Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Who chaired the CAQM review meetings with Haryana and Punjab in Chandigarh on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Rajesh Verma
CAQM: the review meetings were held under the Chairmanship of Shri Rajesh Verma, Chairperson of the Commission.
What minimum biomass co-firing target for thermal power plants in 2025–26 did CAQM review on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 5%
CAQM: the review covered progress on minimum 5% biomass co-firing targets for 2025–26 by thermal power plants.
Consider the following about the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM): 1. It was constituted under an Act of Parliament of 2021. 2. Its Act repealed the order constituting the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority for NCR. 3. Its jurisdiction is limited to the NCT of Delhi only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: CAQM was constituted under the CAQM Act, 2021 (Act No. 29 of 2021), whose Section 29 repealed the order constituting EPCA (India Code). Statement 3 is wrong: the Act applies to the National Capital Region and adjoining areas.
Which Governor did the Mission Karmayogi team call on in Hyderabad on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jishnu Dev Varma
DoPT: the Mission Karmayogi team called on the Governor of Telangana, Shri Jishnu Dev Varma, on 2nd July 2025 in Hyderabad.
Which digital platform, central to Mission Karmayogi, was highlighted in the team's discussions in Telangana (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — iGOT Karmayogi
DoPT: a key highlight of the discussions was the iGOT Karmayogi platform for digital learning and competency-based training.
The draft amendments released on 2 July 2025 aim to allow more TV rating agencies besides which existing body?
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Correct answer: C — Broadcast Audience Research Council
I&B Ministry: the draft removes restrictive provisions to allow more players besides the current BARC (Broadcast Audience Research Council).
According to the I&B Ministry (July 2025), about how many people meters are used to capture TV viewership in India?
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Correct answer: D — 58,000
I&B Ministry: only about 58,000 people meters are presently used, representing just 0.025% of the roughly 230 million TV homes.
The Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, proposed for amendment in July 2025, were originally issued in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 2014
I&B Ministry: the ministry proposed amendments to the Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, originally issued in 2014.
Where did the Karnataka cabinet hold its meeting on 2 July 2025, approving projects worth ₹3,400 crore?
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Correct answer: A — Nandi Hills
PTI/Hindustan Times: the Karnataka cabinet, in a meeting held atop the Nandi Hills, approved development projects worth ₹3,400 crore.
The Karnataka cabinet decided on 2 July 2025 to rename Bengaluru Rural district as what?
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Correct answer: D — Bengaluru North
Economic Times/Deccan Herald: CM Siddaramaiah said the cabinet decided to rename Bengaluru Rural district as Bengaluru North.
Which department organised the first-ever National Workshop on Pension Litigation on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Pension & Pensioners' Welfare
DoPPW: Dr. Jitendra Singh chaired the first-ever National Workshop on Pension Litigation organised by the Department of Pension & Pensioners' Welfare at Vigyan Bhawan.
The National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD) was renamed after whom in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Savitribai Phule
WCD Ministry: NIPCCD has officially been renamed as the Savitribai Phule National Institute of Women and Child Development.
What was India's record gross GST collection in 2024–25, as GST completed eight years?
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Correct answer: B — ₹22.08 lakh crore
PIB: in 2024–25, gross GST collections hit a record ₹22.08 lakh crore, marking a year-on-year growth of 9.4%.
Under which Article of the Constitution was the GST Council constituted?
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Correct answer: D — Article 279A
PIB: the GST Council was constituted as per Article 279A of the Constitution and is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
Who chairs the GST Council?
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Correct answer: A — Union Finance Minister
PIB: the GST Council consists of the Union Finance Minister (Chairperson), the Union MoS in charge of Revenue or Finance, and state Finance/Taxation Ministers.
How many electors' details does Bihar's 2003 Electoral Roll, uploaded by ECI on 30 June 2025, contain?
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Correct answer: B — 4.96 crore
ECI: the 2003 Electoral Roll of Bihar, comprising details of 4.96 crore electors, has been uploaded on the ECI website.
According to ECI, roughly what share of Bihar's electorate would not need to submit any documents in the SIR after the 2003 roll was uploaded?
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Correct answer: D — Nearly 60%
ECI: nearly 60 per cent of the total electorate would not have to submit any documents; they just verify details from the 2003 roll and submit the Enumeration Form.
Consider the following about the Election Commission of India: 1. Article 324 vests in it the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. 2. Under Article 324, the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Supreme Court judge. 3. Under Article 324, it also conducts elections to the offices of President and Vice-President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the text of Article 324: clause (1) covers elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President, and the first proviso to clause (5) gives the CEC the same removal protection as a Supreme Court judge. Statement 1 is wrong: Article 324 does not mention Panchayats or Municipalities.
In Mann Ki Baat (29 June 2025), the PM said WHO had declared India free of which disease?
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Correct answer: C — Trachoma
Mann Ki Baat 123: WHO has declared India Trachoma free; India now has become a Trachoma free country.
Citing an ILO report in Mann Ki Baat (June 2025), what share of India's population did the PM say avails some social protection benefit?
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Correct answer: A — More than 64%
Mann Ki Baat 123: the ILO report says more than 64% of the population of India is now availing some social protection benefit.
As recalled in Mann Ki Baat 123, what was the theme of International Yoga Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Yoga for One Earth, One Health
Mann Ki Baat 123: this time the theme was 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'.
Consider the following about the 123rd episode of Mann Ki Baat (29 June 2025): 1. About 95 crore people were said to be covered by social security schemes, against under 25 crore till 2015. 2. The 50th year of the Emergency was recalled as 'Samvidhan Hatya Diwas'. 3. The Amarnath Yatra was said to commence on 3 July. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per the PM's address: about 95 crore people covered (under 25 crore till 2015); the Emergency's 50 years observed as 'Samvidhan Hatya Diwas'; the Amarnath Yatra to commence on 3 July.
While announcing that the Special Intensive Revision had started in Bihar, the Election Commission cited which Article of the Constitution as specifying eligibility to become an elector?
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Correct answer: B — Article 326
ECI (28 June 2025): 'Article 326 specifies eligibility to become an elector. Only Indian citizens, above 18 years and ordinary resident in that constituency, are eligible.'
Enumeration forms under Bihar's Special Intensive Revision (June 2025) were being distributed in how many Assembly constituencies?
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Correct answer: D — 243
ECI: distribution of new Enumeration Forms started in each of the 243 Assembly Constituencies of Bihar.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar Special Intensive Revision as described by the ECI on 28 June 2025: 1. The ECI had 77,895 Booth Level Officers and was appointing about 20,603 more. 2. Recognised political parties had appointed 1,54,977 Booth Level Agents. 3. SMSs were being sent to all 7,89,69,844 electors of Bihar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ECI: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: SMSs were being sent to 5,74,07,022 registered mobile numbers, not to all 7,89,69,844 electors.
Where was the 2nd North-East Mining Ministers' Conclave held in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Guwahati
PIB: Union Minister G. Kishan Reddy addressed the 2nd North-East Mining Ministers' Conclave in Guwahati.
At the conclave, G. Kishan Reddy referred to the eight North Eastern states as 'Ashta Lakshmi'. Which of the following is NOT one of these eight states?
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Correct answer: D — West Bengal
PIB: the eight states named are Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim. West Bengal is not among them.
Which words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, as recalled by the Vice-President on 28 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Socialist, Secular and Integrity
Vice-President (PIB, 28 June 2025): the Preamble was changed by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, adding the words Socialist, Secular and Integrity.
How many Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) did the ECI start proceedings to delist on 26 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 345
ECI: proceedings were started for delisting 345 RUPPs which had not contested any election since 2019 and whose offices could not be located.
Political parties in India are registered with the Election Commission under which provision?
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Correct answer: D — Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
ECI: political parties (National/State/RUPPs) are registered with the ECI under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's RUPP delisting exercise of June 2025: 1. The identified parties had not contested any election since 2019. 2. Over 2,800 RUPPs are currently registered with the ECI. 3. The final decision on delisting rests with the Chief Electoral Officers of the States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
ECI: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: CEOs issue show-cause notices, but the final decision on delisting is taken by the Election Commission of India.
How did the Union Cabinet mark 50 years of the Emergency in its meeting on 25 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — By observing a two-minute silence and passing a resolution
PIB: the Cabinet passed a resolution and observed a two-minute silence in its meeting as a tribute to those who resisted the Emergency.
On which date did the Ministry of Home Affairs issue the gazette notification declaring 25 June as 'Samvidhaan Hatya Diwas'?
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Correct answer: C — 12 July 2024
The Hindu / Times of India: the MHA issued the gazette notification on 12 July 2024 declaring 25 June as 'Samvidhaan Hatya Diwas'.
Which book did Amit Shah release in New Delhi on Samvidhan Hatya Diwas, 25 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — The Emergency Diaries - Years that Forged a Leader
PIB: Amit Shah released 'The Emergency Diaries - Years that Forged a Leader', a compilation of PM Modi's experiences during the anti-Emergency movement.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Union Cabinet said 2025 marks 50 years of the Samvidhan Hatya Diwas. 2. The Cabinet resolution said the subversion began in 1974 with attempts to crush the Navnirman Andolan and Sampoorna Kranti Abhiyan. 3. The notification declaring Samvidhaan Hatya Diwas was issued by the Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are from the Cabinet resolution (PIB). Statement 3 is wrong: the notification was issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
What does PRAGATI, whose 48th meeting the PM chaired on 25 June 2025, stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation
PIB: PRAGATI is the ICT-enabled, multi-modal platform aimed at fostering Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation.
Which health scheme did the PM review at the 48th PRAGATI meeting, urging focus on Aspirational Districts and remote, tribal and border areas?
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Correct answer: C — PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM)
PIB: during a review of PM-ABHIM, the PM urged all States to accelerate health infrastructure development, with focus on Aspirational Districts and remote, tribal and border areas.
In the bye-elections to five Assembly constituencies concluded in June 2025, what major change did ECINET enable, according to the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — Direct upload of Voter Turnout (VTR) trends by Presiding Officers
ECI: a major achievement during the bye-polls was uploading of VTR trends directly by Presiding Officers on ECINET, instead of the earlier manual process.
Where was the 25th meeting of the Central Zonal Council held on 24 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Varanasi
PIB: Amit Shah chaired the 25th meeting of the Central Zonal Council in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
Consider the following statements about Zonal Councils: 1. Five Zonal Councils were established under Sections 15 to 22 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. 2. The Union Home Minister is the chairperson of all five Zonal Councils. 3. The Chief Minister of one member state, rotating every year, acts as the vice-chairperson. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: five Zonal Councils were established under Sections 15 to 22 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956; the Union Home Minister chairs all five; the CM of one member state (rotating every year) is vice-chairperson. All three are correct.
Chief Ministers of which of the following states attended the 25th Central Zonal Council meeting on 24 June 2025? 1. Uttarakhand 2. Chhattisgarh 3. Rajasthan Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the meeting was attended by the Chief Ministers of Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh; Rajasthan was not among them. So 1 and 2 only.
How many issues were discussed at the 25th meeting of the Central Zonal Council in Varanasi?
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Correct answer: C — 19
PIB: a total of 19 issues were discussed in the meeting, including several matters of national importance.
Who authorised the CDS & Secretary, Department of Military Affairs, to issue Joint Instructions and Joint Orders for the three Services in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Raksha Mantri
PIB: Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh authorised the CDS & Secretary, DMA, to issue Joint Instructions and Joint Orders for all three Services.
Consider the following statements: 1. Before June 2025, instructions or orders pertaining to two or more Services were issued by each Service separately. 2. The first Joint Order, released on 24 June 2025, was on 'Approval, Promulgation and Numbering of Joint Instructions and Joint Orders'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: the change marks a shift from the earlier system in which Instructions/Orders pertaining to two or more Services were issued by each Service separately, and the first Joint Order on 'Approval, Promulgation and Numbering of Joint Instructions and Joint Orders' was released on 24 June 2025. Both are correct.
Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar addressed the 99th Annual Meet and National Conference of Vice Chancellors on 23 June 2025. Which body organised it?
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Correct answer: C — Association of Indian Universities (AIU)
PIB: the 99th Annual Meet and National Conference of Vice Chancellors (2024–2025) was organised by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU) at Gautam Buddha Nagar.
The slogan 'Ek Vidhan, Ek Nishan, Ek Pradhan', recalled by the Vice-President on 23 June 2025, was given by whom during a campaign in Jammu and Kashmir in 1952?
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Correct answer: A — Syama Prasad Mookerjee
PIB: the Vice-President said Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee gave the slogan 'Ek Vidhan, Ek Nishan, Ek Pradhan' during the campaign in Jammu and Kashmir in 1952.
Consider the following statements made by the Vice-President on 23 June 2025: 1. Article 370 was abrogated on 5 August 2019. 2. The legal challenge to the abrogation failed in the Supreme Court on 11 December 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: the Vice-President said Article 370 was abrogated on 5th August 2019, and the legal challenge to the Supreme Court failed on 11 December 2023. Both are correct.
With which institution did the Ministry of Panchayati Raj organise the Training of Trainers on 'Generation of Own Source Revenue by Gram Panchayats' in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIM Ahmedabad
PIB: the three-day training was organised under the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan in collaboration with IIM Ahmedabad.
In which city did Amit Shah lay the foundation stone of an NFSU and CFSL campus on 22 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Raipur
PIB: Amit Shah laid the foundation stone of the NFSU and CFSL campus in Raipur, Chhattisgarh.
What is the total investment in the NFSU campus and CFSL facility being set up in New Raipur?
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Correct answer: D — ₹268 crore
PIB: the NFSU campus costs ₹145 crore and the CFSL facility ₹123 crore, a total investment of ₹268 crore.
Under the new criminal laws, as stated by Amit Shah in Raipur on 22 June 2025, a forensic team's visit is mandatory in all crimes punishable with imprisonment of more than how many years?
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Correct answer: C — Seven years
PIB: under the new criminal laws, the visit of a forensic science team has been made mandatory in all crimes punishable with more than seven years of imprisonment.
Consider the following statements about Amit Shah's programme in Raipur on 22 June 2025: 1. He virtually inaugurated the temporary campus of NFSU Raipur. 2. The CFSL facility in New Raipur is being built at a cost of ₹145 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: Amit Shah virtually inaugurated the temporary campus of NFSU Raipur; the CFSL facility costs ₹123 crore, while ₹145 crore is the NFSU campus cost. So 1 only.
Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan joined an International Day of Yoga 2025 session at the Maa Samaleswari Temple Complex in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Sambalpur
PIB (Education): Dharmendra Pradhan participated in a yoga session near the riverfront at Maa Samaleswari Temple Complex, Sambalpur, Odisha.
Consider the following pairs of Union Ministers and the places where they joined International Day of Yoga 2025 sessions: 1. Amit Shah — Ahmedabad 2. Bhupender Yadav — Alwar 3. Rajiv Ranjan Singh — Patna Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MHA, MoEFCC, MoPR): Amit Shah performed yoga in Ahmedabad, Bhupender Yadav in Alwar and Rajiv Ranjan Singh at the Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Library in Patna. All are correct, so the answer is 1, 2 and 3.
On which date was the UMEED Central Portal for waqf properties launched?
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Correct answer: A — 6 June 2025
PIB (Minority Affairs): The UMEED Central Portal was launched on 6 June 2025.
Under the mandate of the UMEED Portal, within what period must the details of all registered waqf properties across India be uploaded?
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Correct answer: C — Six months
PIB (Minority Affairs): As per the mandate of the UMEED Portal, details of all registered waqf properties across India are to be mandatorily uploaded within six months.
Consider the following statements about the Minority Affairs Secretary's visit to Mumbai on 21 June 2025: 1. The visit was the Secretary's second UMEED review, after a similar review in Bihar. 2. The Secretary also reviewed the status of PMJVK projects in Maharashtra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Minority Affairs): The Mumbai visit was his second such visit following a similar review in Bihar, and he also assessed the status of PMJVK projects in Maharashtra. So the answer is Both 1 and 2.
The Nilambur Assembly constituency, where a bye-poll was held on 19 June 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Kerala
PIB (ECI): Bye-polls were held at 24-Kadi (SC) and 87-Visavadar in Gujarat, 35-Nilambur in Kerala, 64-Ludhiana West in Punjab and 80-Kaliganj in West Bengal.
Which facility did voters get for the first time at the entrance of all polling stations in the bye-polls of 19 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mobile deposit facility
PIB (ECI): For the first time, voters were able to avail the mobile deposit facility provided by the ECI at the entrance of all polling stations.
What share of polling stations was covered by webcasting in the bye-polls held on 19 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 100 per cent
PIB (ECI): Webcasting at 100 per cent of polling stations ensured constant vigil of the entire polling process.
Consider the following statements about the bye-polls of 19 June 2025: 1. Bye-polls were held in five Assembly constituencies spread over four states. 2. A Special Summary Revision of electoral rolls was conducted before the bye-polls for the first time in nearly two decades. 3. Polling was held at 1,354 polling stations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (ECI): Five ACs in Gujarat (two), Kerala, Punjab and West Bengal went to the polls at 1,354 polling stations, and an SSR was held before bye-polls for the first time in nearly two decades. All are correct, so the answer is 1, 2 and 3.
The Election Commission of India, which conducted the bye-polls of June 2025, was established on which date?
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Correct answer: A — 25 January 1950
ECI (eci.gov.in): The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25 January 1950; it is a permanent Constitutional Body.
Who heads the committee constituted in June 2025 to review the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020?
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Correct answer: B — Director General (Acquisition)
PIB (Defence): A Committee headed by the Director General (Acquisition) has been constituted to carry out extensive deliberations with all stakeholders.
Who has been appointed Principal Advisor to the committee reviewing DAP 2020?
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Correct answer: C — Apurva Chandra
PIB (Defence): The Ministry appointed former IAS officer Shri Apurva Chandra (1980 batch), who has previously served as DG (Acquisition), as the Principal Advisor to the Committee.
The Ministry of Defence linked its June 2025 review of DAP 2020 to the declaration of 2025 as what?
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Correct answer: D — Year of Reforms
PIB (Defence): Following the declaration of 2025 as the 'Year of Reforms', the MoD initiated a comprehensive review of DAP 2020.
According to the NeSDA Way Forward report for May 2025, how many e-services in total are provided across States/UTs?
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Correct answer: C — 21,062
PIB (DARPG): A total of 21,062 e-services are provided across States/UTs; the majority (7,065) fall under Local Governance & Utility Services.
Which two States achieved 100% saturation of mandatory e-services according to the NeSDA Way Forward report for May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Maharashtra and Uttarakhand
PIB (DARPG): 16 States/UTs achieved more than 90% saturation, while Maharashtra and Uttarakhand achieved 100% saturation.
Under which rules will Central Government employees opting for the Unified Pension Scheme get retirement and death gratuity, as clarified on 18 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — CCS (Payment of Gratuity under National Pension System) Rules, 2021
PIB (DoPPW OM): UPS employees shall be eligible for retirement and death gratuity under the CCS (Payment of Gratuity under National Pension System) Rules, 2021.
Who announced on 18 June 2025 that employees under the Unified Pension Scheme would get gratuity benefits?
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Correct answer: D — Dr Jitendra Singh
PIB (DoPPW): Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh made the announcement that UPS employees will be eligible for retirement and death gratuity.
From which date was the Unified Pension Scheme made effective as an option under NPS for Central Government civil service recruits?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 2025
PIB (DoPPW): DFS Notification dated 24.01.2025 introduced the UPS as an option under NPS w.e.f. 01.04.2025, that is 1 April 2025.
Under the SOP introduced by the ECI on 18 June 2025, EPICs are to be delivered within how many days of an update in the electoral rolls?
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Correct answer: C — 15 days
PIB (ECI): The new SOP enables delivery of EPICs within 15 days of an update in the electoral rolls.
On which platform has the ECI introduced a dedicated IT module for faster EPIC delivery in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ECINet
PIB (ECI): For this purpose, ECI has introduced a dedicated IT module on its recently launched ECINet platform.
The Election Commission of India, which introduced the fast-track EPIC delivery SOP, was established on:
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Correct answer: D — 25 January 1950
ECI (eci.gov.in): The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25 January 1950.
Under the Time Dissemination Project discussed on 18 June 2025, Indian Standard Time is to be delivered through how many Regional Reference Standard Laboratories?
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Correct answer: A — Five
PIB (DoCA): The initiative aims to deliver IST through five Regional Reference Standard Laboratories (RRSLs) equipped with atomic clocks; the answer is Five.
The Department of Consumer Affairs is implementing the Time Dissemination Project in collaboration with which institutions?
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Correct answer: D — CSIR-NPL and ISRO
PIB (DoCA): The Time Dissemination Project is implemented by the Department of Consumer Affairs in collaboration with CSIR-NPL and ISRO.
Which state signed an MoU with the Digital India BHASHINI Division on 18 June 2025 to promote multilingual governance in its native language?
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Correct answer: A — Mizoram
PIB (MeitY): The Digital India BHASHINI Division and the Government of Mizoram signed an MoU to empower the Mizo community through language technology.
Consider the following statements about the Mizoram–BHASHINI MoU of 18 June 2025: 1. The MoU was signed at Aizawl. 2. Mizoram Chief Secretary Khilli Ram Meena was present at the signing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
PIB (MeitY): The MoU was signed at the MeitY Office, CGO Complex, New Delhi, not Aizawl, in the presence of Mizoram Chief Secretary Khilli Ram Meena. So the answer is 2 only.