Delhi Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
On which date was polling scheduled for the Delhi Legislative Assembly election announced by the ECI on 7 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 5 February 2025
ECI Press Note 169/2025: date of poll 05.02.2025; counting 08.02.2025.
How many of the 70 Delhi Assembly seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes, as per the ECI press note of 7 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 12
ECI: NCT of Delhi has 70 Assembly seats, of which 12 are reserved for SCs and none for STs.
Consider the following statements about the Delhi Assembly election 2025, as per the ECI press note of 7 January 2025: 1. Delhi has over 1.55 crore electors. 2. There are 13,033 polling stations. 3. Counting of votes was scheduled for 8 February 2025. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
ECI: 1,55,37,634 electors, 13,033 polling stations, and counting on 08.02.2025 — all three correct.
What real GDP growth rate for 2024-25 did the NSO's First Advance Estimates, released on 7 January 2025, project?
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Correct answer: D — 6.4%
PIB (MoSPI): real GDP is estimated to grow by 6.4% in 2024-25, against 8.2% in the Provisional Estimate for 2023-24.
As per the First Advance Estimates for 2024-25, what is the estimated growth of real GVA in agriculture and allied sectors?
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Correct answer: A — 3.8%
PIB (MoSPI): real GVA of agriculture and allied sectors is estimated to grow by 3.8% in 2024-25, against 1.4% in 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about the First Advance Estimates of GDP for 2024-25: 1. Nominal GDP is estimated to grow by 9.7%. 2. Private Final Consumption Expenditure at constant prices is estimated to grow by 4.0%. 3. Real GVA of construction is estimated to grow by 8.6%. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (MoSPI): nominal GDP 9.7% and construction 8.6% are correct; PFCE grows 7.3% in 2024-25 (4.0% was the previous year's rate).
Before his appointment as Secretary, Department of Space on 7 January 2025, V. Narayanan headed which ISRO centre?
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Correct answer: A — Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre
The Hindu, Indian Express (quoting the ACC order) and ISRO: Narayanan was Director, Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), Valiamala.
For what period was V. Narayanan appointed Secretary, Department of Space and Chairman, Space Commission by the ACC order of January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Two years from 14 January 2025, or until further orders
The Hindu and Indian Express quote the ACC order: two years with effect from 14.01.2025, or until further orders, whichever is earlier.
Consider the following statements about V. Narayanan, appointed Space Secretary in January 2025: 1. He joined ISRO in 1984. 2. He completed his M.Tech in Cryogenic Engineering and Ph.D. in Aerospace Engineering at IIT Kharagpur. 3. He succeeded K. Sivan as Space Secretary. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: he joined ISRO in 1984 and studied at IIT Kharagpur; The Hindu and Indian Express: he succeeds S. Somanath, not K. Sivan.
Which agency developed the BHARATPOL portal launched by Amit Shah on 7 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Central Bureau of Investigation
PIB (MHA): the BHARATPOL portal was developed by the CBI.
BHARATPOL connects Indian agencies with INTERPOL's network of how many countries?
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Correct answer: B — 195
PIB (MHA): BHARATPOL connects investigative agencies and State police to the INTERPOL network of 195 countries.
Consider the following statements about BHARATPOL: 1. It was inaugurated at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. 2. It gives access to 19 types of INTERPOL databases. 3. Its five modules include Connect, INTERPOL Notices, References, Broadcast and Resources. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MHA): all three are stated in the release.
Who co-chaired the first India–Malaysia Security Dialogue in New Delhi on 7 January 2025 from the Indian side?
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Correct answer: C — Ajit Doval
MEA: the dialogue was co-chaired by NSA Ajit Doval and Raja Dato Nushirwan Bin Zainal Abidin, DG of Malaysia's National Security Council.
India–Malaysia ties were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership during which visit, from which the 2025 Security Dialogue emerged?
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Correct answer: D — PM Anwar Ibrahim's visit to India, August 2024
MEA: the dialogue is an outcome of PM Anwar Ibrahim's visit to India in August 2024, when ties were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.
Consider the following statements about the first India–Malaysia Security Dialogue: 1. Both sides agreed to institutionalise it with annual meetings. 2. They explored cooperation in critical minerals and rare earths. 3. It was held in Kuala Lumpur. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
MEA: statements 1 and 2 are correct; the dialogue was held in New Delhi, not Kuala Lumpur.
Which MeitY project was used to make the e-Shram portal available in all 22 Scheduled Languages on 7 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhashini
PIB (Labour): MeitY's Bhashini project was leveraged to upgrade the e-Shram portal to 22 languages.
Before the January 2025 upgrade, the e-Shram portal was available in English, Hindi and which two other languages?
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Correct answer: A — Kannada and Marathi
PIB (Labour): the previous version was available only in English, Hindi, Kannada and Marathi.
Access to how many Central Government schemes had been facilitated through the e-Shram portal, as stated on 7 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Twelve
PIB (Labour): access to twelve schemes of the Government of India has been facilitated through the e-Shram portal.
António Costa, who called PM Modi on 7 January 2025, holds which post?
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Correct answer: B — President of the European Council
PIB (PMO): António Costa is President of the European Council; the PM congratulated him on assuming charge.
During the 7 January 2025 call between PM Modi and António Costa, where was the next India–EU Summit said to be held?
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Correct answer: C — India
PIB (PMO): the leaders looked forward to the next India–EU Summit to be held in India at a mutually convenient time.
Which agreement did PM Modi and António Costa underline the need to conclude early during their call on 7 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — India–EU Free Trade Agreement
PIB (PMO): the leaders underlined the need for early conclusion of a mutually beneficial India–EU FTA.
What step did US NSA Jake Sullivan announce in New Delhi on 6 January 2025 to promote civil nuclear cooperation with India?
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Correct answer: D — Efforts to finalise steps to delist Indian nuclear entities
MEA joint press release: Sullivan announced US efforts to finalise necessary steps to delist Indian nuclear entities.
The India–US Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET) was launched on the sidelines of which summit?
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Correct answer: A — Quad Summit in Tokyo, May 2022
MEA: iCET was launched by PM Modi and President Biden on the sidelines of the Quad Summit in Tokyo on 24 May 2022.
Under which regime did the US brief India on updated missile export control policies on 6 January 2025 to boost commercial space cooperation?
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Correct answer: B — Missile Technology Control Regime
MEA: Sullivan briefed India on updates to US missile export control policies under the MTCR that will boost US commercial space cooperation with India.
What is the name of the new UGC auditorium inaugurated by Dharmendra Pradhan on 6 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Pushpagiri
PIB (Education): Pradhan inaugurated 'Pushpagiri', the new auditorium of UGC.
The draft UGC Regulations, 2025 released on 6 January 2025 mainly concern which subject?
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Correct answer: A — Minimum qualifications for appointment and promotion of teachers and academic staff
PIB (Education): the draft covers Minimum Qualifications for Appointment & Promotion of Teachers and Academic Staff and Measures for Maintenance of Standards in Higher Education.
Who was the UGC Chairman present when the draft UGC Regulations, 2025 were released?
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Correct answer: B — M. Jagadesh Kumar
PIB (Education): Prof. M. Jagadesh Kumar, Chairman, UGC, was present at the event.
Within what originally allocated outlay will PLI Scheme 1.1 for specialty steel, launched on 6 January 2025, operate?
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Correct answer: C — ₹6,322 crore
PIB (Steel): the scheme will operate within the funds originally allocated, i.e. ₹6,322 crore.
Over which production period will PLI Scheme 1.1 for specialty steel be implemented?
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Correct answer: D — FY 2025-26 to FY 2029-30
PIB (Steel): the Steel Secretary said PLI 1.1 will be implemented during the production period FY 2025-26 to FY 2029-30.
Which of the following are among the five product categories covered by PLI Scheme 1.1 for specialty steel? 1. Specialty Rails 2. Electrical Steel 3. Stainless Steel Utensils Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Steel): the five categories are coated/plated steel, high strength/wear resistant steel, specialty rails, alloy steel products & steel wires, and electrical steel; utensils are not included.
Which stretch of the Delhi–Ghaziabad–Meerut Namo Bharat corridor did the PM inaugurate on 5 January 2025, giving Delhi its first Namo Bharat connectivity?
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Correct answer: A — Sahibabad–New Ashok Nagar
PIB (PMO): the PM inaugurated the 13 km Sahibabad–New Ashok Nagar stretch worth about ₹4,600 crore; with this Delhi got its first Namo Bharat connectivity.
Which was the first stretch of Delhi Metro Phase-IV to be inaugurated, on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Janakpuri–Krishna Park
PIB (PMO): the 2.8 km Janakpuri–Krishna Park stretch worth about ₹1,200 crore is the first stretch of Delhi Metro Phase-IV to be inaugurated.
The Rithala–Kundli section of Delhi Metro Phase-IV, whose foundation stone was laid on 5 January 2025, will connect Rithala to which place in Haryana?
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Correct answer: C — Nathupur
PIB (PMO): the 26.5 km Rithala–Kundli corridor (~₹6,230 crore) will connect Rithala in Delhi to Nathupur (Kundli) in Haryana.
Consider the following statements made by the PM on 5 January 2025 about India's metro network: 1. India's metro network has reached 1,000 km. 2. Before 2014, the network was 248 km and limited to five cities. 3. India now has the second-largest metro network in the world. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): the network has reached 1,000 km, was 248 km in five cities before 2014, and India is now third-largest; the PM said it will become second-largest during the current tenure.
Which company will use CSIR's indigenous paracetamol technology announced on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Satya Deeptha Pharmaceuticals Ltd
PIB (S&T): Karnataka-based Satya Deeptha Pharmaceuticals Ltd will utilise the breakthrough to produce affordable paracetamol domestically.
CSIR's indigenous paracetamol technology was announced at the foundation day of which department on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Scientific and Industrial Research
PIB (S&T): Jitendra Singh made the announcement while addressing the 40th Foundation Day of DSIR.
How many more CSIR technologies were transferred to MSMEs under the Laghu Udyog Bharati '100 days 100 technology' campaign on DSIR's 40th Foundation Day?
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Correct answer: B — 16
PIB (S&T): 57 CSIR technologies had been transferred so far under the campaign, and 16 more were transferred on the day.
Who was named Player of the Series in the 2024-25 Border-Gavaskar Trophy that ended in Sydney on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jasprit Bumrah
The Hindu and BBC: Jasprit Bumrah was presented the Player of the Series award.
By what margin did Australia win the 2024-25 Border-Gavaskar Trophy series against India?
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Correct answer: B — 3-1
BBC, The Hindu and Reuters: Australia won the five-match series 3-1 after the six-wicket win in Sydney.
Consider the following statements about the fifth Test of the 2024-25 Border-Gavaskar Trophy in Sydney: 1. Australia won by six wickets on the third day. 2. Scott Boland took 6-45 in India's second innings. 3. India captain Jasprit Bumrah bowled Australia out in the second innings. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
BBC and The Hindu: Australia won by six wickets on day three, and Boland took 6-45; Bumrah could not bowl because of a back injury.
Since when had Stage-III of the revised GRAP been in force across NCR before it was revoked on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3 January 2025
PIB (Environment): Stage-III actions had been in place in the entire NCR since 03.01.2025.
Consider the following statements about the CAQM decision of 5 January 2025: 1. All actions under Stage-III of the revised GRAP were revoked across NCR. 2. Actions under Stages I and II of the revised GRAP were also withdrawn. 3. Delhi's average AQI had improved to 335 at 5 PM. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Environment): Stage-III was revoked and AQI was 335 at 5 PM, but Stages I and II remain invoked and in force.
Which body's sub-committee revoked GRAP Stage-III in NCR on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Commission for Air Quality Management
PIB (Environment): the Sub-Committee on GRAP of the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) took the decision.
Who chaired the Joint Monitoring Group meeting held by the Union Health Ministry on 4 January 2025 on respiratory illnesses in China?
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Correct answer: C — Director General of Health Services
PIB (Health): the JMG meeting was held under the Chairmanship of DGHS, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
What precautionary step regarding HMPV was agreed at the Joint Monitoring Group meeting of 4 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ICMR to increase HMPV testing laboratories and monitor trends for the year
PIB (Health): as a precaution, the number of laboratories testing for HMPV will be enhanced by ICMR, which will monitor HMPV trends for the entire year.
Consider the following conclusions of the Health Ministry's Joint Monitoring Group on 4 January 2025: 1. The situation in China is not unusual in view of the flu season. 2. Influenza, RSV and HMPV are among the usual seasonal pathogens behind the surge. 3. ICMR and IDSP data show an unusual surge in SARI cases in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Health): statements 1 and 2 were agreed; data from ICMR and IDSP indicate no unusual surge in ILI and SARI cases.
Which organisation did the PM congratulate for organising the Grameen Bharat Mahotsav 2025 inaugurated on 4 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — NABARD
PIB (PMO): the PM congratulated NABARD and other associates for organising the event.
What is the motto of the Grameen Bharat Mahotsav 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Gaon Badhe, To Desh Badhe
PIB (Finance): the Mahotsav, from 4 to 9 January, has the theme 'Building a Resilient Rural India for a Viksit Bharat 2047' and the motto 'गांव बढ़े, तो देश बढ़े'.
According to the PM at the Grameen Bharat Mahotsav 2025, how many rural women have become Lakhpati Didis?
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Correct answer: C — 1.15 crore
PIB (PMO): 1.15 crore women in villages have become Lakhpati Didis and the government aims to make 3 crore women Lakhpati Didis.
What was India's coal production (provisional) in calendar year 2024, as reported by the Ministry of Coal?
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Correct answer: D — 1,039.59 MT
PIB (Coal): production reached an all-time high of 1,039.59 MT (provisional) in 2024; 1,012.72 MT was the dispatch figure.
By what percentage did India's coal production grow in calendar year 2024 over 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 7.28%
PIB (Coal): production grew 7.28% over 969.07 MT in 2023; dispatch grew 6.56%.
Consider the following statements about India's coal sector in calendar year 2024: 1. Coal dispatch crossed 1,000 million tonnes. 2. Coal production grew faster than coal dispatch. 3. Coal production in 2023 was above 1,000 million tonnes. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Coal): dispatch was 1,012.72 MT; production grew 7.28% vs dispatch 6.56%; 2023 production was 969.07 MT, below 1,000 MT.
INSV Tarini left Lyttelton, New Zealand, on 4 January 2025 for which destination on the third leg of Navika Sagar Parikrama II?
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Correct answer: A — Port Stanley, Falkland Islands
PIB (Defence): Tarini left Lyttelton for its onward passage (third leg) to Port Stanley, Falkland Islands.
Who are the two Indian Navy officers undertaking the Navika Sagar Parikrama II circumnavigation on INSV Tarini?
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Correct answer: B — Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A
PIB (Defence): the double-handed circumnavigation is being undertaken by Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A.
Consider the following statements about Navika Sagar Parikrama II: 1. It was flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024. 2. The third leg from Lyttelton is the longest leg of the expedition. 3. The third leg avoids Cape Horn by passing through the Panama Canal. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): flagged off from Goa on 02 Oct 24; the Lyttelton–Port Stanley leg is the longest and passes through the Drake Passage and Cape Horn.
During which period did Rajagopala Chidambaram serve as Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission and Secretary, DAE?
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Correct answer: B — 1993–2000
DAE: he was Chairman, AEC and Secretary, DAE from 1993 to 2000; Director, BARC 1990–1993; PSA 2001–2018.
Rajagopala Chidambaram, who died on 4 January 2025, chaired which international body's Board of Governors during 1994–1995?
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Correct answer: C — International Atomic Energy Agency
DAE: he was Chairman of the Board of Governors of the International Atomic Energy Agency (1994–1995).
Consider the following statements about Rajagopala Chidambaram: 1. He played an integral role in India's first nuclear test in 1974. 2. He led the DAE team during the Pokhran-II tests in 1998. 3. He received the Padma Vibhushan in 1999. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
DAE: all three are stated – integral role in 1974, led the DAE team in Pokhran-II (1998), Padma Shri 1975 and Padma Vibhushan 1999.
The draft Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 released on 3 January 2025 are meant to implement which law?
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Correct answer: D — Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
PIB (MeitY): the draft rules facilitate implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
What was the last date for submitting comments on the draft DPDP Rules, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 18 February 2025
PIB (MeitY): feedback may be submitted via the MyGov portal and the last date is 18 February 2025.
Consider the following statements about the draft DPDP Rules, 2025: 1. They provide for the Data Protection Board to function as a digital office. 2. They were drafted in line with the SARAL framework. 3. Comments on them were invited only through written submissions to the Ministry of Law and Justice. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MeitY): the rules cover the functioning of the Board as a digital office and follow the SARAL framework; comments are invited via the MyGov portal, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which pillar was newly introduced in the LEADS 2024 report released on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sustainable Logistics
PIB (Commerce): LEADS 2024 evaluates four pillars — Logistics Infrastructure, Logistics Services, Operating and Regulatory Environment, and the newly introduced Sustainable Logistics.
In LEADS 2024, which of the following was among the 'Achievers' of the North-Eastern group?
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Correct answer: B — Arunachal Pradesh
PIB (Commerce): North-Eastern Achievers — Assam and Arunachal Pradesh; Meghalaya and Tripura are Fast Movers; Manipur is an Aspirer.
Consider the following statements about the LEADS 2024 report: 1. It is the sixth edition of the report. 2. Kerala and West Bengal were placed among the 'Achievers' of the Coastal group. 3. Chandigarh and Delhi were the 'Achievers' among Union Territories. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Commerce): the DPIIT Secretary called it the 6th edition; Kerala and West Bengal are Coastal 'Aspirers', so statement 2 is wrong; UT Achievers are Chandigarh and Delhi.
Who was the Maldives Foreign Minister who held talks with EAM S. Jaishankar in New Delhi on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Abdulla Khaleel
MEA: Dr Abdulla Khaleel, Minister of Foreign Affairs of Maldives, was on an official visit to India from 2–4 January 2025 and held talks with EAM on 3 January.
During the Maldives Foreign Minister's visit of 2–4 January 2025, India and Maldives signed an MoU on which subject?
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Correct answer: B — High Impact Community Development Projects Phase-III
MEA: both sides signed an MoU for implementation of High Impact Community Development Projects under Phase-III in Maldives, through grant assistance by the Government of India.
Which aircraft carrier led the French Carrier Strike Group that visited India from 3 to 9 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — FNS Charles de Gaulle
PIB (Defence): the group was led by the nuclear-powered aircraft carrier FNS Charles de Gaulle; FS Forbin was one of the ships that visited Kochi.
At which two Indian ports did the French Carrier Strike Group make port calls during its January 2025 visit?
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Correct answer: C — Goa and Kochi
PIB (Defence): the visit from 03–09 Jan 25 included port calls in Goa and Kochi.
With which Indian Navy formation did the French Carrier Strike Group hold a PASSEX in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Western Fleet
PIB (Defence): in Goa, the group is hosting engagements including a PASSEX at sea with the Indian Navy's Western Fleet.
The Centralized Pension Payments System (CPPS), fully rolled out by EPFO, operates under which scheme?
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Correct answer: A — Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995
PIB (Labour): EPFO completed the full-scale rollout of CPPS under the Employees' Pension Scheme 1995 in December 2024.
In which regional offices was the first pilot of EPFO's CPPS conducted in October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Karnal, Jammu and Srinagar
PIB (Labour): the first pilot was completed in October 2024 in Karnal, Jammu and Srinagar Regional Offices, disbursing about ₹11 crore to more than 49,000 pensioners.
Consider the following statements about EPFO's CPPS: 1. About ₹1,570 crore of pension for December 2024 was paid through it to more than 68 lakh pensioners. 2. It covers all 122 pension-disbursing Regional Offices of EPFO. 3. Under it, a pensioner can draw pension from any bank and any branch. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Labour): all three are stated — about ₹1,570 crore to more than 68 lakh pensioners of all 122 pension-disbursing ROs, and pension from any bank, any branch, anywhere.
What is 'Baanknet', revamped and launched on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — An e-auction portal for properties of public sector banks
PIB (Finance): DFS Secretary launched the revamped e-auction portal 'Baanknet', which consolidates e-auction properties of all PSBs.
Who launched the revamped Baanknet portal on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — M. Nagaraju, Secretary, Department of Financial Services
PIB (Finance): Shri M. Nagaraju, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, launched the revamped portal in New Delhi.
According to the Ministry of Finance, roughly how many properties had already been migrated to the revamped Baanknet portal at launch?
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Correct answer: D — Over 1,22,500
PIB (Finance): over 1,22,500 properties have already been migrated to the new portal for auction.
Which chess player was named for the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 announced on 2 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gukesh D
PIB (Sports): the Khel Ratna 2024 awardees are Gukesh D (Chess), Harmanpreet Singh (Hockey), Praveen Kumar (Para-Athletics) and Manu Bhaker (Shooting).
Praveen Kumar, one of the four Khel Ratna 2024 awardees, represents which discipline?
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Correct answer: B — Para-Athletics
PIB (Sports): Shri Praveen Kumar was named for the Khel Ratna 2024 in Para-Athletics.
On which date were the National Sports Awards 2024 to be presented by the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan?
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Correct answer: C — 17 January 2025
PIB (Sports): the awardees will receive their awards from the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 17 January 2025 (Friday) at 1100 hours.
Consider the following pairs of Arjuna Award 2024 winners and their disciplines: 1. Jyothi Yarraji — Athletics 2. Abhay Singh — Squash 3. Sajan Prakash — Swimming How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: D — All three
PIB (Sports): the Arjuna list has Jyothi Yarraji (Athletics), Abhay Singh (Squash) and Sajan Prakash (Swimming), so all three pairs are correct.
Who headed the Selection Committee for the National Sports Awards 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Justice (Retd.) V. Ramasubramanian
PIB (Sports): the applications were considered by the Selection Committee headed by Justice (Retd.) V. Ramasubramanian, Supreme Court of India.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Awards 2024: 1. Murlikant Rajaram Petkar received the Arjuna Award (Lifetime) in para-swimming. 2. Armando Agnelo Colaco received the Dronacharya Award in the lifetime category for football. 3. The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar was given to a State sports department. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Sports): Petkar — Arjuna (Lifetime), Para-Swimming; Colaco — Dronacharya (Lifetime), Football; the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar went to the Physical Education Foundation of India, so statement 3 is wrong.
What change did the NSO make in the sample design of surveys starting January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — The district was made the basic stratum for sample selection
PIB (MoSPI): as an enabling provision for district-level estimates, NSO modified the sample design with the district as a basic stratum for all surveys starting January 2025.
Which subject is covered by the NSS 80th Round's Social Consumption survey running from January to December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Health
PIB (MoSPI): NSS 80th Round — Survey on Social Consumption: Health (Jan to December 2025); Education is part of the Comprehensive Modular Survey (April–June 2025).
Consider the following statements about the surveys starting January 2025: 1. PLFS will provide monthly estimates of key labour force indicators at the all-India level. 2. District-level estimates are to be produced by the respective State governments. 3. ASUSE will continue to give only annual estimates. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): PLFS will give monthly all-India estimates and States will produce district-level estimates; ASUSE will now give quarterly estimates along with annual ones, so statement 3 is wrong.
To which new base year is the Wholesale Price Index proposed to be revised by the Working Group constituted in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2022-23
PIB (Commerce): the Working Group is for base revision of WPI from base 2011-12 to 2022-23.
Who chairs the Working Group constituted for revising the base of the Wholesale Price Index?
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Correct answer: C — Prof. Ramesh Chand, Member, NITI Aayog
PIB (Commerce): Prof. Ramesh Chand, Member, NITI Aayog, is the Chairman of the Working Group.
Consider the following statements about the WPI base-revision Working Group: 1. Its terms of reference include recommending a roadmap for switching over from WPI to a Producer Price Index (PPI). 2. A Deputy Director General of DPIIT is its Member Secretary. 3. It is chaired by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Commerce): the ToR include a roadmap for switch over from WPI to PPI and the DDG, DPIIT is Member Secretary; the Chairman is Prof. Ramesh Chand of NITI Aayog, while RBI only sends a representative.
What corpus did the Union Cabinet approve on 1 January 2025 for the Fund for Innovation and Technology (FIAT) under the crop insurance schemes?
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Correct answer: D — ₹824.77 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved creation of the Fund for Innovation and Technology (FIAT) with a corpus of ₹824.77 crore.
Under YES-TECH in PMFBY, what minimum weightage is given to technology-based yield estimates?
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Correct answer: A — 30%
PIB (Cabinet): YES-TECH uses remote sensing technology for yield estimation with minimum 30% weightage to technology-based yield estimates.
Consider the following statements about the crop insurance decisions of 1 January 2025: 1. WINDS envisages Automatic Weather Stations at block level and Automatic Rain Gauges at panchayat level. 2. 2024-25 was approved as the first year of WINDS implementation, with central fund sharing of 90:10. 3. Madhya Pradesh has adopted 100% technology-based yield estimation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Cabinet): all three are stated — AWS at block and ARGs at panchayat level; 2024-25 approved as WINDS' first year with 90:10 central sharing; MP has adopted 100% technology-based yield estimation.