Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How much central assistance for recovery and reconstruction in Himachal Pradesh was approved by the High-Level Committee, as announced on 18 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹2,006.40 crore
PIB (MHA): The High-Level Committee approved a recovery plan of ₹2,006.40 crore (Rs. 2006.40 crore) for Himachal Pradesh.
The central share in the Himachal Pradesh recovery plan approved in June 2025 comes from which fund window?
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Correct answer: A — Recovery and Reconstruction Funding Window under NDRF
PIB (MHA): ₹1,504.80 crore will be the central share from the Recovery and Reconstruction Funding Window under NDRF (National Disaster Response Fund).
Consider the following statements about the High-Level Committee assistance to Himachal Pradesh announced on 18 June 2025: 1. The committee is chaired by the Union Home Minister. 2. The assistance relates to damage during the 2023 monsoon. 3. The Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog is a member of the committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MHA): The HLC is chaired by Home Minister Amit Shah, the plan relates to 2023 monsoon damage, and the Finance Minister, Agriculture Minister and VC NITI Aayog are members. All are correct, so the answer is 1, 2 and 3.
Which concessionaire did NHAI debar from future bids after the slope collapse on NH-66 in Kerala, as announced on 17 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Megha Engineering and Infrastructure Ltd.
PIB (MoRTH): Concessionaire and its Promoter, Megha Engineering and Infrastructure Ltd., has been debarred from participating in future bids.
Consider the following statements about the NH-66 slope collapse in Kerala in June 2025: 1. The project is being executed in Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC) mode. 2. The collapse occurred at Cherkkala in Kasaragod district. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
PIB (MoRTH): The project is on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM), not EPC, and the collapse occurred at Cherkkala in Kasaragod district. So the answer is 2 only.
Who addressed the Annual Conference of Relief Commissioners and Disaster Response Forces as chief guest on 16 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Amit Shah
PIB (MHA): Union Home Minister Amit Shah addressed the annual conference in New Delhi as the chief guest.
At the conference of 16 June 2025, Amit Shah cited which cyclone in Gujarat as an example of zero casualties?
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Correct answer: D — Biparjoy
PIB (MHA): Shah said that during Cyclone Biparjoy in Gujarat there were zero casualties.
Consider the following statements about the Annual Conference of Relief Commissioners and SDRFs, 2025: 1. It was a two-day conference organised by the Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. Its valedictory session was chaired by the Union Home Secretary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MHA): The two-day conference organised by MHA concluded on 17 June; the valedictory session was chaired by Dr P. K. Mishra, Principal Secretary to the PM, not the Home Secretary. So the answer is 1 only.
Under TRAI's Telecommunication Tariff (71st Amendment) Order, 2025, retail FTTH broadband plans up to 200 Mbps must be offered to PM-WANI Public Data Offices at tariffs not exceeding:
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Correct answer: A — Twice the corresponding consumer broadband price
PIB (DoT): The order mandates FTTH plans up to 200 Mbps be offered to PDOs at tariffs not exceeding twice the corresponding consumer broadband price.
TRAI's tariff order of 16 June 2025 on broadband for Public Data Offices relates to which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — PM-WANI
PIB (DoT): The order concerns broadband connectivity to Public Data Offices (PDOs) under the PM-WANI scheme.
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India was established with effect from which date?
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Correct answer: B — 20 February 1997
TRAI (trai.gov.in): TRAI was established with effect from 20 February 1997 (20th February 1997) by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
The Water Metro proposed for Patna in June 2025 is to replicate the model of which city's water metro?
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Correct answer: B — Kochi
PIB (MoPSW): Patna is being considered for the introduction of a Water Metro, replicating the successful Kochi Water Metro model.
Which Patna-based institution is being upgraded as a Centre of Excellence, as announced on 16 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — National Inland Navigation Institute
PIB (MoPSW): Patna based National Inland Navigation Institute (NINI) is being upgraded as Centre of Excellence.
As per the Home Ministry on 15 June 2025, the Census notification was to be published in the official gazette on which date?
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Correct answer: A — 16 June 2025
PIB (MHA): the notification to conduct the Census will be published in the official gazette on 16 June 2025.
The forthcoming Census reviewed on 15 June 2025 will be which Census since independence?
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Correct answer: C — 8th
PIB (MHA): this Census is the 16th since the beginning and the 8th after independence.
In the forthcoming Census, which phase collects data on housing conditions, assets and amenities of each household?
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Correct answer: B — Houselisting Operation
PIB (MHA): in phase one, the Houselisting Operation (HLO), the housing conditions, assets and amenities of each household will be collected.
Consider the following statements about the forthcoming Census as reviewed on 15 June 2025: 1. Caste enumeration will also be done. 2. It will be conducted through digital means using mobile applications. 3. Self-enumeration will not be permitted. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MHA): caste enumeration will be done and the Census will be digital through mobile apps, so 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because a provision of self-enumeration will be available. So the answer is 1 and 2 only.
Under the research reforms announced on 15 June 2025, the ceiling for direct purchases under GFR was raised to what amount?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2 lakh
PIB (S&T): the ceiling for direct purchases has been doubled from ₹1 lakh to ₹2 lakh.
Under the 15 June 2025 reforms, heads of research institutions can approve Global Tender Enquiries up to what value?
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Correct answer: C — ₹200 crore
PIB (S&T): heads of institutions can now approve Global Tender Enquiries (GTEs) up to ₹200 crore.
Consider the following statements about the 'Ease of Research' reforms of 15 June 2025: 1. Directors of scientific organisations and Vice Chancellors may make non-GeM purchases of specialised research equipment. 2. The limits for limited tender enquiries and advertised tenders were raised from ₹50 lakh to ₹1 crore. 3. The consultations behind the reforms were led by the NITI Aayog. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (S&T): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the consultations were led by the Principal Scientific Adviser's office, drawing on 13 IITs. So the answer is 1 and 2 only.
Since which date had GRAP Stage-I been in force in the NCR before CAQM revoked it on 15 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 7 June 2025
PIB (MoEFCC): Stage-I of GRAP had been in place in the entire NCR since 07.06.2025, i.e. 7 June 2025.
What was Delhi's AQI on 15 June 2025, when CAQM revoked GRAP Stage-I?
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Correct answer: A — 140, 'Moderate'
PIB (MoEFCC): as per the CPCB bulletin, Delhi's AQI for 15.06.2025 was 140, 'Moderate'.
How many Civil Police Constables of the Uttar Pradesh Police received appointment letters from Amit Shah in Lucknow on 15 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 60,244
PIB (MHA): Amit Shah distributed appointment letters to 60,244 Civil Police Constables of Uttar Pradesh Police in Lucknow.
Consider the following statements about the UP Police constable recruitment marked on 15 June 2025: 1. The selection was made from a total of 48 lakh applications. 2. Over 12,000 of those selected are young women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MHA): Shah said the selection was made from a total of 48 lakh applications and over 12,000 of those selected are young women. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Which Chief Minister was present when Amit Shah distributed appointment letters to UP Police constables in Lucknow on 15 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Yogi Adityanath
PIB (MHA): Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath was among the dignitaries present.
The High-Level Committee constituted after the Air India AI171 crash, announced on 14 June 2025, is chaired by whom?
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Correct answer: C — Union Home Secretary
PIB (Civil Aviation): a High-Level Committee has been constituted under the Chairmanship of the Union Home Secretary.
Within what period is the High-Level Committee on the AI171 crash to submit its consolidated report?
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Correct answer: A — Three months
PIB (Civil Aviation): the committee is to submit a consolidated report within three months.
Consider the following statements about the government's AI171 briefing of 14 June 2025: 1. The aircraft's black box was recovered on 13 June 2025. 2. DGCA directed Air India to inspect all Boeing 787-8 and 787-9 aircraft fitted with GEnx engines. 3. All 33 Dreamliners in service with Indian carriers had already been inspected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Civil Aviation): the black box was recovered on 13 June around 5 PM, and DGCA ordered inspections of 787-8/787-9 aircraft with GEnx engines, so 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: only 8 of the 33 Dreamliners had been inspected. So the answer is 1 and 2 only.
On which date was the High-Level Committee on the AI171 crash scheduled to begin its deliberations?
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Correct answer: D — 16 June 2025
PIB (Civil Aviation): the committee is scheduled to begin its deliberations on Monday, 16 June 2025.
The India International Arbitration Centre (IIAC) replaced which earlier body, as noted at the conference of 14 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution
PIB (Law): IIAC Chairperson Justice Hemant Gupta (Retd.) emphasised the transition from the erstwhile International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution (ICADR) to IIAC.
Who is the Chairperson of the India International Arbitration Centre, as per the conference held on 14 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Hemant Gupta
PIB (Law): the inaugural session opened with a welcome address by Justice Hemant Gupta (Retd.), Chairperson, IIAC.
Consider the following statements about the National Conference on Institutional Arbitration of 14 June 2025: 1. It was organised by the Department of Legal Affairs in collaboration with ONGC and IIAC. 2. It was held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Law): the conference was organised by the Department of Legal Affairs with ONGC and IIAC, so 1 is correct; it was held at Bharat Mandapam, not Vigyan Bhawan, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
As per DARPG's CPGRAMS report for May 2025, what was the average grievance disposal time in Central Ministries and Departments?
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Correct answer: C — 16 days
PIB (DARPG): the average grievance disposal time in Central Ministries/Departments from 1 to 31 May 2025 was 16 days.
On 12 June 2025, NHAI restricted consultancy firms to a maximum of how many National Highway projects per designated 'Engineer'?
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Correct answer: C — 10
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI restricted the maximum number to 10 projects per 'Engineer' for consultancy firms supervising construction or maintenance of National Highway projects.
In whose presence did Union Minister Manohar Lal review urban development schemes of Jammu and Kashmir in Srinagar on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Omar Abdullah
PIB (MoHUA): the review was held in the presence of Chief Minister Omar Abdullah, who is also in charge of the department in J&K.
The Goa State Heritage Policy 2025, approved by the Goa cabinet on 11 June 2025, recognises how many folk art forms?
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Correct answer: B — 46
The Goan and Goemkarponn: the policy recognises 46 folk art forms and 61 traditional occupations.
Consider the following statements about the Goa State Heritage Policy 2025 approved on 11 June 2025: 1. It envisages preservation of over 200 heritage sites. 2. It recognises 46 traditional occupations of the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Goan and Goemkarponn: the policy covers over 200 heritage sites, so 1 is correct. It recognises 61 traditional occupations (46 is the number of folk art forms), so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Under the Tatkal rules announced on 11 June 2025, authorised agents cannot book opening-day Tatkal tickets for AC classes during which window?
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Correct answer: A — 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM
PIB (Railways): agents cannot book in the first 30 minutes; for AC classes this is 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM, and for non-AC classes 11:00 AM to 11:30 AM.
Consider the following statements about the Tatkal changes announced on 11 June 2025: 1. Aadhaar-based OTP authentication becomes mandatory for online Tatkal bookings from 15 July 2025. 2. OTP authentication for Tatkal tickets booked at PRS counters takes effect from 1 July 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Railways): Aadhaar-based OTP for online Tatkal is mandatory from 15 July 2025, so 1 is correct. OTP at PRS counters and for agents also comes into effect from 15 July 2025, not 1 July, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Which new motto did the Full Bench of the Lokpal of India adopt on 11 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption
PIB (Lokpal of India): the Full Bench adopted the new motto 'Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption', replacing the old one.
Consider the following statements about the composition of the Lokpal: 1. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight Members. 2. Fifty per cent of the Members of the Lokpal are judicial Members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Year End Review 2013, DoPT) (static): the Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight Members, of which fifty per cent shall be judicial Members. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Which of the following is NOT a member of the Selection Committee for the Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal?
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Correct answer: D — Chairman of Rajya Sabha
PIB (Year End Review 2013, DoPT) (static): the Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the CJI or a nominated SC judge, and an eminent jurist nominated by the President. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is not a member.
The Uttarakhand cabinet on 11 June 2025 approved developing five PWD inspection buildings in PPP mode. Which of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Mussoorie
Garhwal Post and Zee News: the five PWD inspection buildings are at Ranikhet, Uttarkashi, Dugalbitta, Harsil and Rishikesh. Mussoorie is not among them.
Which council did the Uttarakhand cabinet approve forming on 11 June 2025 to bring uniformity in admission, registration and curriculum standards?
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Correct answer: B — State Allied and Healthcare Council
Garhwal Post and Zee News: the cabinet approved forming the Uttarakhand State Allied and Healthcare Council to bring uniformity in admission, registration and curriculum standards.
The Stockholm International Conference on Electoral Integrity, where CEC Gyanesh Kumar delivered the keynote on 10 June 2025, was organised by which body?
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Correct answer: B — International IDEA
PIB (ECI): the conference was organised by the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA).
Consider the following statements made by the CEC in his Stockholm keynote of 10 June 2025: 1. India's electors grew from 173 million in 1951–52 to 979 million in 2024. 2. A total of 20,271 candidates contested the 2024 General Elections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (ECI): electors grew from 173 million in 1951–52 to 979 million in 2024, and 20,271 candidates contested in 2024. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
The Election Commission of India, whose foundation day (25 January) is observed as National Voters' Day, was established in 1950 under which Article of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: B — Article 324
PIB (static): National Voters' Day marks the foundation of the ECI, established on 25 January 1950 under Article 324 of the Constitution.
Under the Maharashtra cabinet decision of 10 June 2025, excise duty on IMFL (up to ₹260 per bulk litre) was raised from three times to how many times the declared manufacturing cost?
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Correct answer: C — 4.5 times
PTI (ThePrint) and The Hindu BusinessLine (CMO statement): IMFL duty was raised from three times to 4.5 times the declared manufacturing cost.
Consider the following statements about the Maharashtra cabinet's excise decisions of 10 June 2025: 1. A new grain-based 'Maharashtra Made Liquor' category was created, to be made only by manufacturers in Maharashtra. 2. Excise duty on country liquor was cut from ₹205 to ₹180 per proof litre. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PTI (ThePrint) and The Hindu BusinessLine: the grain-based MML category is for Maharashtra manufacturers only; country liquor duty was raised from ₹180 to ₹205, not cut. So 1 only.
Consider the following statements about the flood preparedness review chaired by Amit Shah on 10 June 2025: 1. The Jal Shakti Ministry, NDMA and NRSC were asked to closely monitor glacial lakes. 2. He stressed increasing the forest area in the Narmada river area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MHA): Shah advised the Jal Shakti Ministry, NDMA and NRSC to closely monitor glacial lakes, and stressed increasing forest area in the Narmada river area. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
At the flood review of 10 June 2025, Amit Shah stressed increasing forest area in the area of which river, to be replicated for other rivers if successful?
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Correct answer: B — Narmada
PIB (MHA): the Home Minister stressed increasing the forest area in the Narmada river area.
At the flood review of 10 June 2025, which bodies were asked to work with the States so that drainage becomes an integral part of highway design?
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Correct answer: D — MoRTH and NHAI
PIB (MHA): Shah said MoRTH and NHAI should work with the States so that the highway drainage system becomes an integral part of road design.
With the launch of NeVA on 9 June 2025, Puducherry became which legislature in the country to adopt the platform?
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Correct answer: C — 19th
PIB (I&B): with this launch, Puducherry becomes the 19th legislature in the country to adopt the NeVA platform.
Who inaugurated the National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) for the Puducherry Legislative Assembly on 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — L. Murugan
PIB (I&B): Union MoS for I&B and Parliamentary Affairs L. Murugan inaugurated NeVA for the Puducherry Legislative Assembly.
Consider the following statements about the National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA): 1. It is funded through 100% Central Assistance by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. 2. It is funded on a 60:40 Centre–State sharing basis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (I&B) (static): NeVA, which enables paperless legislative functioning, is funded through 100% Central Assistance by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, so a 60:40 sharing is wrong. So 1 only.
Under the special additional compensation for houses damaged by Pakistani shelling in J&K border districts (MHA, 9 June 2025), how much is given for each fully damaged house?
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Correct answer: C — ₹2 lakh
PIB (MHA): as a special case, additional compensation of ₹2 lakh for each fully damaged house and ₹1 lakh for each partially damaged house was announced.
Consider the following statements about the MHA announcement of 9 June 2025: 1. An additional provision of ₹25 crore was made for 2,060 houses. 2. Similar compensation will also be provided in the border areas of Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MHA): ₹25 crore was provided for 2,060 houses, and similar compensation will be given in the border areas of Punjab, not Rajasthan. So 1 only.
Within what period has the CCPA advised e-commerce platforms to complete self-audits to detect dark patterns, as per its advisory of 7 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 3 months
E-commerce platforms have been advised to conduct self-audits to identify dark patterns within 3 months of the issue of the advisory.
The Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, cited in the CCPA's June 2025 advisory, were issued in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 2023
E-commerce platforms were advised to comply with the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023.
Consider the following statements about the CCPA's dark patterns advisory of 7 June 2025: 1. E-commerce platforms are encouraged to give self-declarations that they are free of dark patterns. 2. The Joint Working Group set up to identify violations includes National Law Universities. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Platforms are encouraged to give self-declarations, and the Joint Working Group constituted by the Department of Consumer Affairs includes National Law Universities along with ministries, regulators and voluntary consumer organisations.
Which CPI (Maoist) General Secretary was killed in the 21 May 2025 encounter in Abujhmad, whose officers Amit Shah met on 7 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Basavaraju
The encounter in the forests of Boter village in Abujhmad killed 27 Naxals, including CPI (Maoist) General Secretary Basavaraju alias Gaganna.
Which Gram Panchayat won the Gold Award in the new Gram Panchayat category of the National Awards for e-Governance 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rohini (Dhule, Maharashtra)
The Gold Award in the new category went to the Gram Panchayat of Rohini (Dhule, Maharashtra).
Consider the following statements about the new Gram Panchayat category of the National Awards for e-Governance 2025: 1. Over 1.45 lakh entries were received from 26 States and Union Territories. 2. Gold awardees receive a financial incentive of ₹5 lakh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: over 1.45 lakh entries came from 26 States and Union Territories. Statement 2 is incorrect: Gold awardees receive ₹10 lakh; ₹5 lakh is for Silver awardees.
The UMEED Central Portal launched on 6 June 2025 is meant for the management of
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Correct answer: C — Waqf properties
The UMEED Central Portal is a centralised digital platform for real-time uploading, verification and monitoring of Waqf properties.
What does UMEED stand for in the name of the portal launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development
UMEED is short for Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development.
Consider the following statements about the UMEED Central Portal launched on 6 June 2025: 1. The portal was developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. 2. Its key features include a digital inventory with geo-tagging of all Waqf properties. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the portal was developed by the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Statement 2 is correct: its features include a geo-tagged digital inventory of all Waqf properties.
With the launch of the Bharatiya Bhasha Anubhag on 6 June 2025, which department was described as having become a complete department?
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Correct answer: D — Department of Official Language
Amit Shah said that with the establishment of the Bharatiya Bhasha Anubhag, the Department of Official Language has now become a complete department.
Who was named to head the one-man judicial commission ordered by Karnataka on 5 June 2025 into the Bengaluru stampede?
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Correct answer: C — Justice Michael D'Cunha
Chief Minister Siddaramaiah announced a one-man judicial commission headed by retired Karnataka High Court judge Justice Michael D'Cunha.
Consider the following statements about the Karnataka Government's response on 5 June 2025 to the Bengaluru stampede: 1. Bengaluru City Police Commissioner B. Dayananda was suspended. 2. The FIR registered by police named RCB, DNA Entertainment and the Karnataka State Cricket Association. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Police Commissioner B. Dayananda was suspended along with other officers, and the FIR named the RCB franchise, DNA Entertainment and the Karnataka State Cricket Association.
What will be the reference date for Population Census-2027 for most of India, as announced on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1 March 2027
The reference date for Population Census-2027 will be 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027 for most of the country.
For Ladakh and the snow-bound areas of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, what is the reference date for Census-2027?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 2026
For Ladakh and the non-synchronous snow-bound areas of J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, the reference date will be 00:00 hours of 1 October 2026.
Under which law is the Census of India conducted?
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Correct answer: B — Census Act, 1948
The Census of India is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948 and the Census Rules, 1990; the Census-2027 notification was to be issued under section 3 of the Act.
Consider the following statements about Population Census-2027: 1. It will be conducted in a single phase. 2. The last Census of India before it was conducted in 2001. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. Census-2027 will be conducted in two phases along with enumeration of castes, and the last Census was conducted in 2011.