Reports & Indices Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to the Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025, what is India's global rank in total forest area?
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Correct answer: C — 9th
PIB: India moved up to 9th position in total forest area as per GFRA 2025; it was 10th in the previous assessment.
The Global Forest Resources Assessment (GFRA) 2025 was released by which organisation?
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Correct answer: B — Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
PIB: GFRA 2025 was released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in Bali.
Consider the following statements regarding India in the Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025: 1. India retained its 3rd position worldwide in annual forest area gain. 2. The assessment was released by FAO at Rome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: India maintained its 3rd position in annual forest area gain; the GFRA 2025 was released by FAO in Bali, not Rome.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries grow in September 2025 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 3.0%
PIB: the ICI increased by 3.0% (provisional) in September 2025; 2.9% is the April–September cumulative and 6.5% the final August figure.
Which core industry recorded the highest growth in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Steel
PIB: steel production increased by 14.1% in September 2025, ahead of cement (5.3%), electricity (2.1%) and fertilizers (1.6%).
Consider the following statements about the Index of Eight Core Industries: 1. The eight core industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production. 2. Among the eight, refinery products carry the smallest weight. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the eight core industries comprise 40.27% of IIP weight; petroleum refinery products carry the largest weight (28.04%), while fertilizers have the smallest (2.63%).
Which State is ranked first in Category A of the State Mining Readiness Index released by the Ministry of Mines in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Madhya Pradesh
PIB: the top three in Category A are Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Which States are the top three in Category C of the State Mining Readiness Index?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab, Uttarakhand and Tripura
PIB: in Category C, the top three ranks were obtained by Punjab, Uttarakhand and Tripura; Goa, Uttar Pradesh and Assam top Category B.
Consider the following statements about the State Mining Readiness Index (SMRI): 1. Its release fulfils an announcement made in the Union Budget 2025-26. 2. Its indicators pertain mainly to coal and lignite blocks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: SMRI fulfils the Union Budget 2025-26 announcement; its indicators — auction performance, early mine operationalisation, exploration and sustainable mining — pertain to non-coal minerals.
According to NITI Aayog's October 2025 report on deep-sea fisheries, India accounts for what share of global fish production?
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Correct answer: A — 8%
PIB: India is the second-largest fish-producing country in the world, accounting for 8% of global production.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's report 'India's Blue Economy: Strategy for Harnessing Deep-Sea and Offshore Fisheries': 1. India's EEZ has an estimated potential yield of 7.16 million tonnes. 2. Phase 1 of the proposed roadmap covers 2025–28. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the EEZ has an estimated potential yield of 7.16 million tonnes; Phase 1 (laying the foundation and fostering early growth) spans 3 years, 2025–28.
According to NITI Aayog's tax working paper of October 2025, the Income-tax Act, 2025 continues to criminalise how many actions and omissions?
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Correct answer: B — 35 across 13 provisions
PIB: the paper highlights that the 2025 Act continues to criminalise 35 actions and omissions across 13 provisions, most prescribing mandatory imprisonment.
Consider the following statements about the NITI Tax Policy Working Paper Series: 1. The first paper in the series dealt with Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors in India. 2. The second paper recommends removing criminal sanctions even for cases of fraud and wilful evasion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the first paper was on certainty, transparency and uniformity in Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors; the second paper recommends restricting criminal sanctions to cases involving fraud or wilful evasion, not removing them.
According to NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy' (October 2025), India's tech services sector could create up to how many new jobs in the next five years?
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Correct answer: D — 4 million
PIB: the roadmap says India's tech services sector has the opportunity to create up to 4 million new jobs in the next five years.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy': 1. It was developed by NITI Aayog's Frontier Tech Hub in collaboration with NASSCOM and BCG. 2. It recommends launching a National AI Talent Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the roadmap was developed by NITI's Frontier Tech Hub with NASSCOM and BCG, and recommends a National AI Talent Mission working with the IndiaAI Mission.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' proposes which national mission for informal workers?
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Correct answer: D — Mission Digital ShramSetu
PIB: NITI Aayog called for Mission Digital ShramSetu, a proposed national mission to make AI accessible, affordable and impactful for every worker.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' (October 2025): 1. It focuses on India's 490 million informal workers. 2. It warns that on the current trajectory, informal workers' average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, against a $14,500 target. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the study explores how AI can transform the lives of India's 490 million informal workers and warns that at the current trajectory their average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, far below the $14,500 target.
The fourth edition of NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly (Q4 FY25) carries a special focus on which sector?
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Correct answer: C — Leather and footwear
PIB: this edition examines the leather and footwear sector, highlighting its employment potential and export opportunities.
According to NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly (October 2025), India's share in the $296 billion global leather and footwear market is about:
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Correct answer: D — 1.8%
PIB: India's overall share in the $296 billion global market is modest at 1.8%; the sector employs 4.4 million people.
The Competition Commission of India's 'Market Study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition' (October 2025) was conducted through which institution?
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Correct answer: D — Management Development Institute Society (MDIS)
PIB: CCI released its report Market Study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition, conducted through the Management Development Institute Society (MDIS).
According to the government explainer of October 2025, what was India's unemployment rate in 2023–24?
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Correct answer: D — 3.2%
PIB explainer: the unemployment rate fell sharply from 6.0% in 2017–18 to 3.2% in 2023–24.
Consider the following statements based on the government's October 2025 employment explainer: 1. EPFO added fewer than 1 crore net subscribers in 2024–25. 2. The share of self-employment fell from 58.4% in 2017–18 to 52.2% in 2023–24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: EPFO added over 1.29 crore net subscribers in 2024–25 (up from 61.12 lakh in 2018–19). Self-employment rose (not fell) from 52.2% in 2017–18 to 58.4% in 2023–24, while casual labour fell from 24.9% to 19.8%.
The first paper in NITI Aayog's Tax Policy Working Paper Series–I (October 2025) deals with which issue?
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Correct answer: C — Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors
PIB (NITI Aayog): the first working paper is titled 'Enhancing Tax Certainty in Permanent Establishment and Profit Attribution for Foreign Investors in India'.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 working paper on Permanent Establishment recommends introducing which of the following for foreign companies?
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Correct answer: D — An optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme
PIB (NITI Aayog): the paper recommends an optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme for foreign companies, with legislative clarity, administrative efficiency and robust dispute resolution; it was prepared under NITI's Consultative Group on Tax Policy.
What was Delhi's average AQI for January–September 2025, as reported by the Environment Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — 164
Delhi's average AQI for January–September 2025 was 164, against 178 in 2024.
Consider the following statements about Delhi's air quality in January–September 2025: 1. There was no day with an average AQI above 400. 2. Delhi recorded 75 'Satisfactory' AQI days in this period. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Environment Ministry release of 1 October 2025.
Which institution topped the Overall category of the NIRF India Rankings 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
IIT Madras retained first position in the Overall category for the seventh consecutive year (2019–2025).
Which institution topped the Universities category in NIRF India Rankings 2025 for the tenth consecutive year?
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Correct answer: A — IISc Bengaluru
IISc Bengaluru topped the Universities category for the tenth consecutive year (2016–2025).
Which new category was introduced in the NIRF India Rankings in 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sustainable Development Goals
The Sustainable Development Goals category was added in 2025; Open and Skill Universities were added in 2024 and Innovation in 2023.
Consider the following statements about the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF): 1. NIRF was launched by the Ministry of Education in September 2015. 2. In the 2025 rankings, IIT Madras was first in Engineering for the tenth consecutive year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
NIRF was launched in September 2015, the first rankings came out in 2016, and IIT Madras has topped Engineering every year from 2016 to 2025. Both statements are correct.
According to NITI Aayog's pulses report of September 2025, India's import dependence on pulses fell from 29% in 2015–16 to what level by 2022–23?
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Correct answer: B — 10.4%
Production rose 59.4% to 26.06 MT by 2022–23, reducing import dependence from 29% to 10.4%.
NITI Aayog's report on pulses (September 2025) recommends 'horizontal expansion'. This refers to:
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Correct answer: B — Increasing area under pulses, e.g. by using rice fallow lands
Horizontal expansion aims to increase area under pulses by using untapped land such as rice fallows and intercropping; vertical expansion focuses on yields.
Consider the following statements based on NITI Aayog's pulses report of September 2025: 1. About 80% of India's pulse production depends on rainfed areas. 2. With focused strategies, domestic pulse supply could reach 48.44 MT by 2030. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The report says nearly 80% of production depends on rainfed areas, and that focused strategies could take supply to 48.44 MT by 2030. Both statements are correct.
The Quarterly Bulletin of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (QBUSE), first released in September 2025, is the quarterly edition of which survey?
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Correct answer: C — Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises
QBUSE is the quarterly edition of the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE).
According to the first QBUSE, employment in the unincorporated sector in January–March 2025 was:
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Correct answer: D — 13.13 crore
Employment crossed 13 crore for the first time in January–March 2025, reaching 13.13 crore.
Consider the following statements based on the first QBUSE released in September 2025: 1. The number of unincorporated establishments was higher in April–June 2025 than in January–March 2025. 2. Female workers accounted for over 28% of total employment in both quarters. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Establishments rose from 7.85 crore (January–March) to 7.94 crore (April–June 2025), and women made up over 28% of employment in both quarters. Both statements are correct.
Which organisation prepared the report 'Yoga and Prevention of Type 2 Diabetes' presented to the Health Minister in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Research Society for the Study of Diabetes in India
PIB (24 July 2025): the report was prepared by the Research Society for the Study of Diabetes in India (RSSDI), led by its past President Dr. S.V. Madhu.
Who presented India's third Voluntary National Review at the UN High-Level Political Forum on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Suman Bery
PIB: NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Suman Bery presented India's Third VNR on 23 July 2025 at the HLPF.
The High-Level Political Forum on SDGs, where India presented its VNR in July 2025, is convened by which UN body?
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Correct answer: C — Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
PIB: the VNR was presented at the Ministerial Segment of the HLPF on SDGs convened by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
According to India's VNR 2025, around how many people are estimated to have escaped multidimensional poverty?
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Correct answer: B — 248 million
PIB: around 248 million individuals are estimated to have escaped Multidimensional Poverty.
Consider the following statements about India's VNR 2025: 1. It is India's third submission to the HLPF. 2. Its preparation was steered by NITI Aayog. 3. It describes India as the second-largest start-up ecosystem in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the VNR marks India's third submission to the HLPF and was steered by NITI Aayog; it describes India as the third-largest (not second-largest) start-up ecosystem. So 3 is wrong.
India's Digital Public Infrastructure highlighted in the VNR 2025 is grounded in the 'JAM' trinity. What does JAM stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile
PIB: the report highlights India's leadership in Digital Public Infrastructure grounded in the Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile (JAM) trinity.
According to the Comprehensive Modular Survey: Telecom 2025, what share of Indian households possessed at least one smartphone?
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Correct answer: D — 85.5%
MoSPI found approximately 85.5% of households possessed at least one smartphone.
As per CMS: Telecom 2025, what percentage of rural persons aged 15–29 used mobile phones in the last three months?
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Correct answer: B — 96.8%
Rural mobile phone use in the 15–29 age group was about 96.8%; 97.6% was urban use and 92.7% rural internet use.
Among persons aged 15–29 able to perform online banking transactions, what share could do so through UPI, as per CMS: Telecom 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 99.5%
About 99.5% of such persons reported the ability to transact through UPI.
According to NITI Aayog's May 2025 report, medium enterprises contribute what share of MSME exports?
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Correct answer: B — 40%
Medium enterprises, though only 0.3% of MSMEs, contribute 40% of MSME exports. 29% is the MSME share of GDP and 60%+ its share of the workforce.
Consider the following statements based on NITI Aayog's report 'Designing a Policy for Medium Enterprises': 1. The MSME sector contributes 29% to India's GDP. 2. Medium enterprises make up only 0.3% of MSMEs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the NITI Aayog release.
According to 'Energy Statistics India 2025', released on 29 March 2025, India's Total Primary Energy Supply grew by how much in FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — 7.8%
TPES grew 7.8% in FY 2023-24 to 9,03,158 KToE.
According to 'Energy Statistics India 2025', which source accounts for the largest share (about 55%) of India's renewable energy potential?
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Correct answer: B — Wind
Wind power has 11,63,856 MW of the 21,09,655 MW potential, about 55%; solar is second.
Consider the following statements about 'Energy Statistics India 2025': 1. It includes a new chapter on Energy Accounts following the System of Environmental Economic Accounting (SEEA) 2012 framework. 2. Rajasthan has the largest share of India's renewable energy potential. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The publication adds an Energy Accounts chapter under SEEA 2012, and Rajasthan holds the largest share (20.3%) of RE potential.
The Time Use Survey 2024, whose report was released on 28 March 2025, was which all-India edition of the survey?
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Correct answer: C — Second
It was the second all-India Time Use Survey; the first was conducted in 2019.
According to Time Use in India 2024, what share of women aged 15–59 took part in paid activities?
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Correct answer: B — 24.9%
24.9% of women aged 15–59 took part in paid activities, against 74.5% of men.
Consider the following statements about the Time Use Survey (TUS) 2024: 1. Non-SNA production activities, such as unpaid domestic work, saw participation by 93.9% of women aged 15–59. 2. Time-use surveys capture only work that is counted in the national accounts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
93.9% of women aged 15–59 took part in non-SNA production activities. Time-use surveys are valuable precisely because they also capture work not counted in national accounts, such as unpaid domestic and care work.
According to the India Bioeconomy Report 2025, released on 21 March 2025, what was the size of India's bioeconomy in 2024?
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Correct answer: B — $165.7 billion
IBER 2025 put India's bioeconomy at $165.7 billion in 2024, up from $10 billion in 2014.
What share of India's GDP did the bioeconomy contribute, as per the India Bioeconomy Report 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 4.25%
IBER 2025 says the bioeconomy contributes 4.25% to India's GDP.
What is 'BioSaarthi', launched by Dr Jitendra Singh on 21 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A global mentorship initiative for biotech startups
BioSaarthi is a six-month cohort-based global mentorship initiative for biotech startups, engaging overseas experts, especially from the Indian diaspora.
How many biotech startups does India have, as cited at the release of the India Bioeconomy Report 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 10,075
The Minister said biotech startups have grown from about 50 a decade ago to over 10,075.
Consider the following statements about the India Bioeconomy Report 2025: 1. India's bioeconomy surpassed the target of $150 billion set for 2025. 2. The bioeconomy grew at a CAGR of 17.9% over the past four years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
IBER 2025 says the bioeconomy reached $165.7 billion in 2024, surpassing the $150 billion target for 2025, with a CAGR of 17.9% over the past four years.
What was India's rank in the World Happiness Report 2025, released on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 118th
India ranked 118th of 147 countries, up from 126th in 2024.
Which country was ranked the happiest in the World Happiness Report 2025, for the eighth year in a row?
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Correct answer: A — Finland
Finland led the ranking for the eighth consecutive year with an average score of 7.736.
What was the theme of the World Happiness Report 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Caring and sharing
The 2025 report focused on the impact of caring and sharing on people's happiness.
Consider the following statements about the World Happiness Report 2025: 1. It is published by the Wellbeing Research Centre at the University of Oxford, in partnership with Gallup and the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network. 2. It is released every year to mark World Mental Health Day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The report is published by Oxford's Wellbeing Research Centre with Gallup, the UN SDSN and an independent editorial board. It is released to mark the UN International Day of Happiness on 20 March, not World Mental Health Day (10 October).
Which town was named the world's most polluted metropolitan area in IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Byrnihat
Byrnihat, on the Assam–Meghalaya border, topped the list with an annual average PM2.5 of 128.2 µg/m³.
What was India's rank among the most polluted countries in IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Fifth
India ranked fifth at 50.6 µg/m³, improving from third in 2023.
Which country was ranked the most polluted in IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Chad
Chad topped the list at 91.8 µg/m³, followed by Bangladesh, Pakistan, the DR Congo and India.
Consider the following statements about IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2024: 1. India's annual average PM2.5 concentration was more than ten times the WHO annual guideline of 5 µg/m³. 2. New Delhi was the most polluted capital city. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: India averaged 50.6 µg/m³ against the WHO guideline of 5 µg/m³, and New Delhi remained the world's most polluted capital.
What real GDP growth range did the Economic Survey 2024-25 project for FY26?
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Correct answer: B — 6.3–6.8%
PIB 2097919: the real GDP is projected to grow between 6.3 and 6.8 per cent in FY26; FY25 growth was estimated at 6.4%.
According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to a 12-year low of:
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Correct answer: A — 2.6%
PIB 2097919: GNPA of scheduled commercial banks declined to a 12-year low of 2.6 per cent.
The Economic Survey 2024-25 used the German term 'Mittelstand' to refer to which sector it wants to build up in India?
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Correct answer: A — Small and medium enterprises
PIB 2097919: the focus of reforms and Ease of Doing Business 2.0 is to create India's Mittelstand, i.e. India's SME sector.
Consider the following statements about the Economic Survey 2024-25: 1. It estimated FY25 real GDP growth at 6.4%. 2. It said forex reserves of USD 640.3 billion could cover 10.9 months of imports. 3. It reported retail inflation rising from 4.9% in FY24 to 5.4% in April–December 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097919: FY25 growth was 6.4% and forex of USD 640.3 billion covered 10.9 months of imports; retail inflation softened from 5.4% in FY24 to 4.9% in April–December 2024, so statement 3 reverses the figures.
What was the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India in 2023-24, as per HCES 2023-24 (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,122
PIB 2097601: average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹4,122 (rural) and ₹6,996 (urban) without imputed values; with imputation ₹4,247 and ₹7,078.
Among major states, which state had the lowest urban–rural gap in average MPCE in 2023-24 according to HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Kerala
PIB 2097601: the lowest urban–rural gap in 2023-24 was in Kerala (about 18%) and the highest in Jharkhand (around 83%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The urban–rural gap in MPCE declined to 70% in 2023-24. 2. The Gini coefficient of consumption in rural areas declined to 0.237. 3. The Gini coefficient in urban areas rose compared to 2022-23. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097601: the urban–rural gap fell to 70% and rural Gini fell to 0.237; urban Gini also fell, from 0.314 to 0.284, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to ASUSE 2023-24, which state had the highest number of unincorporated sector establishments?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097316: Uttar Pradesh had the highest number of establishments, followed by West Bengal and Maharashtra.
By how much did the number of establishments in the unincorporated sector grow in ASUSE 2023-24 over 2022-23?
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Correct answer: B — 12.84%
PIB 2097316: establishments grew 12.84% (6.50 crore to 7.34 crore); workers grew 10.01% and GVA 16.52%.
Which state topped Gross Value Added in the unincorporated sector as per ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB 2097316: the top three states in GVA were Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat.
According to the SBI report highlighted on 26 January 2025, what were total investment announcements in April–December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — ₹32.01 lakh crore
PIB 2096480: investment announcements in 9MFY25 stood at ₹32.01 lakh crore, up 39% from ₹23 lakh crore in 9MFY24.
Consider the following statements based on the SBI report highlighted by the Finance Ministry in January 2025: 1. Household net financial savings rose to 5.3% of GDP in FY24. 2. Private corporate investment reached 11.9% of GDP in FY23, the highest since FY16. 3. The public sector accounted for nearly 70% of investment announcements in 9MFY25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096480: HNFS rose to 5.3% of GDP in FY24 and private corporate investment hit 11.9% of GDP in FY23; nearly 70% of 9MFY25 announcements came from the private sector, not the public sector.
Which state topped NITI Aayog's inaugural Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Odisha
PIB 2095974: Odisha topped with a score of 67.8, followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
Who launched NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025 on 24 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Arvind Panagariya
PIB 2095974: 16th Finance Commission Chairman Arvind Panagariya launched the inaugural FHI 2025.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five sub-indices of NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Ease of Doing Business
PIB 2095974: the sub-indices are Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index and Debt Sustainability.
Which state ranked second in NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chhattisgarh
PIB 2095974: Odisha (67.8) was followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
According to MeitY's January 2025 report, what share of national income did India's digital economy account for in 2022-23?
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Correct answer: A — 11.74%
PIB 2095260: India's digital economy was estimated at 11.74% of national income in 2022-23.
With MeitY's digital economy estimates, India became the first developing country to use which organisation's framework to size its digital economy?
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Correct answer: C — OECD
PIB 2095260: India is the first among developing countries to use the OECD framework; alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.
Consider the following about MeitY's report on India's digital economy (January 2025): 1. The digital economy was worth ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23. 2. It is projected to contribute one-fifth of GDP by 2030. 3. It also gives alternate estimates using the ADB's input-output approach. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095260: the digital economy equalled ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23, is projected at one-fifth of GDP by 2030, and alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.