GPSC (Gujarat) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was the theme of the 6th BIMSTEC Summit held in Bangkok on 4 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BIMSTEC: Prosperous, Resilient and Open
PIB (PMO): the theme of the Summit was "BIMSTEC: Prosperous, Resilient and Open".
BODHI, the skilling initiative India announced at the 6th BIMSTEC Summit, stands for:
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Correct answer: C — BIMSTEC for Organised Development of Human Resource Infrastructure
PIB (PMO): BODHI is "BIMSTEC for Organised Development of Human resource Infrastructure"; 300 youth from BIMSTEC countries will be trained in India every year.
At the 6th BIMSTEC Summit, India announced it would host the first BIMSTEC Games in:
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Correct answer: A — 2027
PIB (PMO): India would host the first BIMSTEC Games in 2027, when the group celebrates its 30th anniversary.
Consider the following about the 6th BIMSTEC Summit (4 April 2025): 1. It adopted the BIMSTEC Bangkok Vision 2030 document. 2. The BIMSTEC Maritime Transport Agreement was signed. 3. It adopted the report of the BIMSTEC Eminent Persons Group. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (PMO): the Summit adopted the Summit Declaration, the Bangkok Vision 2030 document, the signing of the Maritime Transport Agreement and the report of the Eminent Persons Group. All three are correct.
What is the approximate total cost of the four railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 4 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Rs 18,658 crore
PIB (CCEA): the four projects have a total cost of about Rs 18,658 crore and will be completed up to 2030-31.
The four railway multitracking projects approved on 4 April 2025 cover districts in which three states?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra, Odisha and Chhattisgarh
PIB (CCEA): the four projects cover 15 districts in Maharashtra, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
The railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 4 April 2025 will enhance connectivity to which two Aspirational Districts?
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Correct answer: B — Gadchiroli and Rajnandgaon
PIB (CCEA): the projects will enhance connectivity to two Aspirational Districts, Gadchiroli and Rajnandgaon, with 19 new stations.
On 4 April 2025, the technology of CSIR's HANSA-3(NG) trainer aircraft was licensed to:
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Correct answer: D — Pioneer Clean Amps Pvt Ltd
PIB (MoST): the licensing of the HANSA-3(NG) two-seater trainer aircraft has been granted to M/s Pioneer Clean Amps Pvt. Ltd.
Which CSIR laboratory developed the HANSA-3(NG) trainer aircraft?
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Correct answer: B — CSIR-NAL
PIB (MoST): the Civil Aviation Minister complimented CSIR and CSIR-NAL scientists for commercialisation of HANSA-3(NG), and CSIR-NAL has received LoIs for 110+ aircraft.
Which engine powers the HANSA-3(NG) trainer aircraft, whose technology was transferred on 4 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Rotax 912 iSc3 Sports
PIB (MoST): the HANSA-3(NG) is powered by an advanced fuel-efficient Rotax 912 iSc3 Sports engine.
How many wagons did Indian Railways produce in FY 2024-25, an all-time high?
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Correct answer: D — 41,929
PIB (Railways): Indian Railways produced an all-time high of 41,929 wagons in FY 2024-25.
According to the Railways Ministry, what was the total wagon production of Indian Railways over the three years 2022-23 to 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 1,02,369
PIB (Railways): 22,790 (2022-23) + 37,650 (2023-24) + 41,929 (2024-25) = 1,02,369 wagons in the last three years.
During PM Modi's visit to Bangkok on 3 April 2025, India and Thailand elevated their relationship to a:
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Correct answer: D — Strategic Partnership
PIB (PMO): the two leaders witnessed the exchange of the Joint Declaration on the Establishment of the India-Thailand Strategic Partnership.
An India-Thailand MoU signed on 3 April 2025 concerns the development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex at:
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Correct answer: C — Lothal
PIB (PMO), list of outcomes: an MoU between the Sagarmala Division of the Ports Ministry and Thailand's Fine Arts Department for development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal, Gujarat.
Which Buddhist scripture did Thai Prime Minister Paetongtarn Shinawatra present to PM Modi on 3 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tipitaka in Pali
PIB (PMO): PM Modi was presented a special edition of the Buddhist holy scriptures, the Tipitaka in Pali, by PM Shinawatra.
During PM Modi's visit on 3 April 2025, India welcomed Thailand's decision to co-lead which pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans' Initiative (IPOI)?
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Correct answer: B — Maritime Ecology
PIB (PMO), PM's press statement: India welcomed Thailand's decision to co-lead the 'Maritime Ecology' Pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans' Initiative.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Thailand on 3 April 2025: 1. An MoU between India's MeitY and Thailand's Ministry of Digital Economy and Society on digital technologies. 2. An MoU between India's NSIC and Thailand's OSMEP on MSMEs. 3. An MoU between India's Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region and Thailand's Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO), list of outcomes: the MeitY-MDES digital MoU and the NSIC-OSMEP MSME MoU were signed. The MDoNER MoU was with Thailand's Ministry of Foreign Affairs, not the Ministry of Culture, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Protection of Interest in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament in April 2025, builds on which international convention?
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Correct answer: A — Cape Town Convention, 2001
PIB (Civil Aviation): the Bill builds on the framework of the Cape Town Convention of 2001, which aimed to simplify and standardise international leasing agreements.
In which year did India formally adopt the Cape Town Convention, according to the Civil Aviation Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — 2008
PIB (Civil Aviation): India formally adopted the Cape Town Convention in 2008, but gaps in legal enforcement led to higher leasing costs.
According to the Civil Aviation Ministry, gaps in enforcing the Cape Town Convention made aircraft leasing for Indian carriers typically how much costlier than in other nations?
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Correct answer: C — 8 to 10 percent
PIB (Civil Aviation): India adopted the Cape Town Convention in 2008, but gaps in legal enforcement led to leasing costs typically 8 to 10 percent higher than other nations.
Consider the following censuses supported by the Water Resource Census portal launched on 3 April 2025: 1. 7th Minor Irrigation Census 2. 2nd Census of Water Bodies 3. 1st Census of Springs Which of the above are covered?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Jal Shakti): the portal aids the 7th Minor Irrigation Census, the 2nd Census of Water Bodies, the 1st Census of Springs and the 1st Census of Major and Medium Irrigation Projects. All three listed are covered.
What is the reference year for the censuses run through the Water Resource Census portal launched in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Agricultural year 2023-24
PIB (Jal Shakti): the reference year is the 2023-24 agricultural year (July 2023 to June 2024) under the Irrigation Census Scheme.
How are the censuses supported by the Water Resource Census portal, launched on 3 April 2025, funded?
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Correct answer: D — 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme
PIB (Jal Shakti): the census is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme, with agricultural year 2023-24 as the reference year under the Irrigation Census Scheme.
The joint expedition to Mount Kangchenjunga flagged off on 3 April 2025 comprises mountaineers from the Indian Army and the army of:
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Correct answer: B — Nepal
PIB (Defence): the joint Indo-Nepal expedition to Mount Kangchenjunga features 12 mountaineers from the Indian Army and six from the Nepali Army.
The Indian Army's Everest expedition flagged off on 3 April 2025 will follow which route?
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Correct answer: B — South Col route
PIB (Defence): the Indian Army's 34-member Mount Everest expedition will follow the traditional South Col Route.
As stated by the Defence Ministry while flagging off the April 2025 expeditions, what is the height of Mount Kangchenjunga?
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Correct answer: C — 8,586 m
PIB (Defence): Rajnath Singh flagged off expeditions to Mount Everest (8,848 m) and Mount Kangchenjunga (8,586 m).
Under US Executive Order 14257 of 2 April 2025, from which date did the 10% baseline tariff on imports from all trading partners apply?
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Correct answer: B — 5 April 2025
White House (EO 14257): the additional 10% ad valorem duty applies to goods entered on or after 12:01 a.m. EDT on 5 April 2025; country-specific Annex I rates apply from 9 April 2025.
Under which US law did the President declare a national emergency in the reciprocal-tariff Executive Order of 2 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — International Emergency Economic Powers Act
White House (EO 14257): the order invokes the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) and the National Emergencies Act, and declares a national emergency with respect to the trade-deficit threat.
'Mission 500', recalled in India's official response to the US reciprocal tariffs, aims to raise India-US bilateral trade to US$ 500 billion by:
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Correct answer: C — 2030
PIB (Commerce): the leaders announced 'Mission 500' on 13 February 2025, aiming to more than double bilateral trade to US$ 500 billion by 2030.
Under US Executive Order 14257 of 2 April 2025, the higher country-specific reciprocal tariff rates listed in Annex I were to apply from:
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Correct answer: D — 12:01 a.m. EDT, 9 April 2025
Executive Order 14257 (White House): the 10% baseline applied from 12:01 a.m. EDT on 5 April 2025, and the country-specific Annex I rates from 12:01 a.m. EDT on 9 April 2025.
Consider the following goods with respect to the reciprocal tariffs under US Executive Order 14257: 1. Steel and aluminium articles already subject to Section 232 duties 2. Copper, pharmaceuticals and semiconductors listed in Annex II 3. All agricultural products Which of the above are exempted from the reciprocal tariffs by the order?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Executive Order 14257: exempted goods include steel and aluminium articles and automobiles subject to Section 232 duties of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962, and Annex II products such as copper, pharmaceuticals, semiconductors, lumber, certain critical minerals and energy. The order has no blanket exemption for agricultural products.
How many kilometres of national highways did NHAI construct in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 5,614 km
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI constructed 5,614 km of national highways in FY 2024-25 against the target of 5,150 km.
Which of the following modes did NHAI use to monetise assets worth ₹28,724 crore in FY 2024-25? 1. Toll Operate Transfer 2. Infrastructure Investment Trust 3. Toll securitisation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI leveraged three modes for monetisation, Toll Operate Transfer (TOT), Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT) and Toll Securitisation, for a total of ₹28,724 crore.
NHAI's capital expenditure in FY 2024-25, an all-time high, was over:
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,50,000 crore
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI's capital expenditure reached an all-time high of over ₹2,50,000 crore (provisional) against a target of ₹2,40,000 crore, up from ₹2,07,000 crore in FY 2023-24.
How many locomotives did Indian Railways produce in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — 1,681
PIB (Railways): Indian Railways produced a record 1,681 locomotives in FY 2024-25, up from 1,472 in FY 2023-24.
Which unit produced the most locomotives (700) in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — Chittaranjan Locomotive Works
PIB (Railways): Chittaranjan Locomotive Works manufactured 700 locomotives, Banaras 477, Patiala 304, and Madhepura and Marhowrah 100 each.
Which locomotive class accounted for the largest number (1,047) of the 1,681 locomotives produced by Indian Railways in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — WAG-9/9H
PIB (Railways): of the 1,681 locomotives, 1,047 were WAG-9/9H freight locomotives, followed by 272 WAP-7 and 148 WAG-9 Twin.
MOIL, which reported record output in FY 2024-25, is mainly a producer of which ore?
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Correct answer: D — Manganese ore
PIB (Steel): MOIL recorded its best-ever performance with record manganese ore production of 18.02 lakh tonnes and record manganese ore sales.
What was MOIL's manganese ore production in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 18.02 lakh tonnes
PIB (Steel): MOIL's manganese ore production was a record 18.02 lakh tonnes, 2.7% higher year on year; 15.87 lakh tonnes was the sales figure.
Besides manganese ore, MOIL reported record production of which product in FY 2024-25, at 12,000 MT?
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Correct answer: D — Ferro manganese
PIB (Steel): MOIL recorded ferro manganese production of 12,000 MT in FY'25, 18% higher year-on-year.
With which company did the Indian Navy sign a Make-I Project Sanction Order on 2 April 2025 to develop a 6 MW marine diesel engine?
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Correct answer: D — Kirloskar Oil Engines Limited
PIB (Defence): the Project Sanction Order under Make-I was inked between the Indian Navy and Kirloskar Oil Engines Limited.
Consider the following statements about the 6 MW marine diesel engine project signed on 2 April 2025: 1. The prototype will have over 50% indigenous content. 2. The Government of India will fund 70% of the ₹270 crore cost. 3. The engines are meant only for Indian Navy submarines. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): the prototype has over 50% indigenous content and 70% funding from the Government. Statement 3 is incorrect: the engines are for main propulsion and power generation on Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard ships.
Besides the 6 MW prototype, the Project Sanction Order signed with Kirloskar Oil Engines on 2 April 2025 also covers detailed design for diesel engines of which range?
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Correct answer: B — 3-10 MW
PIB (Defence): the order also includes development of detailed design for 3-10 MW diesel engines.
India's defence exports in the financial year 2024-25 reached a record of about:
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Correct answer: B — ₹23,622 crore
PIB (Defence): defence exports surged to a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25, up from ₹21,083 crore in FY 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports in FY 2024-25: 1. The private sector contributed more than the Defence PSUs. 2. Defence PSU exports grew by more than 40%. 3. Exports went to more than 100 countries. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): the private sector contributed ₹15,233 crore and DPSUs ₹8,389 crore, with DPSU exports up 42.85%. Statement 3 is incorrect: items were exported to around 80 countries.
By 2029, India aims to raise its annual defence exports to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹50,000 crore
PIB (Defence): the Raksha Mantri said India is marching towards achieving the target of increasing defence exports to ₹50,000 crore by 2029.
According to the Coal Ministry, India's provisional coal production in FY 2024-25 was about:
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Correct answer: D — 1,047.57 million tonnes
PIB (Coal): cumulative coal production in FY 2024-25 reached 1,047.57 MT (provisional), compared to 997.83 MT in FY 2023-24. 1,024.99 MT was the dispatch figure.
By how much did India's coal production grow in FY 2024-25 over FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: B — 4.99%
PIB (Coal): production grew 4.99%, from 997.83 MT to 1,047.57 MT. The 5.34% figure was the growth in dispatch.
How much renewable energy capacity did India add in FY 2024-25, according to the MNRE?
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Correct answer: D — 25 GW
PIB (MNRE): the country added an unprecedented 25 GW of renewable energy capacity in FY 2024-25, against 18.57 GW in the previous year.
India's solar module manufacturing capacity in March 2025, as reported by the MNRE, was about:
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Correct answer: C — 74 GW
PIB (MNRE): solar module manufacturing capacity nearly doubled from 38 GW in March 2024 to 74 GW in March 2025; 25 GW is the PV cell capacity.
During FY 2024-25, India's installed solar capacity crossed which milestone?
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Correct answer: D — 100 GW
PIB (MNRE): the country achieved the significant milestone of surpassing 100 GW of installed solar capacity this year.
The NITI NCAER States Economic Forum portal, launched on 1 April 2025, mainly provides data and analysis on:
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Correct answer: B — State finances
PIB (NITI Aayog): the portal is a comprehensive repository of data on social, economic and fiscal parameters, research reports, papers and expert commentary on State Finances.
The NITI NCAER States Economic Forum portal covers state finance data for which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1990-91 to 2022-23
PIB (NITI Aayog): the portal covers a period of about 30 years, i.e. 1990-91 to 2022-23.
What is the outlay of the PM E-DRIVE Scheme notified by the Ministry of Heavy Industries in September 2024?
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Correct answer: C — ₹10,900 crore
PIB (Heavy Industries): PM E-DRIVE was notified on 29.09.2024 with an outlay of ₹10,900 crore over two years up to 31.03.2026.
Which scheme was subsumed in the PM E-DRIVE Scheme, according to the Ministry of Heavy Industries?
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Correct answer: A — Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme (EMPS) 2024
PIB (Heavy Industries): the Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme (EMPS) 2024, implemented from 01.04.2024 to 30.09.2024, is subsumed in the PM E-DRIVE scheme.
India and Chile signed an MoU between Hindustan Copper Ltd. and which Chilean company during President Gabriel Boric's State visit in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — CODELCO
PIB (PMO), list of outcomes: one of the four documents was an MoU between CODELCO and Hindustan Copper Ltd. (HCL).
Consider the following statements about Chilean President Gabriel Boric's State visit to India in April 2025: 1. It marked 76 years of India-Chile diplomatic relations. 2. It was President Boric's first visit to India. 3. A Letter of Intent on Antarctica cooperation was among the outcomes. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (PMO): the visit commemorated 76 years of diplomatic relations, it was President Boric's first visit to India, and a Letter of Intent on Antarctica Cooperation was listed among the outcomes. All three statements are correct.
Which Indian body signed a disaster-management MoU with Chile's SENAPRED during the April 2025 State visit?
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Correct answer: C — National Disaster Management Authority
PIB (PMO), list of outcomes: an MoU was signed between Chile's National Service for Disaster Prevention and Response (SENAPRED) and the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
On which date did the Rajya Sabha pass the Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2025
PIB (Cooperation): the Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 1 April 2025 after the MoS replied to the discussion; the Lok Sabha had passed it on 26 March 2025.
During the Rajya Sabha debate on the Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, how many trained youth did the government say the cooperative sector will need in the next five years?
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Correct answer: A — About 17 lakh
PIB (Cooperation): the MoS said the cooperative sector will need about 17 lakh trained youth in the next five years, which is why the university is being set up.
How many child adoptions were recorded in India in FY 2024-25, the highest since 2015-16?
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Correct answer: B — 4,515
PIB (WCD): India recorded 4,515 child adoptions in FY 2024-25, the highest since 2015-16; 4,155 were domestic and 8,598 children were newly identified.
Which portal of the Central Adoption Resource Authority received foster care and foster adoption modules in 2024?
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Correct answer: A — CARINGS
PIB (WCD): in 2024, CARA introduced Foster Care and Foster Adoption Modules on the CARINGS portal.
After empanelling 15 more banks on 1 April 2025, how many banks can collect EPFO contributions?
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Correct answer: B — 32
PIB (Labour): EPFO had already empanelled 17 banks; the 15 newly empanelled banks take the total to 32.
How many claims did EPFO settle in FY 2024-25, according to the Labour Minister?
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Correct answer: A — Over 6 crore
PIB (Labour): EPFO settled a record of over 6 crore claims in FY 2024-25, a 35% increase over the 4.45 crore settled in 2023-24; 2.34 crore were auto-settled.
From 1 April 2025, the price of APM natural gas from old nomination fields was raised to what level?
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Correct answer: D — $6.75 per mmBtu
PPAC notified a rise from $6.50 to $6.75 per mmBtu effective 1 April 2025.
Which body of the Petroleum Ministry notified the APM gas price revision on 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell
The notification came from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC).
Under the April 2023 pricing formula, domestic APM gas is priced at what share of the monthly average import price of crude oil?
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Correct answer: B — 10%
The formula prices domestic gas at 10% of the monthly average crude import price, subject to a floor and ceiling.
Consider the following statements about APM gas pricing: 1. The April 2023 formula, which followed the Kirit Parikh committee review, set a floor of $4 and a ceiling of $6.50 per mmBtu. 2. PPAC's formula price for April 2025 was below the new ceiling of $6.75 per mmBtu. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The April 2023 formula had a $4 floor and a $6.50 ceiling. PPAC said the formula price for April 2025 was $7.26, above the ceiling, so the $6.75 cap applied.
Where in Mandalay was the Indian Army field hospital sent under Operation Brahma allocated space on 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Old Mandalay Airfield
The Army said the field hospital was allocated space at the Old Mandalay Airfield, where a non-operational 200-bed hospital building exists.
Which two Indian Navy ships reached Yangon on the night of 31 March 2025 with about 40 tonnes of relief material?
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Correct answer: C — INS Satpura and INS Savitri
The Hindu reported that INS Satpura and INS Savitri arrived at Yangon on the night of 31 March with about 40 tonnes of relief.
How many Indian Army field-hospital personnel and NDRF personnel reached Mandalay in the 31 March 2025 convoy?
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Correct answer: B — 110 Army and 13 NDRF
The Army said 110 field-hospital personnel and 13 NDRF personnel reached Mandalay.
Consider the following statements about Operation Brahma: 1. It is being carried out under the direction of the Ministry of External Affairs with HQ Integrated Defence Staff, the Army, the IAF and the NDRF. 2. The Indian Army field-hospital convoy reached Mandalay by sea through the port of Mandalay. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The operation runs under MEA direction with HQ IDS, the Army, the IAF and the NDRF. Mandalay is inland; the convoy went by road in Myanmar Army trucks, buses and NDRF vehicles.
For how long did a Paris court bar Marine Le Pen from public office on 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Five years
The court imposed a five-year ban on holding public office with immediate effect.
Marine Le Pen was convicted on 31 March 2025 of embezzling funds belonging to which institution?
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Correct answer: C — The European Parliament
She was convicted of misusing European Parliament (EU) funds meant for parliamentary assistants to pay party staff in France.
Marine Le Pen, convicted by a Paris court on 31 March 2025, leads which French party?
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Correct answer: D — National Rally
Le Pen leads the far-right National Rally (Rassemblement National), which was itself fined €2 million.
According to provisional figures released on 31 March 2025, IREDA's loan sanctions for FY 2024-25 stood at about how much?
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Correct answer: D — ₹47,453 crore
Sanctions rose 27% to ₹47,453 crore; ₹30,168 crore was disbursements and ₹76,250 crore the loan book.
Who was the Chairman and Managing Director of IREDA when it announced its FY 2024-25 provisional results on 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Pradip Kumar Das
The PIB release quotes CMD Pradip Kumar Das.
According to the Ministry of Mines on 30 March 2025, which mineral recorded the highest growth (12.8%) in April–February of FY 2024-25 among those listed?
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Correct answer: B — Manganese ore
Manganese ore rose 12.8% to 3.4 MMT; iron ore rose 4.4%, bauxite 3.6% and lead concentrate 3.5%.
According to the Ministry of Mines, what is India's global rank in primary aluminium production?
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Correct answer: D — Second
The ministry said India is the 2nd largest aluminium producer and the 4th largest iron ore producer.
Exercise INIOCHOS-25, in which the IAF took part from 31 March 2025, was held in which country?
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Correct answer: B — Greece
INIOCHOS-25 was hosted by the Hellenic Air Force at Andravida Air Base, Greece.
Which IAF fighter aircraft was part of the Indian contingent at Exercise INIOCHOS-25?
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Correct answer: D — Su-30 MKI
The IAF fielded Su-30 MKI fighters with IL-78 and C-17 aircraft as enablers.
Consider the following statements about Exercise INIOCHOS: 1. It is a biennial multinational air exercise hosted by the Hellenic Air Force. 2. The 2025 edition was conducted from Andravida Air Base with assets from fifteen countries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The MoD described INIOCHOS as a biennial exercise hosted by the Hellenic Air Force; the 2025 edition integrated assets from fifteen countries, with all operations from Andravida.
Who beat Novak Djokovic in the Miami Open 2025 men's singles final on 30 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Jakub Menšík
Jakub Menšík won 7-6(4), 7-6(4) for his first ATP title.
Losing the Miami Open 2025 final on 30 March 2025 denied Novak Djokovic which milestone?
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Correct answer: D — His 100th career title
Djokovic was seeking his 100th career title and a record seventh Miami Open title.
What theme for International Day of Yoga 2025 did PM Modi announce in Mann Ki Baat on 30 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Yoga for One Earth, One Health
The PM said the IDY 2025 theme is 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'.
Which institute under the Ministry of Ayush was entrusted with organising International Day of Yoga 2025 activities?
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Correct answer: D — Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga
The Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga (MDNIY) was entrusted with organising IDY 2025 activities.
In Mann Ki Baat on 30 March 2025, PM Modi mentioned a team called 'Somos India' promoting yoga and Ayurveda in which country?
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Correct answer: A — Chile
He spoke of Ayurveda's growing popularity in Chile and the 'Somos India' team there.