AFCAT Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the overall cost of the contract signed with BEL on 7 April 2025 for Electronic Warfare suites for Mi-17 V5 helicopters?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,385.36 crore
₹2,385.36 crore, for EW suites and associated equipment for the Indian Air Force.
The Electronic Warfare suites contracted from BEL in April 2025 are meant for installation on which helicopters of the Indian Air Force?
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Correct answer: D — Mi-17 V5
Mi-17 V5 helicopters; the contract also covers associated equipment.
Under which procurement category was the April 2025 BEL contract for Mi-17 V5 Electronic Warfare suites signed?
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Correct answer: A — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
Buy (Indian-IDDM), that is, Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured.
Aboard which vessel did the all-women tri-services sailing expedition 'Samudra Pradakshina' set sail in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — IASV Triveni
IASV Triveni, the Indian Army Sailing Vessel.
What is the route of the 'Samudra Pradakshina' sailing expedition flagged off on 7 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mumbai – Seychelles – Mumbai
Mumbai – Seychelles – Mumbai, covering 4,000 nautical miles in 55 days.
Consider the following statements about 'Samudra Pradakshina': 1. Its 12-member crew of women officers is drawn from the Army, Navy and Air Force. 2. It was flagged off from Kochi by the Chief of the Naval Staff. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. It was flagged off from the Indian Naval Watermanship Training Centre, Colaba, Mumbai, by Lt Gen AK Ramesh, Commandant, College of Military Engineering.
The Digital Threat Report 2024 launched on 7 April 2025 by CERT-In, CSIRT-Fin and SISA focuses on which sector?
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Correct answer: D — Banking, Financial Services and Insurance (BFSI)
Banking, Financial Services and Insurance (BFSI); it aims to strengthen cybersecurity resilience in the sector.
Consider the following statements about the Digital Threat Report 2024 for the BFSI sector: 1. It was prepared by CERT-In alone, without any private-sector partner. 2. It was launched by the Secretaries of the Department of Financial Services and the Ministry of Electronics and IT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The report was a collaboration of CERT-In, CSIRT-Fin and the cybersecurity company SISA; it was launched by M. Nagaraju (DFS) and S. Krishnan (MeitY).
Who was the Director General of CERT-In at the launch of the Digital Threat Report 2024 in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dr Sanjay Bahl
Dr Sanjay Bahl; S. Krishnan is Secretary, MeitY, M. Nagaraju is Secretary, DFS, and Dharshan Shanthamurthy is Founder and CEO of SISA.
President Droupadi Murmu's April 2025 visit to Portugal was the first by an Indian President to that country in how many years?
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Correct answer: A — 27 years
27 years; she arrived in Lisbon on 6 April 2025 on the first leg of a State Visit to Portugal and the Slovak Republic.
The India–Portugal postage stamps released on 7 April 2025 to mark 50 years of diplomatic relations featured which Indian folk attire?
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Correct answer: C — Kalbeliya costume of Rajasthan
Kalbeliya costume of Rajasthan, alongside the traditional Viana do Castelo dress of Portugal.
Consider the following statements about President Murmu's visit to Lisbon in April 2025: 1. She received the 'City Key of Honour' of Lisbon from the Mayor of Lisbon. 2. The banquet in her honour at Palácio da Ajuda was hosted by the Prime Minister of Portugal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The banquet at Palácio da Ajuda was hosted by the President of Portugal, Marcelo Rebelo de Sousa.
Which institutions developed the indigenous 1.5 kW wireless EV charger whose technology was transferred to industry under NaMPET in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — C-DAC (T) and VNIT Nagpur
C-DAC (T) and VNIT Nagpur; the technology went to M/s Global Business Solution Pvt. Ltd. under the National Mission on Power Electronics Technology.
The 'Women and Men in India 2024: Selected Indicators and Data' publication released by MoSPI in April 2025 is its:
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Correct answer: D — 26th edition
26th edition, released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
According to 'Women and Men in India 2024', what share of all bank accounts in India is owned by women?
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Correct answer: C — 39.2%
39.2%; women contribute 39.7% of total deposits, and make up 42.2% of account holders in rural areas.
Consider the following statements based on 'Women and Men in India 2024': 1. Female voter turnout surpassed male voter turnout in 2024. 2. The number of DPIIT-recognised startups with at least one woman director declined between 2017 and 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Startups with at least one woman director rose from 1,943 in 2017 to 17,405 in 2024.
Which 128 km railway line in Sri Lanka, refurbished with Indian assistance, was inaugurated by PM Modi and President Disanayaka on 6 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Maho – Omanthai
Maho – Omanthai, refurbished with Indian assistance of US$91.27 million.
The Mahabodhi tree at the Jaya Sri Maha Bodhi temple in Anuradhapura, visited by PM Modi in April 2025, is believed to have grown from a sapling brought from India by:
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Correct answer: A — Sangamitta Maha Theri
Sangamitta Maha Theri, in the 3rd century BCE.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's engagements in Anuradhapura on 6 April 2025: 1. He visited the Jaya Sri Maha Bodhi temple with the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka. 2. Construction of the Maho–Anuradhapura signalling system, being built with an Indian grant of US$14.89 million, was launched. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. He visited the temple with Sri Lanka's President, Anura Kumara Disanayaka.
Besides India and Sri Lanka, which country was a party to the April 2025 MoU on developing Trincomalee as an energy hub?
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Correct answer: C — United Arab Emirates
United Arab Emirates; it was one of seven MoUs exchanged during the Prime Minister's visit on 5 April 2025.
Under a project launched virtually during PM Modi's April 2025 visit, solar rooftop systems are to be supplied to how many religious institutions across Sri Lanka?
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Correct answer: A — 5,000
5,000 religious institutions across Sri Lanka.
During his April 2025 visit, PM Modi announced a comprehensive capacity-building programme in India covering how many Sri Lankans annually?
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Correct answer: D — 700
700 Sri Lankans annually.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Sri Lanka in April 2025: 1. The MoU on Defence Cooperation was signed on the Indian side by the Defence Secretary. 2. The ground-breaking of the Sampur Solar power project was held virtually. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. On the Indian side, the Defence Cooperation MoU was signed by Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri.
The Sita Eliya temple, for which India announced grant assistance in April 2025, is located in which part of Sri Lanka?
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Correct answer: A — Nuwara Eliya
Nuwara Eliya; grants were also announced for the Thirukoneswaram temple in Trincomalee and the Sacred City Complex in Anuradhapura.
In which year was the Stand-Up India Scheme launched?
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Correct answer: B — 2016
PIB (Finance Ministry): the Stand-Up India Scheme was launched on 5 April 2016.
According to the Finance Ministry, what was the total amount sanctioned under Stand-Up India since launch, as of 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Rs 61,020.41 crore
PIB (Finance Ministry): the total amount sanctioned rose from Rs 14,431.14 crore (31 October 2018) to Rs 61,020.41 crore by 17 March 2025.
Consider the following about the Stand-Up India Scheme: 1. It provides bank loans to SC, ST and women entrepreneurs to start new businesses. 2. Women entrepreneurs' accounts under it exceeded 1.9 lakh by November 2024. 3. Total sanctions under it crossed Rs 1 lakh crore by March 2025. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Finance Ministry): the scheme gives bank loans to SC, ST and women entrepreneurs for new businesses, and women's accounts reached 1,90,844 by November 2024. Total sanctions were Rs 61,020.41 crore by 17 March 2025, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which honour did Sri Lanka confer on Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 5 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sri Lanka Mitra Vibhushana
Sri Lanka Mitra Vibhushana, conferred by President Anura Kumara Disanayaka.
Consider the following statements about the 'Sri Lanka Mitra Vibhushana' conferred on PM Modi in April 2025: 1. It is Sri Lanka's highest honour bestowed on foreign leaders. 2. It was the first time an Indian leader received this award. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The award was conferred for his enduring contribution to strengthening India–Sri Lanka friendship.
What was the theme of Maritime Week for the 62nd National Maritime Day on 5 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Prosperous Seas - Developed India and Youth for Blue Economy and Green Growth
PIB (MoPSW): this year's theme was "Prosperous Seas - Developed India and Youth for Blue Economy and Green Growth".
The central celebration of the 62nd National Maritime Day in New Delhi was organised by the NMDCC Delhi chapter under the aegis of which body?
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Correct answer: C — Directorate General of Shipping
PIB (MoPSW): the NMDCC Delhi chapter, under the aegis of the Directorate General of Shipping, MoPSW, organised the central celebration at the Vinay Marg Sports Ground.
Which edition of National Maritime Day did India celebrate on 5 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 62nd
PIB (MoPSW): the Ministry celebrated the 62nd National Maritime Day across the country.
What is the total outlay of the Vibrant Villages Programme-II approved by the Union Cabinet on 4 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rs 6,839 crore
PIB (Cabinet): VVP-II has a total outlay of Rs 6,839 crore till FY 2028-29.
The Vibrant Villages Programme-II has been approved as a:
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Correct answer: B — Central Sector Scheme with 100% Centre funding
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved VVP-II as a Central Sector Scheme (100% Centre funding).
Consider the following about the Vibrant Villages Programme-II: 1. It covers villages along international land borders other than the Northern border covered under VVP-I. 2. All-weather road connectivity for these villages will be provided under PMGSY-IV. 3. It will run till FY 2030-31. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet): VVP-II covers ILB villages other than the Northern border already under VVP-I, and road connectivity will come under PMGSY-IV. It runs for FY 2024-25 to 2028-29, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, which cleared Parliament on 4 April 2025, the Waqf Act, 1995 is renamed as the:
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Correct answer: A — Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development Act, 2025
PIB (Ministry of Minority Affairs): the Bill renames the Act the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development Act, 2025.
The Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament along with the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, repeals the Mussalman Wakf Act of which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1923
PIB (Ministry of Minority Affairs): the Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Bill, 2025 seeks to remove the outdated Mussalman Wakf Act, 1923.
Consider the following about the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. It removes 'waqf by user' and allows waqf formation only through declaration or endowment. 2. It requires donors to be practising Muslims for at least ten years. 3. It empowers Collectors to conduct surveys of waqf property. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Ministry of Minority Affairs): the Bill removes waqf by user, allows formation only through declaration or endowment, and empowers Collectors to conduct surveys. Donors must be practising Muslims for at least five years, not ten, so statement 2 is wrong.
What was the theme of the 6th BIMSTEC Summit held in Bangkok on 4 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BIMSTEC: Prosperous, Resilient and Open
PIB (PMO): the theme of the Summit was "BIMSTEC: Prosperous, Resilient and Open".
BODHI, the skilling initiative India announced at the 6th BIMSTEC Summit, stands for:
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Correct answer: C — BIMSTEC for Organised Development of Human Resource Infrastructure
PIB (PMO): BODHI is "BIMSTEC for Organised Development of Human resource Infrastructure"; 300 youth from BIMSTEC countries will be trained in India every year.
At the 6th BIMSTEC Summit, India announced it would host the first BIMSTEC Games in:
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Correct answer: A — 2027
PIB (PMO): India would host the first BIMSTEC Games in 2027, when the group celebrates its 30th anniversary.
Consider the following about the 6th BIMSTEC Summit (4 April 2025): 1. It adopted the BIMSTEC Bangkok Vision 2030 document. 2. The BIMSTEC Maritime Transport Agreement was signed. 3. It adopted the report of the BIMSTEC Eminent Persons Group. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (PMO): the Summit adopted the Summit Declaration, the Bangkok Vision 2030 document, the signing of the Maritime Transport Agreement and the report of the Eminent Persons Group. All three are correct.
What is the approximate total cost of the four railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 4 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Rs 18,658 crore
PIB (CCEA): the four projects have a total cost of about Rs 18,658 crore and will be completed up to 2030-31.
The four railway multitracking projects approved on 4 April 2025 cover districts in which three states?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra, Odisha and Chhattisgarh
PIB (CCEA): the four projects cover 15 districts in Maharashtra, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
The railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 4 April 2025 will enhance connectivity to which two Aspirational Districts?
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Correct answer: B — Gadchiroli and Rajnandgaon
PIB (CCEA): the projects will enhance connectivity to two Aspirational Districts, Gadchiroli and Rajnandgaon, with 19 new stations.
On 4 April 2025, the technology of CSIR's HANSA-3(NG) trainer aircraft was licensed to:
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Correct answer: D — Pioneer Clean Amps Pvt Ltd
PIB (MoST): the licensing of the HANSA-3(NG) two-seater trainer aircraft has been granted to M/s Pioneer Clean Amps Pvt. Ltd.
Which CSIR laboratory developed the HANSA-3(NG) trainer aircraft?
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Correct answer: B — CSIR-NAL
PIB (MoST): the Civil Aviation Minister complimented CSIR and CSIR-NAL scientists for commercialisation of HANSA-3(NG), and CSIR-NAL has received LoIs for 110+ aircraft.
Which engine powers the HANSA-3(NG) trainer aircraft, whose technology was transferred on 4 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Rotax 912 iSc3 Sports
PIB (MoST): the HANSA-3(NG) is powered by an advanced fuel-efficient Rotax 912 iSc3 Sports engine.
How many wagons did Indian Railways produce in FY 2024-25, an all-time high?
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Correct answer: D — 41,929
PIB (Railways): Indian Railways produced an all-time high of 41,929 wagons in FY 2024-25.
According to the Railways Ministry, what was the total wagon production of Indian Railways over the three years 2022-23 to 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 1,02,369
PIB (Railways): 22,790 (2022-23) + 37,650 (2023-24) + 41,929 (2024-25) = 1,02,369 wagons in the last three years.
During PM Modi's visit to Bangkok on 3 April 2025, India and Thailand elevated their relationship to a:
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Correct answer: D — Strategic Partnership
PIB (PMO): the two leaders witnessed the exchange of the Joint Declaration on the Establishment of the India-Thailand Strategic Partnership.
An India-Thailand MoU signed on 3 April 2025 concerns the development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex at:
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Correct answer: C — Lothal
PIB (PMO), list of outcomes: an MoU between the Sagarmala Division of the Ports Ministry and Thailand's Fine Arts Department for development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal, Gujarat.
Which Buddhist scripture did Thai Prime Minister Paetongtarn Shinawatra present to PM Modi on 3 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tipitaka in Pali
PIB (PMO): PM Modi was presented a special edition of the Buddhist holy scriptures, the Tipitaka in Pali, by PM Shinawatra.
During PM Modi's visit on 3 April 2025, India welcomed Thailand's decision to co-lead which pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans' Initiative (IPOI)?
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Correct answer: B — Maritime Ecology
PIB (PMO), PM's press statement: India welcomed Thailand's decision to co-lead the 'Maritime Ecology' Pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans' Initiative.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Thailand on 3 April 2025: 1. An MoU between India's MeitY and Thailand's Ministry of Digital Economy and Society on digital technologies. 2. An MoU between India's NSIC and Thailand's OSMEP on MSMEs. 3. An MoU between India's Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region and Thailand's Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO), list of outcomes: the MeitY-MDES digital MoU and the NSIC-OSMEP MSME MoU were signed. The MDoNER MoU was with Thailand's Ministry of Foreign Affairs, not the Ministry of Culture, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Protection of Interest in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament in April 2025, builds on which international convention?
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Correct answer: A — Cape Town Convention, 2001
PIB (Civil Aviation): the Bill builds on the framework of the Cape Town Convention of 2001, which aimed to simplify and standardise international leasing agreements.
In which year did India formally adopt the Cape Town Convention, according to the Civil Aviation Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — 2008
PIB (Civil Aviation): India formally adopted the Cape Town Convention in 2008, but gaps in legal enforcement led to higher leasing costs.
According to the Civil Aviation Ministry, gaps in enforcing the Cape Town Convention made aircraft leasing for Indian carriers typically how much costlier than in other nations?
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Correct answer: C — 8 to 10 percent
PIB (Civil Aviation): India adopted the Cape Town Convention in 2008, but gaps in legal enforcement led to leasing costs typically 8 to 10 percent higher than other nations.
Consider the following censuses supported by the Water Resource Census portal launched on 3 April 2025: 1. 7th Minor Irrigation Census 2. 2nd Census of Water Bodies 3. 1st Census of Springs Which of the above are covered?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Jal Shakti): the portal aids the 7th Minor Irrigation Census, the 2nd Census of Water Bodies, the 1st Census of Springs and the 1st Census of Major and Medium Irrigation Projects. All three listed are covered.
What is the reference year for the censuses run through the Water Resource Census portal launched in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Agricultural year 2023-24
PIB (Jal Shakti): the reference year is the 2023-24 agricultural year (July 2023 to June 2024) under the Irrigation Census Scheme.
How are the censuses supported by the Water Resource Census portal, launched on 3 April 2025, funded?
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Correct answer: D — 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme
PIB (Jal Shakti): the census is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme, with agricultural year 2023-24 as the reference year under the Irrigation Census Scheme.
The joint expedition to Mount Kangchenjunga flagged off on 3 April 2025 comprises mountaineers from the Indian Army and the army of:
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Correct answer: B — Nepal
PIB (Defence): the joint Indo-Nepal expedition to Mount Kangchenjunga features 12 mountaineers from the Indian Army and six from the Nepali Army.
The Indian Army's Everest expedition flagged off on 3 April 2025 will follow which route?
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Correct answer: B — South Col route
PIB (Defence): the Indian Army's 34-member Mount Everest expedition will follow the traditional South Col Route.
As stated by the Defence Ministry while flagging off the April 2025 expeditions, what is the height of Mount Kangchenjunga?
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Correct answer: C — 8,586 m
PIB (Defence): Rajnath Singh flagged off expeditions to Mount Everest (8,848 m) and Mount Kangchenjunga (8,586 m).
Under US Executive Order 14257 of 2 April 2025, from which date did the 10% baseline tariff on imports from all trading partners apply?
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Correct answer: B — 5 April 2025
White House (EO 14257): the additional 10% ad valorem duty applies to goods entered on or after 12:01 a.m. EDT on 5 April 2025; country-specific Annex I rates apply from 9 April 2025.
Under which US law did the President declare a national emergency in the reciprocal-tariff Executive Order of 2 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — International Emergency Economic Powers Act
White House (EO 14257): the order invokes the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) and the National Emergencies Act, and declares a national emergency with respect to the trade-deficit threat.
'Mission 500', recalled in India's official response to the US reciprocal tariffs, aims to raise India-US bilateral trade to US$ 500 billion by:
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Correct answer: C — 2030
PIB (Commerce): the leaders announced 'Mission 500' on 13 February 2025, aiming to more than double bilateral trade to US$ 500 billion by 2030.
Under US Executive Order 14257 of 2 April 2025, the higher country-specific reciprocal tariff rates listed in Annex I were to apply from:
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Correct answer: D — 12:01 a.m. EDT, 9 April 2025
Executive Order 14257 (White House): the 10% baseline applied from 12:01 a.m. EDT on 5 April 2025, and the country-specific Annex I rates from 12:01 a.m. EDT on 9 April 2025.
Consider the following goods with respect to the reciprocal tariffs under US Executive Order 14257: 1. Steel and aluminium articles already subject to Section 232 duties 2. Copper, pharmaceuticals and semiconductors listed in Annex II 3. All agricultural products Which of the above are exempted from the reciprocal tariffs by the order?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Executive Order 14257: exempted goods include steel and aluminium articles and automobiles subject to Section 232 duties of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962, and Annex II products such as copper, pharmaceuticals, semiconductors, lumber, certain critical minerals and energy. The order has no blanket exemption for agricultural products.
How many kilometres of national highways did NHAI construct in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 5,614 km
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI constructed 5,614 km of national highways in FY 2024-25 against the target of 5,150 km.
Which of the following modes did NHAI use to monetise assets worth ₹28,724 crore in FY 2024-25? 1. Toll Operate Transfer 2. Infrastructure Investment Trust 3. Toll securitisation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI leveraged three modes for monetisation, Toll Operate Transfer (TOT), Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT) and Toll Securitisation, for a total of ₹28,724 crore.
NHAI's capital expenditure in FY 2024-25, an all-time high, was over:
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,50,000 crore
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI's capital expenditure reached an all-time high of over ₹2,50,000 crore (provisional) against a target of ₹2,40,000 crore, up from ₹2,07,000 crore in FY 2023-24.
How many locomotives did Indian Railways produce in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — 1,681
PIB (Railways): Indian Railways produced a record 1,681 locomotives in FY 2024-25, up from 1,472 in FY 2023-24.
Which unit produced the most locomotives (700) in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — Chittaranjan Locomotive Works
PIB (Railways): Chittaranjan Locomotive Works manufactured 700 locomotives, Banaras 477, Patiala 304, and Madhepura and Marhowrah 100 each.
Which locomotive class accounted for the largest number (1,047) of the 1,681 locomotives produced by Indian Railways in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — WAG-9/9H
PIB (Railways): of the 1,681 locomotives, 1,047 were WAG-9/9H freight locomotives, followed by 272 WAP-7 and 148 WAG-9 Twin.
MOIL, which reported record output in FY 2024-25, is mainly a producer of which ore?
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Correct answer: D — Manganese ore
PIB (Steel): MOIL recorded its best-ever performance with record manganese ore production of 18.02 lakh tonnes and record manganese ore sales.
What was MOIL's manganese ore production in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 18.02 lakh tonnes
PIB (Steel): MOIL's manganese ore production was a record 18.02 lakh tonnes, 2.7% higher year on year; 15.87 lakh tonnes was the sales figure.
Besides manganese ore, MOIL reported record production of which product in FY 2024-25, at 12,000 MT?
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Correct answer: D — Ferro manganese
PIB (Steel): MOIL recorded ferro manganese production of 12,000 MT in FY'25, 18% higher year-on-year.
With which company did the Indian Navy sign a Make-I Project Sanction Order on 2 April 2025 to develop a 6 MW marine diesel engine?
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Correct answer: D — Kirloskar Oil Engines Limited
PIB (Defence): the Project Sanction Order under Make-I was inked between the Indian Navy and Kirloskar Oil Engines Limited.
Consider the following statements about the 6 MW marine diesel engine project signed on 2 April 2025: 1. The prototype will have over 50% indigenous content. 2. The Government of India will fund 70% of the ₹270 crore cost. 3. The engines are meant only for Indian Navy submarines. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): the prototype has over 50% indigenous content and 70% funding from the Government. Statement 3 is incorrect: the engines are for main propulsion and power generation on Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard ships.
Besides the 6 MW prototype, the Project Sanction Order signed with Kirloskar Oil Engines on 2 April 2025 also covers detailed design for diesel engines of which range?
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Correct answer: B — 3-10 MW
PIB (Defence): the order also includes development of detailed design for 3-10 MW diesel engines.
India's defence exports in the financial year 2024-25 reached a record of about:
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Correct answer: B — ₹23,622 crore
PIB (Defence): defence exports surged to a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25, up from ₹21,083 crore in FY 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports in FY 2024-25: 1. The private sector contributed more than the Defence PSUs. 2. Defence PSU exports grew by more than 40%. 3. Exports went to more than 100 countries. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): the private sector contributed ₹15,233 crore and DPSUs ₹8,389 crore, with DPSU exports up 42.85%. Statement 3 is incorrect: items were exported to around 80 countries.
By 2029, India aims to raise its annual defence exports to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹50,000 crore
PIB (Defence): the Raksha Mantri said India is marching towards achieving the target of increasing defence exports to ₹50,000 crore by 2029.
According to the Coal Ministry, India's provisional coal production in FY 2024-25 was about:
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Correct answer: D — 1,047.57 million tonnes
PIB (Coal): cumulative coal production in FY 2024-25 reached 1,047.57 MT (provisional), compared to 997.83 MT in FY 2023-24. 1,024.99 MT was the dispatch figure.
By how much did India's coal production grow in FY 2024-25 over FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: B — 4.99%
PIB (Coal): production grew 4.99%, from 997.83 MT to 1,047.57 MT. The 5.34% figure was the growth in dispatch.
How much renewable energy capacity did India add in FY 2024-25, according to the MNRE?
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Correct answer: D — 25 GW
PIB (MNRE): the country added an unprecedented 25 GW of renewable energy capacity in FY 2024-25, against 18.57 GW in the previous year.
India's solar module manufacturing capacity in March 2025, as reported by the MNRE, was about:
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Correct answer: C — 74 GW
PIB (MNRE): solar module manufacturing capacity nearly doubled from 38 GW in March 2024 to 74 GW in March 2025; 25 GW is the PV cell capacity.
During FY 2024-25, India's installed solar capacity crossed which milestone?
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Correct answer: D — 100 GW
PIB (MNRE): the country achieved the significant milestone of surpassing 100 GW of installed solar capacity this year.
The NITI NCAER States Economic Forum portal, launched on 1 April 2025, mainly provides data and analysis on:
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Correct answer: B — State finances
PIB (NITI Aayog): the portal is a comprehensive repository of data on social, economic and fiscal parameters, research reports, papers and expert commentary on State Finances.
The NITI NCAER States Economic Forum portal covers state finance data for which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1990-91 to 2022-23
PIB (NITI Aayog): the portal covers a period of about 30 years, i.e. 1990-91 to 2022-23.