband to 90% of anchor institutions such as schools, PHCs, anganwadis and panchayat offices by 2030. 3. Power 50% of mobile towers with sustainable energy by 2030. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB: NBM 2.0 targets at least 100 Mbps average fixed broadband speed (from 63.55 Mbps) and broadband to 90% of anchor institutions by 2030; the tower target is 30% on sustainable energy, not 50%.
How many cities entered the newly created Super Swachh League under Swachh Survekshan, announced on 17 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 12
PIB (MoHUA): there are 12 cities in the Super Swachh League.
Which of the following cities is NOT in the million-plus category of the Super Swachh League (Swachh Survekshan, 9th edition)?
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Correct answer: D — Noida
PIB: the million-plus cities in the league are Navi Mumbai, Indore and Surat; Noida is in the big cities (3–10 lakh) category with Chandigarh.
Consider the following statements about the Super Swachh League introduced in Swachh Survekshan: 1. Cities that were in the top 3 in at least 2 of the last 3 years (2021–2023) qualified. 2. Cities in the league must maintain a score of 85% or higher to retain their position. 3. Swachh Survekshan was first launched by MoHUA in 2014. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: cities in the top 3 in at least 2 of 2021–2023 made the cut, and league ULBs must keep 85% or higher. Swachh Survekshan was first launched in 2016.
The Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) signed an MoU with which institution on 17 January 2025 to strengthen PMLA compliance in housing finance?
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Correct answer: C — National Housing Bank
PIB (Finance): FIU-IND and the National Housing Bank signed the MoU in New Delhi.
Under the FIU-IND–NHB MoU of January 2025, how often will the two parties meet to discuss AML/CFT typologies and trends?
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Correct answer: B — Quarterly
PIB: the MoU provides for a quarterly meeting to discuss typologies and trends in AML/CFT crimes and related matters.
With the SpaDeX docking on 16 January 2025, India became which country in the world to achieve space docking?
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Correct answer: B — Fourth
PIB (DoS): India became the fourth country to achieve space docking; The Hindu: after the USA, Russia and China.
Which launch vehicle carried the SpaDeX satellites into orbit on 30 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — PSLV-C60
PIB: ISRO launched the SpaDeX spacecraft on PSLV-C60 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, on 30 December 2024.
In the SpaDeX mission, which satellite acted as the 'Chaser'?
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Correct answer: B — SDX01
ISRO and PIB: the two satellites are SDX01, the Chaser, and SDX02, the Target, each weighing about 220 kg.
Consider the following statements about the SpaDeX mission: 1. Each of the two SpaDeX satellites weighs about 220 kg. 2. The docking sequence moved the spacecraft from a 15-metre to a 3-metre hold point before capture. 3. Power transfer between the docked spacecraft was completed on the same day as docking. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (DoS): each satellite weighs about 220 kg and the spacecraft moved from the 15 m to the 3 m hold point before capture. Undocking and power-transfer checks were scheduled for the coming days, not done on 16 January.
The Ministry of Defence signed a ₹2,960 crore contract on 16 January 2025 with which company for MRSAM missiles for the Indian Navy?
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Correct answer: C — Bharat Dynamics Limited
PIB (MoD): the contract for MRSAM for the Indian Navy was signed with Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL).
Under which procurement category will BDL supply the MRSAM missiles under the January 2025 contract?
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Correct answer: D — Buy (Indian)
PIB: the missiles will be supplied by BDL under the 'Buy (Indian)' category with largely indigenous content.
Vineet Joshi, who took charge as Secretary, Department of Higher Education on 16 January 2025, was earlier the Chief Secretary of which state?
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Correct answer: A — Manipur
PIB (Education): before this appointment, Vineet Joshi served as the Chief Secretary of Manipur.
Which of the following posts has Vineet Joshi NOT held, as per the January 2025 release on his appointment?
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Correct answer: C — Chairman, UGC
PIB: Joshi has been DG of NTA, Chairman of CBSE and Additional Secretary in the Ministry of Education; Chairman of UGC is not listed.
India's cumulative exports (merchandise and services) during April–December 2024 were estimated at about:
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Correct answer: C — USD 602.64 billion
PIB (Commerce): April–December 2024 total exports were estimated at USD 602.64 billion, up 6.03%.
By what percentage did India's merchandise exports grow in April–December 2024 over the same period of 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 1.6%
PIB: Merchandise exports were USD 321.71 billion vs USD 316.65 billion, a growth of 1.6%.
Consider the following statements about India's trade data released on 15 January 2025: 1. Total exports in April–December 2024 grew by 6.03%. 2. Non-petroleum exports in December 2024 were USD 33.09 billion. 3. Merchandise exports in April–December 2024 declined over the previous year. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Merchandise exports rose 1.6%, so statement 3 is wrong; 1 and 2 match the PIB release.
What is the total prize money of the Cyber Security Grand Challenge 2.0 launched by MeitY on 15 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹6.85 crore
PIB: CSGC 2.0 carries ₹6.85 crore, up from ₹3.2 crore in the first edition.
Which organisation is implementing the Cyber Security Grand Challenge 2.0?
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Correct answer: B — Data Security Council of India (DSCI)
PIB: CSGC 2.0 is being implemented by the Data Security Council of India.
Consider the following statements about the Cyber Security Grand Challenge 2.0: 1. Participants work on six problem statement areas. 2. The IPR of the product developed is owned by the startup. 3. Registration was open until 14 February 2025. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: six problem areas, IPR owned by the startup and registration from 15 January to 14 February 2025; all three are correct.