Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The multi-sectoral central team ordered in July 2025 to study rising natural disasters in Himachal Pradesh includes experts from which of the following?
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Correct answer: C — NDMA, CBRI Roorkee, IITM Pune and IIT Indore
PIB (MHA): the team comprises experts from NDMA, CBRI Roorkee, IITM Pune, geologists and IIT Indore.
Consider the following statements about the Centre's response to the 2025 monsoon damage in Himachal Pradesh: 1. An Inter-Ministerial Central Team visited affected areas from 18 to 21 July 2025. 2. The Inter-Ministerial Central Team was deputed only after the state submitted its memorandum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MHA): the IMCT was visiting affected areas from 18-21 July 2025, so 1 is correct; it was deputed in advance, without waiting for the state's memorandum, so 2 is wrong.
According to the Home Ministry (20 July 2025), a high-level committee chaired by the Union Home Minister approved what outlay to Himachal Pradesh for recovery and reconstruction in areas hit by the 2023 floods, landslides and cloudbursts?
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Correct answer: D — Rs 2,006.40 crore
PIB 2146219: a high-level committee chaired by Amit Shah has already approved an outlay of Rs 2,006.40 crore to Himachal Pradesh for recovery and reconstruction for the disasters of 2023. The same release says 13 NDRF teams are deployed in the state.
On 20 July 2025, a day before the Monsoon Session, Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar appealed to political parties mainly to avoid what?
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Correct answer: B — Personal attacks and unbecoming language
PIB (Vice President's Secretariat): the VP urged parties to have mutual respect, avoid personal attacks and not trade unbecoming language on television or otherwise.
How many interns were in Batch VIII of the Rajya Sabha Internship Programme, inaugurated on 20 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 45
PIB (Vice President's Secretariat): the Vice-President said the 45 interns of this batch take the total number of interns so far to 262; the batch's average age is 24.
According to the Election Commission's update of 19 July 2025, what percentage of Bihar's electors had been covered in the Special Intensive Revision?
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Correct answer: C — 95.92%
PIB (ECI): total electors covered stood at 95.92%; 90.64% was the share of enumeration forms received and 88.25% the share digitised.
On which date was the draft electoral roll for Bihar to be published after the Special Intensive Revision?
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Correct answer: B — 1 August 2025
PIB (ECI): the electoral machinery was working to ensure no eligible elector is left out of the draft electoral roll to be published on 1 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar SIR update of 19 July 2025: 1. Bihar had 7,89,69,844 electors as on 24 June 2025. 2. More than 20 lakh electors were identified as probably deceased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (ECI): total electors as on 24 June 2025 were 7,89,69,844, so 1 is correct; probably deceased electors were 14,29,354 (1.81%), so 2 is wrong.
The National Standards for Civil Service Training Institutes 2.0 (NSCSTI 2.0), launched on 18 July 2025, were developed by which body?
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Correct answer: C — Capacity Building Commission
PIB (DoPT): NSCSTI 2.0 was developed by the Capacity Building Commission (CBC), and launched by Dr Jitendra Singh at the Civil Services Officers Institute.
While launching NSCSTI 2.0, Dr Jitendra Singh compared its approach of encouraging training institutes to improve with which programme?
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Correct answer: B — Aspirational Districts Programme
PIB (DoPT): 'Just as the Aspirational Districts Programme enabled backward districts to outshine expectations, NSCSTI 2.0 encourages CSTIs to introspect, innovate and pursue excellence,' the minister said.
On 18 July 2025, Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla met a parliamentary delegation led by former Prime Minister Kim Boo Kyum from which country?
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Correct answer: D — Republic of Korea
PIB (Lok Sabha Secretariat): the Speaker met a parliamentary delegation from the Republic of Korea led by former Prime Minister Kim Boo Kyum at Parliament House.
At the Khelo Bharat Conclave on 17 July 2025, the Sports Minister outlined India's strategy to finish among the top 10 nations at which Games?
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Correct answer: D — 2036 Summer Olympics and Paralympics
PIB (MoYAS): Dr Mansukh Mandaviya outlined India's strategy towards finishing among the top 10 nations in the 2036 Summer Olympics and Paralympics.
The Khelo Bharat Conclave of July 2025 discussed the pillars of which sports policy?
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Correct answer: A — Khelo Bharat Niti 2025
PIB (MoYAS): the conclave covered several key pillars enshrined in the Khelo Bharat Niti 2025 (sports policy).
At the 16 July 2025 meeting chaired by the Union Jal Shakti Minister, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana agreed to install telemetry devices for real-time monitoring of water flows in which basin?
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Correct answer: D — Krishna
PIB (Jal Shakti): both states agreed on the installation of telemetry devices for real-time monitoring of water flows in the Krishna Basin.
Immediate maintenance measures were agreed at the 16 July 2025 AP–Telangana meeting to safeguard which dam?
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Correct answer: B — Srisailam
PIB (Jal Shakti): it was agreed that immediate measures would be taken to address the maintenance issues to safeguard Srisailam dam.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the AP–Telangana meeting on 16 July 2025: 1. The office of the Krishna River Management Board will be shifted to Vijayawada/Amaravati. 2. The remaining issues were referred to a tribunal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Jal Shakti): both states agreed the KRMB office would be shifted to Vijayawada/Amaravati, so 1 is correct; remaining issues go to a committee of senior officials and technical experts from both states and the Centre, not a tribunal, so 2 is wrong.
At the CSC Diwas event on 16 July 2025, free AI training was announced for how many individuals, with priority for Village Level Entrepreneurs?
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Correct answer: B — 10 lakh
PIB (MeitY): among the key announcements was free AI training for 10 lakh individuals, with priority for all VLEs.
As stated at the CSC Diwas event in July 2025, the number of Common Service Centres has grown from about 83,000 in 2014 to nearly:
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Correct answer: D — 5.5 lakh
PIB (MeitY): MoS Jitin Prasada said there were only 83,000 CSC centres in 2014, and the number has grown to nearly 5.5 lakh.
NITI Aayog's Third Regional Consultative Meeting on 'Ease of Doing Research & Development', held on 14–15 July 2025, took place at:
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Correct answer: B — IIT Jammu
PIB (NITI Aayog): the Third Regional Consultative Meeting on 'Ease of Doing R&D' was held on 14–15 July 2025 at IIT Jammu, Jammu & Kashmir.
Consider the following statements about the Union Health Ministry's clarification of 15 July 2025: 1. The ministry's advisory asks for display of Oil and Sugar Boards at workplaces as a behavioural nudge. 2. The advisory directs vendors to put warning labels on samosa, jalebi and laddoo. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoHFW): the advisory is about displaying Oil and Sugar Boards in workplaces as a behavioural nudge, so 1 is correct; it does not direct warning labels on food products sold by vendors, so 2 is wrong.
Who was appointed Governor of Haryana by the President on 14 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ashim Kumar Ghosh
President's Secretariat communique (14 July 2025): Prof. Ashim Kumar Ghosh appointed as Governor of Haryana.
Consider the following statements about the appointments announced on 14 July 2025: 1. Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju was appointed Governor of Goa. 2. Kavinder Gupta was appointed Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh. 3. The President accepted the resignation of B. D. Mishra as Governor of Haryana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: B. D. Mishra resigned as Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh, not as Governor of Haryana.
Kavinder Gupta was appointed on 14 July 2025 as Lieutenant Governor of which Union Territory?
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Correct answer: C — Ladakh
President's Secretariat communique: Shri Kavinder Gupta appointed as Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh.
Which Article of the Constitution provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal?
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Correct answer: D — Article 155
Article 155: 'The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.'
Vibhu Bakhru was appointed on 14 July 2025 as Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka High Court
Law Ministry communique: Vibhu Bakhru, Judge (Delhi), appointed Chief Justice of Karnataka High Court.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 217 of the Constitution: 1. Every Judge of a High Court is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. 2. A permanent High Court Judge holds office until the age of sixty-five years. 3. To qualify, an advocate must have practised in a High Court for at least seven years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Article 217(1) sets the retirement age at sixty-two years (not 65), and Article 217(2)(b) requires at least ten years as an advocate of a High Court (not seven).
Chief Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh was transferred on 14 July 2025 from the Tripura High Court to which High Court?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana High Court
Law Ministry communique: Aparesh Kumar Singh transferred from Tripura to Telangana as Chief Justice.
To whom did Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan write, as announced on 13 July 2025, seeking a campaign against fake fertilizers?
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Correct answer: B — Chief Ministers of all States and UTs
Agriculture Ministry: the Union Minister wrote to the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories.
The sale of counterfeit or substandard fertilizers is prohibited under the Fertilizer (Control) Order, 1985, which is issued under which Act?
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Correct answer: D — Essential Commodities Act, 1955
Agriculture Ministry: sale of counterfeit or substandard fertilizers is prohibited under the Fertilizer (Control) Order, 1985, which falls under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
Consider the following directions issued to States in the Agriculture Minister's letter (July 2025): 1. Forced tagging of nano-fertilizers or bio-stimulants with conventional fertilizers should be stopped immediately. 2. All sales of nano-fertilizers should be banned. 3. States should procure fertilizers directly from manufacturers abroad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is in the letter. The letter asks States to stop forced tagging, not to ban nano-fertilizers, and says nothing about direct procurement abroad.
Which former Foreign Secretary was nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Harsh Vardhan Shringla
The Hindu and Indian Express: former Foreign Secretary Harsh Vardhan Shringla was among the four nominated to the Rajya Sabha (MHA notification, 12 July 2025).
Consider the following statements regarding nominated members of the Rajya Sabha: 1. The President nominates twelve members under Article 80(1)(a). 2. Nominated members must have special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social service. 3. The four persons nominated in July 2025 filled seats newly created by Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct per Article 80(1)(a) and 80(3). Statement 3 is wrong: the notification says the nominations fill vacancies caused by the retirement of nominated members.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the President nominate four members to the Rajya Sabha in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Article 80
MHA notification: 'In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-clause (a) of clause (1) of article 80 ... read with clause (3) of that article'.
Ujjwal Nikam, nominated to the Rajya Sabha in July 2025, is known as the Special Public Prosecutor in which case?
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Correct answer: A — 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks case
The Hindu and Indian Express: Ujjwal Nikam is the Special Public Prosecutor in the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks case.
According to the AAIB preliminary report on AI171, what happened to both engines' fuel cutoff switches immediately after the aircraft reached 180 knots?
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Correct answer: B — They moved from RUN to CUTOFF one after another, one second apart
AAIB preliminary report: immediately after 180 knots IAS at about 08:08:42 UTC, the Engine 1 and Engine 2 fuel cutoff switches transitioned from RUN to CUTOFF one after another with a time gap of 01 sec.
Air India flight AI171, which crashed at Ahmedabad on 12 June 2025, was bound for which airport?
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Correct answer: D — London Gatwick
AAIB preliminary report: the aircraft was operating Flight AI171 from Ahmedabad to Gatwick; intended landing place London Gatwick Airport (EGKK).
Consider the following statements about the AAIB preliminary report on AI171: 1. Fuel samples taken from the bowsers and tanks used to refuel the aircraft were found satisfactory at the DGCA lab. 2. The report issued immediate recommended actions to all B787-8 operators. 3. Significant bird activity was observed in the vicinity of the flight path. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The report says there are no recommended actions at this stage to B787-8 and/or GE GEnx-1B operators and manufacturers, and that no significant bird activity was observed.
The AAIB preliminary report on AI171 states that it was prepared in accordance with which Annex to the Convention on International Civil Aviation?
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Correct answer: C — Annex 13
AAIB preliminary report foreword: prepared in accordance with Annex 13 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation; the initial notification was also sent as per ICAO Annex 13.
Which agency represented the State of Design and Manufacture in the AI171 investigation, according to the AAIB preliminary report?
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Correct answer: A — National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB), USA
AAIB preliminary report: the initial notification was sent to the NTSB, USA, which represented the State of Design & Manufacture; NTSB appointed an Accredited Representative with advisers from Boeing, GE and the FAA.
As of 12 July 2025, what share of Bihar's electors had submitted enumeration forms in the Special Intensive Revision, according to the ECI?
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Correct answer: B — 80.11%
ECI: as of 6 PM on 12 July, collection crossed 6,32,59,497 or 80.11%.
At the Yamuna rejuvenation review on 11 July 2025, Amit Shah directed that STP capacity for the Yamuna be raised to what level by 2028?
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Correct answer: D — 1,500 MGD
MHA: the Home Minister directed to increase the capacity of STPs for the Yamuna to 1,500 MGD by 2028.
Which body was the Delhi Government asked to work with to manage waste from dairies and cow shelters, at the Yamuna review of 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)
MHA: the Delhi government should work with the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) to manage waste generated from dairies and cow shelters.
Treated water from which Delhi sewage treatment plant is to be released downstream of the Yamuna, as directed on 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Okhla
MHA: treated water from Okhla should be released into the downstream of Yamuna to improve the water quality of the river.
Under which operation did the DRI seize about ₹35 crore worth of Chinese firecrackers, as announced on 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Operation Fire Trail
Ministry of Finance: DRI, in an operation codenamed 'Operation Fire Trail', seized Chinese firecrackers valued at about ₹35 crore.
Where was the 27th meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council held on 10 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ranchi
MHA: Amit Shah chaired the 27th meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council in Ranchi, Jharkhand.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Eastern Zonal Council comprises Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal. 2. Zonal Councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. 3. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of all five Zonal Councils. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per the MHA release: the Council comprises the four states; the five Zonal Councils were set up under Sections 15 to 22 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956; and the Union Home Minister chairs them.
According to Amit Shah at the Eastern Zonal Council meeting of July 2025, what share of issues discussed at Zonal Council meetings had been resolved?
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Correct answer: C — About 83%
MHA: of 1,580 issues discussed, 1,287 (about 83%) had been resolved.
Who serves as the Vice-Chairman of a Zonal Council?
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Correct answer: B — The Chief Minister of one of the member States, by rotation
MHA: the Chief Minister of one State from the member States is the Vice-Chairman by rotation; the Union Home Minister is the Chairman.
Which body organised the 27th meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council along with the Government of Jharkhand?
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Correct answer: A — Inter State Council Secretariat, Ministry of Home Affairs
MHA: the meeting was organised by the Inter State Council Secretariat under the Ministry of Home Affairs in collaboration with the Government of Jharkhand.
What total amount did the Centre approve on 10 July 2025 for six flood- and landslide-affected states as the Central share of SDRF?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,066.80 crore
MHA: the Central Government approved the release of ₹1,066.80 crore to Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Kerala and Uttarakhand.
Which state received the largest share in the SDRF release of 10 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uttarakhand
MHA: Uttarakhand received ₹455.60 crore, followed by Assam with ₹375.60 crore.
The ₹1,066.80 crore released to six states on 10 July 2025 was given from which fund?
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Correct answer: D — Central share of the State Disaster Response Fund
MHA: the amounts were released as the Central share from the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF).
The meeting convened by C R Patil with the Chief Ministers of Punjab and Haryana on 9 July 2025 concerned which issue?
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Correct answer: A — Sutlej-Yamuna Link canal
Jal Shakti Ministry: the meeting addressed the long-standing Sutlej-Yamuna Link (SYL) Canal issue.
At the SYL meeting of 9 July 2025, when was it agreed that the Chief Ministers would meet the Jal Shakti Minister again?
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Correct answer: B — Early August 2025
Jal Shakti Ministry: it was mutually agreed that the Chief Ministers will reconvene with the Union Minister of Jal Shakti in early August.
Which two Chief Ministers took part in the SYL canal meeting with the Jal Shakti Minister on 9 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhagwant Singh Mann and Nayab Singh Saini
Jal Shakti Ministry: the meeting was with Punjab CM Bhagwant Singh Mann and Haryana CM Nayab Singh Saini.
CAQM's Statutory Direction No. 89, amended on 8 July 2025, relates to which measure?
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Correct answer: D — Denial of fuel to end-of-life vehicles
Environment Ministry: Direction No. 89 pertains to denial of fuel and immediate legal action against EoL vehicles.
From which date will the amended Direction No. 89 be enforced in the NCT of Delhi and five high-vehicle-density NCR districts?
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Correct answer: A — 1 November 2025
Environment Ministry: enforcement across NCT of Delhi and 5 adjoining high-vehicle-density NCR districts from 01.11.2025; rest of NCR from 01.04.2026.
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was constituted under which law?
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Correct answer: C — Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021
India Code: CAQM is constituted under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021.
Under which Article of the Constitution does the National Commission for Scheduled Castes present reports to the President?
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Correct answer: A — Article 338
NCSC release and Constitution: the mandate to report to the President annually on SC safeguards comes from Article 338.
Who led the NCSC delegation that submitted the Annual Report 2023-24 to the President on 8 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Kishor Makwana
Ministry of Social Justice: the delegation was led by NCSC Chairman Shri Kishor Makwana.
As per Article 338, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes consists of:
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Correct answer: C — A Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and three other Members
Article 338(2): the Commission shall consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three other Members, appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal (Art. 338(3)).
Which district emerged as the best performer in the NER District SDG Index 2023-24 released on 7 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Hnahthial
NITI Aayog: Hnahthial in Mizoram emerged as the best-performing district, with a score of 81.43.
How many districts are covered in the NER District SDG Index 2023-24?
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Correct answer: B — 121
NITI Aayog: the composite scores for the 121 districts range up to 81.43 in Hnahthial.
Which international organisation provided technical support for the NER District SDG Index developed by NITI Aayog and MDoNER?
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Correct answer: D — UNDP
NITI Aayog: the Index is developed by NITI Aayog and MDoNER with technical support from UNDP.
As per the ECI's release of 6 July 2025, on which date will the draft electoral rolls under Bihar's Special Intensive Revision be issued?
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Correct answer: C — 1 August 2025
ECI: draft electoral rolls that will be issued on 1 August 2025 will contain the names of persons whose enumeration forms are received.
How many electors were enrolled in Bihar as on 24 June 2025, according to the ECI's SIR update of 6 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Nearly 7.90 crore
ECI: forms were received from 21.46% of the total of 7,89,69,844 (nearly 7.90 crore) electors in Bihar enrolled as on June 24, 2025.
Consider the following about the Bihar SIR as per the ECI (6 July 2025): 1. It is being conducted as per instructions dated 24 June 2025. 2. Electors can submit their documents any time before 25 July 2025. 3. 77,895 BLOs are going house-to-house to help electors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are stated in the ECI release of 6 July 2025.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls vested in the Election Commission?
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Correct answer: B — Article 324
Article 324(1): the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and to the offices of President and Vice-President is vested in the Election Commission.
Dr Syama Prasad Mookerjee served as independent India's first Minister of which portfolio?
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Correct answer: A — Industry and Supply
Lok Sabha Secretariat: Dr Mookerjee served as independent India's first Minister for Industry and Supply.
Which of the following public sector undertakings is NOT among the three credited to Dr Syama Prasad Mookerjee in the Lok Sabha Secretariat's tribute of 6 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhilai Steel Plant
Lok Sabha Secretariat: he established three major PSUs: Chittaranjan Locomotive Factory, the Sindri Fertilizer Corporation and the Hindustan Aircraft Factory (now HAL). The Bhilai Steel Plant is not listed.
How many nursing officers in Delhi were offered appointment, according to the Health Ministry release of 6 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 1,388
Health Ministry: appointment offered to 1,388 Nursing Officers and 41 allied healthcare professionals; letters were issued that day to 570 Nursing Officers and 20 refractionists.
Along with distributing appointment letters on 6 July 2025, what did J P Nadda flag off at Vigyan Bhawan?
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Correct answer: B — Ayushman Bharat Registration Vans
Health Ministry: Shri Nadda distributed appointment letters and flagged off Ayushman Bharat Registration Vans.
Which Indian Standard must helmets for two-wheeler riders conform to under the Quality Control Order cited on 5 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — IS 4151:2015
Department of Consumer Affairs: a Quality Control Order in force since 2021 mandates ISI-marked helmets certified under BIS standards (IS 4151:2015).
How many manufacturers held valid BIS licences for protective helmets as of June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 176
Department of Consumer Affairs: as of June 2025, there are 176 manufacturers across India holding valid BIS licenses for protective helmets.
Wearing a helmet by two-wheeler riders is mandatory under which law, as cited by the Department of Consumer Affairs on 5 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
Department of Consumer Affairs: wearing a helmet is mandatory under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, but its effectiveness depends on quality.
Where was the Northern Region Ministers' Conference on Civil Aviation 2025 held on 4 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dehradun
Ministry of Civil Aviation: the conference was held today in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
Consider the following about the Civil Aviation conference in Dehradun (4 July 2025): 1. It was the first of a series of Regional Conferences. 2. FICCI and the Uttarakhand Civil Aviation Development Authority provided the industry interface. 3. Delhi was among the participating States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: participants were Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Ladakh and Chandigarh (Ministry of Civil Aviation).