CTET Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many chip-design projects had been sanctioned under the Design Linked Incentive scheme, as stated by MeitY on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 23
MeitY said 23 chip-design projects had been sanctioned under DLI.
What is the outlay of the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme under the Semicon India Programme?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,000 crore
The DLI scheme has an outlay of ₹1,000 crore within the ₹76,000-crore Semicon India Programme.
Consider the following statements about the Design Linked Incentive scheme: 1. It offers a product design incentive of up to 50% of eligible costs, capped at ₹15 crore per application. 2. Chip designs from academic institutions under the scheme have been fabricated at SCL, Mohali. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the cap is ₹15 crore per application, and 20 designs from 17 institutions were fabricated at SCL, Mohali.
The 13th India–UAE Joint Defence Cooperation Committee meeting held in New Delhi on 30 July 2025 was notable because it was:
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Correct answer: A — Held at Secretary level for the first time
The Defence Ministry said the 13th JDCC was held at Secretary level for the first time.
At the 13th India–UAE JDCC, joint manufacturing models were discussed along the lines of the collaboration between ICOMM (India) and which UAE company for small arms?
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Correct answer: D — CARACAL
The release cites the ICOMM (India)–CARACAL (UAE) collaboration for small arms production.
On which section of the Delhi–Mumbai route was Kavach 4.0 commissioned, as announced on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mathura–Kota
The Railway Ministry said Kavach 4.0 was commissioned on the Mathura–Kota section.
Kavach, India's automatic train protection system, is designed to which Safety Integrity Level?
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Correct answer: A — SIL 4
The Railway Ministry says Kavach is designed at SIL 4, the highest level of safety design.
Consider the following statements about Kavach: 1. Its first operational certificate was granted in 2018 after installation on South Central Railway. 2. RFID tags for Kavach are installed every 10 km along the track. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: RFID tags are installed every 1 km and at every signal.
Which Indian Navy ship arrived in Singapore for SIMBEX-25, as reported on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — INS Satpura
INS Satpura arrived in Singapore to participate in SIMBEX-25.
SIMBEX-25, for which INS Satpura reached Singapore in July 2025, was which edition of the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise?
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Correct answer: A — 32nd
The Defence Ministry release calls SIMBEX-25 the 32nd edition of the exercise.
How many mobile handsets had been recovered through the Sanchar Saathi portal, as stated in the Lok Sabha on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 5 lakh
The Minister said over 5 lakh mobile handsets had been recovered through Sanchar Saathi.
As per the Communications Minister's statement of 30 July 2025, what is BSNL's subscriber base?
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Correct answer: C — 9.1 crore
The Minister said BSNL's subscriber base had grown to 9.1 crore.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, whose key provisions took effect on 1 August 2025, the threshold for 'substantial interest' was raised from ₹5 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2 crore
PIB (30 July 2025): the 'substantial interest' threshold was redefined from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore, a limit unchanged since 1968.
The maximum tenure of directors (other than the chairperson and whole-time director) in cooperative banks was raised from 8 years to 10 years to align with which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 97th Amendment
PIB: the change aligns director tenures in cooperative banks with the 97th Constitutional Amendment.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations. 2. It was notified in the Gazette on 15 April 2025. 3. All its provisions came into force on the date of its notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: 19 amendments across five laws; notified 15 April 2025. Provisions come into force on dates appointed by the Centre; S.O. 3494(E) appointed 1 August 2025 for specific sections, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the amended law, public sector banks may transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to which fund, in line with companies under the Companies Act?
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Correct answer: D — Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)
PIB: PSBs can now transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF), bringing them in line with companies.
The Akhil Bharatiya Shiksha Samagam 2025, inaugurated on 29 July 2025, commemorated:
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Correct answer: D — 5 years of the National Education Policy 2020
PIB (29 July 2025): Dharmendra Pradhan inaugurated ABSS 2025 in New Delhi to commemorate 5 years of NEP 2020.
Projects worth how much were unveiled by Dharmendra Pradhan at the Akhil Bharatiya Shiksha Samagam 2025?
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Correct answer: A — More than ₹4,000 crore
PIB: Dharmendra Pradhan unveiled projects worth more than ₹4,000 crore, including new initiatives, campus inaugurations and foundation stones.
Consider the following statements about the National Education Policy 2020: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 July 2020. 2. It replaced the National Policy on Education, 1986. 3. It replaces the 10+2 school structure with a 5+3+3+4 structure covering ages 6-18. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (29 July 2020): the Cabinet approved NEP 2020 that day, replacing the NPE 1986. The 5+3+3+4 structure covers ages 3-18 (3-8, 8-11, 11-14, 14-18), not 6-18, so statement 3 is wrong.
As stated on Global Tiger Day 2025, the number of tiger reserves in India has grown from 46 in 2014 to:
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Correct answer: B — 58
PIB (29 July 2025): tiger reserves increased from 46 in 2014 to 58.
Where were the national Global Tiger Day 2025 celebrations presided over by Bhupender Yadav held?
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Correct answer: D — National Zoological Park, New Delhi
PIB: the celebrations were held at the National Zoological Park, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements made on Global Tiger Day 2025: 1. Over 1 lakh saplings will be planted across all 58 tiger reserves. 2. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) has 24 countries on board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: over 1 lakh saplings across all 58 tiger reserves; 24 countries on board IBCA. Both are correct.
Where has the Commission for Air Quality Management set up a dedicated year-round cell for paddy stubble management, as announced on 29 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — SAS Nagar (Mohali), Punjab
PIB (29 July 2025): CAQM established a Dedicated CAQM Cell at Kisan Vikas Chamber, Kalkat Bhawan, SAS Nagar (Mohali), Punjab.
Besides paddy stubble management, the new CAQM cell in Mohali will monitor pollution control in identified thermal power plants with a focus on:
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Correct answer: C — Biomass co-firing
PIB: the cell will also monitor and coordinate air pollution control measures in identified thermal power plants, particularly biomass co-firing.
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, the five ex officio State Members of CAQM come from:
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Correct answer: A — Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
CAQM Act, 2021 (Act 29 of 2021), Section 3(2)(c): five ex officio Members who are Chief Secretaries or Secretaries in charge of environment in the NCT of Delhi and the States of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
As per telecom subscription data as on 30 June 2025, India's overall tele-density was about:
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Correct answer: D — 86.09%
PIB (29 July 2025): overall tele-density was 86.09% (urban 133.56%, rural 59.43%).
How many broadband subscribers did India have as on 30 June 2025, as per the Ministry of Communications?
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Correct answer: A — 979.71 million
PIB: total broadband subscribers were 979.71 million (935.02 million wireless + 44.69 million wireline). 1,218.36 million is total telephone subscribers.
Gouse Meera Mohiuddin was appointed on 29 July 2025 as an Additional Judge of which High Court?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana High Court
PIB press note (29 July 2025): Gouse Meera Mohiuddin, Advocate, was appointed Additional Judge of the Telangana High Court.
Anjan Moni Kalita and Rajesh Mazumdar, advocates, were appointed on 29 July 2025 as Additional Judges of:
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Correct answer: B — Gauhati High Court
PIB press note: Anjan Moni Kalita, Rajesh Mazumdar, Pranjal Das and Sanjeev Kumar Sharma were appointed Additional Judges of the Gauhati High Court.
Under Article 224 of the Constitution, an additional Judge of a High Court is appointed for a period:
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Correct answer: A — Not exceeding two years
Supreme Court (Lok Prahari v. Union of India, 20 April 2021): Article 224 provides for appointing additional judges to meet a temporary increase in business or arrears, for a period not exceeding two years.
The Pralay missile, flight-tested twice by DRDO on 28-29 July 2025, is best described as a:
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Correct answer: C — Solid-propellant quasi-ballistic missile
PIB: Pralay is an indigenously developed solid propellant quasi-ballistic missile.
Which DRDO laboratory led the development of the Pralay missile system?
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Correct answer: A — Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
PIB: the system has been developed by Research Centre Imarat in collaboration with other DRDO labs such as DRDL, ASL, ARDE, HEMRL, DMRL and TBRL.
Consider the following statements about the Pralay flight-tests of July 2025: 1. They were conducted from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam island off Odisha. 2. They were part of User Evaluation Trials to validate maximum and minimum range. 3. Bharat Dynamics Limited and Bharat Electronics Limited are industry partners. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: all three statements are stated in the release.
ICGS Atal, launched on 29 July 2025, is the sixth in a series of eight Fast Patrol Vessels being built for the Indian Coast Guard by:
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Correct answer: B — Goa Shipyard Limited
PIB: Goa Shipyard Limited launched ICGS Atal (Yard 1275), the sixth of eight FPVs it is building for the ICG.
What are the length and displacement of the Fast Patrol Vessels of the ICGS Atal class, as per the launch release?
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Correct answer: C — 52 m and 320 tonnes
PIB: the FPVs are 52 metres long with an 8-metre beam and 320-tonne displacement.
According to the Quick Estimate released on 28 July 2025, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.5%
MoSPI/PIB (28 July 2025): IIP growth for June 2025 was 1.5%, against 1.2% (QE) in May 2025.
In the IIP for June 2025, which sector recorded positive growth?
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Correct answer: D — Manufacturing
PIB: sectoral growth in June 2025 was mining -8.7%, manufacturing 3.9% and electricity -2.6%. Only manufacturing grew.
Under the revised release calendar announced with the June 2025 data, the Quick Estimate of IIP will be released on:
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Correct answer: C — The 28th of every month (or next working day if a holiday)
PIB: as per the revised calendar, the Quick Estimate of IIP will now be released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday.
Consider the following statements about the IIP Quick Estimate for June 2025: 1. It was compiled on base year 2011-12=100. 2. The index stood at 153.3, against 151.0 in June 2024. 3. Mining output contracted by 2.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: base 2011-12=100; index 153.3 against 151.0 in June 2024. Mining contracted 8.7%; the 2.6% fall was in electricity, so statement 3 is wrong.
Where was the FIDE Women's World Cup 2025, won by Divya Deshmukh on 28 July 2025, held?
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Correct answer: A — Batumi, Georgia
FIDE: the 2025 FIDE Women's World Cup took place from 6 to 28 July in Batumi, Georgia.
Whom did Divya Deshmukh defeat in the tiebreaks of the all-Indian final of the FIDE Women's World Cup 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Koneru Humpy
FIDE: Divya defeated Grandmaster Humpy Koneru 1.5-0.5 in the tiebreaks.
Divya Deshmukh is the third winner of the FIDE Women's World Cup. Who were the first two winners, in 2021 and 2023 respectively?
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Correct answer: B — Alexandra Kosteniuk and Aleksandra Goryachkina
FIDE: Divya follows GM Alexandra Kosteniuk (2021) and GM Aleksandra Goryachkina (2023) as the third-ever winner.
Consider the following statements about Divya Deshmukh's FIDE Women's World Cup 2025 win: 1. Divya earned the Grandmaster title automatically by winning the event. 2. The winner received a first prize of USD 50,000. 3. Divya, Koneru Humpy and Tan Zhongyi qualified for the Women's Candidates Tournament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
FIDE: the win brings the USD 50,000 first prize and an automatic GM title; Divya, Humpy and Tan Zhongyi qualified for the Candidates. All three are correct.
Divya Deshmukh, winner of the FIDE Women's World Cup 2025, hails from which city?
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Correct answer: A — Nagpur
FIDE: Divya Deshmukh is the 19-year-old International Master from Nagpur, Maharashtra.
Which Foundation Day of the Ministry of Earth Sciences was marked on 28 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 19th
PIB (28 July 2025): the 19th Foundation Day of the Ministry of Earth Sciences was marked at an event in New Delhi.
As stated at the MoES Foundation Day 2025, the number of Doppler weather radars in India has increased from 15 to:
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Correct answer: D — 41
PIB: Jitendra Singh noted that Doppler weather radars had increased from just 15 to 41.
Consider the following statements about the products launched on the 19th Foundation Day of MoES: 1. 14 products and initiatives were launched, including BharatFS-ERP. 2. They included seismic microzonation studies of four Indian cities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: 14 major products and initiatives were launched, including BharatFS-ERP and seismic microzonation studies of four Indian cities. Both correct.
Under the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme, a Mechanical & Material domain testing facility will be set up (MoU of 28 July 2025) at:
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Correct answer: C — Tiruchirappalli
PIB (28 July 2025): MoD signed an MoU to set up the facility in the Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor in Tiruchirappalli.
Under the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS), what share of project cost does the government provide as grant-in-aid?
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Correct answer: A — Up to 75%
PIB: DTIS provides up to 75% government funding as grant-in-aid; the remaining 25% is funded by the SPV.
Consider the following statements about the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme: 1. It has an outlay of ₹400 crore. 2. Seven testing facilities have been approved in the Defence Industrial Corridors, four of them in Tamil Nadu. 3. Three of the approved facilities are in Uttar Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: DTIS outlay ₹400 crore; seven facilities approved, four in Tamil Nadu and three in Uttar Pradesh. All correct.
As of 22 July 2025, how many unorganised workers had registered on the e-Shram portal?
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Correct answer: D — Over 30.95 crore
PIB (28 July 2025): as of 22 July 2025, over 30.95 crore unorganised workers had registered on e-Shram.
Consider the following statements about the e-Shram portal: 1. It was launched on 26 August 2021 to create a National Database of Unorganised Workers seeded with Aadhaar. 2. The e-Shram 'One-Stop-Solution' was launched on 21 October 2024 and 14 Central schemes have been integrated with it so far. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: e-Shram was launched on 26 August 2021 for an Aadhaar-seeded NDUW; the One-Stop-Solution was launched on 21 October 2024 and 14 schemes have been integrated. Both correct.
Under MNRE's amendment of 28 July 2025, the ALMM requirement for solar PV cells becomes mandatory:
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Correct answer: C — One month after the ALMM list for solar PV cells is published
PIB (28 July 2025): ALMM for solar PV cells will be mandatory only one month after publication of the ALMM list for cells; the 1 June 2026 date for commissioned projects is unchanged.
As per MNRE (July 2025), India's domestic solar manufacturing capacity stands at:
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Correct answer: B — 91 GW modules and 27 GW cells
PIB: domestic solar manufacturing currently stands at 91 GW of solar PV modules and 27 GW of solar PV cells.
As per kharif sowing data as on 25 July 2025, rice area was 245.13 lakh hectare. By how much was this higher than a year earlier?
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Correct answer: A — 28.97 lakh hectare
PIB (28 July 2025): rice area was 245.13 lakh ha against 216.16 lakh ha in 2024-25, an increase of 28.97 lakh ha.
Which kharif crop group showed a decline in area coverage as on 25 July 2025 compared with a year earlier?
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Correct answer: D — Oilseeds
PIB: oilseeds area fell by 3.83 lakh ha (soybean down 4.68), while rice, pulses and coarse cereals rose.
As per the Commerce Ministry (28 July 2025), India's leather and footwear exports to the UK under CETA are likely to double in three years to:
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Correct answer: C — USD 1 billion
PIB: India's leather and footwear exports to the UK are likely to double to USD 1 billion in three years. USD 8.7 billion is the size of the UK's leather and footwear market.
Which GI products were cited by the Commerce Ministry as gaining visibility in the UK market under the India-UK CETA?
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Correct answer: B — Kolhapuri footwear and Mojari
PIB: CETA is expected to boost the visibility of GI products like Kolhapuri footwear and Mojari in the UK's USD 8.7 billion leather and footwear market.
How much did the Ministry of Rural Development release to Rajasthan under MGNREGA, as stated by Shivraj Singh Chouhan on 28 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹4,384 crore
PIB (28 July 2025): Chouhan said the Ministry of Rural Development had recently released ₹4,384 crore to Rajasthan under MGNREGA.
On 27 July 2025, PM Modi released a commemorative coin honouring which ruler at Gangaikonda Cholapuram?
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Correct answer: A — Rajendra Chola I
PIB (27 July 2025): the PM released a commemorative coin honouring Rajendra Chola I at the Aadi Thiruvathirai Festival.
The Aadi Thiruvathirai Festival 2025 marked 1,000 years of which events?
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Correct answer: C — Rajendra Chola I's maritime expedition to Southeast Asia and the start of construction of the Gangaikonda Cholapuram temple
Ministry of Culture / PMIndia: the festival marked 1,000 years of Rajendra Chola I's maritime expedition to Southeast Asia and the commencement of construction of the Gangaikonda Cholapuram temple.
Rajendra Chola I's birth star, which gives the Aadi Thiruvathirai festival its name, is:
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Correct answer: B — Thiruvathirai (Ardra)
PMIndia: Rajendra Chola's birth star, Thiruvathirai (Ardra), begins on 23 July.
Consider the following statements: 1. Rajendra Chola I established Gangaikonda Cholapuram as the imperial capital after his victorious campaigns. 2. The Gangaikonda Cholapuram temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. 3. The Aadi Thiruvathirai Festival 2025 was held from 23 to 27 July by the Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PMIndia: Rajendra Chola I established Gangaikonda Cholapuram as the imperial capital and the temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Ministry of Culture: the festival ran from 23 to 27 July 2025. All correct.
At Gangaikonda Cholapuram on 27 July 2025, the Prime Minister announced that grand statues of which two rulers will be installed in Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: A — Rajaraja Chola and Rajendra Chola I
PIB: the PM announced that grand statues of Rajaraja Chola and his son Rajendra Chola I will be installed in Tamil Nadu.
As per ECI's findings of the Bihar SIR enumeration phase, how many electors were on the rolls as on 24 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 7.89 crore
ECI/PIB (27 July 2025): out of 7.89 crore electors as on 24.06.2025, over 7.24 crore submitted enumeration forms.
During which period can genuine electors be added back to the Bihar electoral rolls through claims and objections after the SIR enumeration phase?
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Correct answer: D — 1 August to 1 September 2025
ECI: genuine electors can still be added back during the claims and objection period from 1 August to 1 September 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar SIR enumeration phase: 1. It ran from 24 June to 25 July 2025. 2. BLOs were deployed at 77,895 polling booths. 3. Around 1.60 lakh Booth Level Agents were appointed by 12 major political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
ECI: enumeration phase 24 June-25 July 2025; BLOs at 77,895 polling booths; about 1.60 lakh BLAs of 12 major parties. All correct.
Under the Bihar SIR, young persons attaining 18 years of age on 1 July 2025 or on or before 1 October 2025 are encouraged to apply in which form, along with the prescribed declaration?
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Correct answer: C — Form 6
ECI: young electors who have attained 18 on 1 July 2025, or will attain 18 on or before 1 October 2025, are encouraged to apply in Form 6 with the prescribed Declaration Form.
For the Bihar SIR, special urban camps were set up in all wards of urban local bodies. How many wards and ULBs were covered?
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Correct answer: B — 5,683 wards of 261 ULBs
ECI: special urban camps were set up in all 5,683 wards of all 261 urban local bodies of Bihar.
What ex gratia did Uttarakhand CM Pushkar Singh Dhami announce after the Mansa Devi temple stampede in Haridwar on 27 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2 lakh for the families of the dead and ₹50,000 for the injured
The Indian Express and IANS (27 July 2025): CM Dhami announced ₹2 lakh for the families of the dead and ₹50,000 for the injured.
Consider the following statements about the Mansa Devi temple stampede of 27 July 2025: 1. It was triggered by a rumour that an electric wire had snapped and current was passing through the area. 2. The Haridwar District Magistrate was ordered to conduct a magisterial inquiry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Hindu and The Indian Express: the stampede followed a rumour of a snapped electric line/current; IE: the Haridwar DM was ordered to conduct a magisterial inquiry. Both correct.
Exercise Bold Kurukshetra, whose 14th edition began at Jodhpur on 27 July 2025, is a joint military exercise between India and:
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Correct answer: A — Singapore
PIB (27 July 2025): Bold Kurukshetra 2025 is the 14th edition of the India-Singapore Joint Military Exercise.
In what format was Exercise Bold Kurukshetra 2025 conducted?
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Correct answer: C — Table Top Exercise and Computer-Based Wargame
PIB: the exercise is conducted as a Table Top Exercise and Computer-Based Wargame to validate operational procedures for mechanised warfare.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Bold Kurukshetra 2025: 1. The Indian Army was represented by the Mechanised Infantry Regiment. 2. Singapore was represented by the 42 Singapore Armoured Regiment. 3. Its objective was enhancing interoperability under a United Nations mandate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: participants were the Indian Army's Mechanised Infantry Regiment and the 42 Singapore Armoured Regiment of the 4 Singapore Armoured Brigade; the objective is interoperability under UN mandate. All correct.
The Central Reserve Police Force, which marks its Raising Day on 27 July, was originally raised in 1939 under what name?
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Correct answer: C — Crown Representative's Police
CRPF: the force was established as the Crown Representative's Police in 1939 and renamed CRPF after independence.
Consider the following statements about the CRPF: 1. It was raised at Neemuch, Madhya Pradesh. 2. It was renamed the Central Reserve Police Force by an Act dated 28 December 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
CRPF: the force was raised at Neemuch, MP, as the Crown Representative's Police; on 28 December 1949 it was renamed CRPF by an Act of Parliament (CRPF Act, 1949, Act No. 66 of 1949). Both correct.
With which country/territory does India have a Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products, as stated by APEDA in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Taiwan
PIB (27 July 2025): NPOP crop standards are recognised by the European Commission and Switzerland and accepted by Great Britain; there is an MRA for organic products with Taiwan.
Consider the following statements about the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP): 1. It was launched in 2001 by the Department of Commerce, with APEDA as its Secretariat. 2. Grower group certification under it began in 2005 for small and marginal farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: NPOP was launched in 2001 by the Department of Commerce, APEDA is its Secretariat, and grower group certification was launched in 2005. Both correct.
Alstom's Savli facility, reviewed by Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw on 27 July 2025, is located in which district?
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Correct answer: C — Vadodara
PIB (27 July 2025): Ashwini Vaishnaw visited Alstom's Savli facility in Vadodara, Gujarat.
As per the Railway Ministry (27 July 2025), how many bogies has Alstom exported from India?
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Correct answer: B — Over 3,800
PIB: Alstom exports 3,800+ bogies and 4,000+ flatpacks (modules) from India.
As mentioned in Mann Ki Baat (27 July 2025), UNESCO recognised 12 Maratha forts as World Heritage Sites. How are they distributed?
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Correct answer: B — 11 in Maharashtra and 1 in Tamil Nadu
PIB (Mann Ki Baat, 27 July 2025): UNESCO has recognised 12 Maratha forts as World Heritage Sites, eleven in Maharashtra and one in Tamil Nadu.
As per Mann Ki Baat (27 July 2025), Indian students at the International Mathematical Olympiad held in Australia won:
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Correct answer: A — 3 gold, 2 silver and 1 bronze
PIB: in the International Mathematical Olympiad held in Australia, Indian students won 3 gold, 2 silver and 1 bronze medal.
The 'Gyan Bharatam Mission', highlighted in the 124th Mann Ki Baat, aims to:
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Correct answer: D — Digitise ancient manuscripts
PIB: under the Gyan Bharatam Mission, announced in this year's Budget, ancient manuscripts will be digitised.