Telangana Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
From KMS 2025-26, the usage charge for a used gunny bag in central foodgrain procurement has been revised to:
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Correct answer: D — ₹10.22
The charge rises from ₹7.32 to ₹10.22 per used bag (or actual cost, whichever is lower), an increase of about 39.6%.
The new rail line approved by the Cabinet on 27 August 2025 to connect Dholavira, Narayan Sarovar and Lakhpat fort is located in which region?
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Correct answer: B — Kutch
The Deshalpar–Hajipir–Luna and Vayor–Lakhpat new line will connect far-flung areas of Kutch, Gujarat.
What is the approximate total cost of the four railway projects approved by the Union Cabinet on 27 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹12,328 crore
The four projects together cost about ₹12,328 crore; ₹2,526 crore is the Kutch new line alone and ₹5,012 crore is the Secunderabad–Wadi line.
Consider the following statements about the railway projects approved on 27 August 2025: 1. The Secunderabad (Sanathnagar)–Wadi 3rd and 4th line spans Karnataka and Telangana. 2. The Bhagalpur–Jamalpur 3rd line is in Bihar. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release; the Furkating–New Tinsukia doubling is the Assam project.
Gouse Meera Mohiuddin was appointed on 29 July 2025 as an Additional Judge of which High Court?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana High Court
PIB press note (29 July 2025): Gouse Meera Mohiuddin, Advocate, was appointed Additional Judge of the Telangana High Court.
Anjan Moni Kalita and Rajesh Mazumdar, advocates, were appointed on 29 July 2025 as Additional Judges of:
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Correct answer: B — Gauhati High Court
PIB press note: Anjan Moni Kalita, Rajesh Mazumdar, Pranjal Das and Sanjeev Kumar Sharma were appointed Additional Judges of the Gauhati High Court.
Under Article 224 of the Constitution, an additional Judge of a High Court is appointed for a period:
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Correct answer: A — Not exceeding two years
Supreme Court (Lok Prahari v. Union of India, 20 April 2021): Article 224 provides for appointing additional judges to meet a temporary increase in business or arrears, for a period not exceeding two years.
Where were the flight-trials of DRDO's ULPGM-V3, announced on 25 July 2025, carried out?
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Correct answer: A — National Open Area Range, Kurnool
PIB (25 July 2025): DRDO carried out flight-trials of ULPGM-V3 at the National Open Area Range (NOAR) test range in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh.
The UAV from which ULPGM-V3 was released during its July 2025 trials was developed by:
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Correct answer: B — Newspace Research Technologies, Bengaluru
PIB: the missile was released from a UAV indigenously developed by Indian start-up Newspace Research Technologies, Bengaluru.
Consider the following statements about ULPGM-V3 (July 2025): 1. It is an enhanced version of ULPGM-V2. 2. It offers three modular warhead options, and the July 2025 trials were in the anti-armour configuration. 3. Its Development cum Production Partners were HAL and BEL. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: ULPGM-V3 enhances ULPGM-V2; it has three modular warheads and the trials were for the anti-armour configuration. The DcPPs were Adani Defence and Bharat Dynamics Limited, not HAL and BEL, so 3 is wrong.
In how many Indian languages did the official Rashtrapati Bhavan websites become available on 25 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 22
PIB (25 July 2025): the official websites of Rashtrapati Bhavan are now available in 22 Indian languages.
By when is Rashtrapati Bhavan targeted to become Net Zero, as per initiatives launched on 25 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — March 2027
PIB: commencement of initiatives to make Rashtrapati Bhavan Net Zero by March 2027.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 56 of the Constitution of India: 1. The President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. 2. The President may resign by writing addressed to the Vice-President. 3. The President must vacate office on expiry of the term even if a successor has not entered office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Article 56(1): five-year term from entering office; proviso (a): resignation addressed to the Vice-President; proviso (c): the President continues in office, notwithstanding expiry of term, until the successor enters office. So 3 is wrong.
At the 16 July 2025 meeting chaired by the Union Jal Shakti Minister, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana agreed to install telemetry devices for real-time monitoring of water flows in which basin?
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Correct answer: D — Krishna
PIB (Jal Shakti): both states agreed on the installation of telemetry devices for real-time monitoring of water flows in the Krishna Basin.
Immediate maintenance measures were agreed at the 16 July 2025 AP–Telangana meeting to safeguard which dam?
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Correct answer: B — Srisailam
PIB (Jal Shakti): it was agreed that immediate measures would be taken to address the maintenance issues to safeguard Srisailam dam.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the AP–Telangana meeting on 16 July 2025: 1. The office of the Krishna River Management Board will be shifted to Vijayawada/Amaravati. 2. The remaining issues were referred to a tribunal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Jal Shakti): both states agreed the KRMB office would be shifted to Vijayawada/Amaravati, so 1 is correct; remaining issues go to a committee of senior officials and technical experts from both states and the Centre, not a tribunal, so 2 is wrong.
ADIDOC, launched on 14 July 2025, is a:
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Correct answer: A — Carbon fibre foot prosthesis
MoD: DRDO and AIIMS Bibinagar unveiled ADIDOC, an indigenously developed optimised carbon foot prosthesis.
Which DRDO laboratory co-developed the ADIDOC foot prosthesis with AIIMS Bibinagar?
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Correct answer: D — DRDL
MoD: ADIDOC was developed by the Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL), DRDO, with AIIMS Bibinagar.
Up to what load has the ADIDOC prosthesis been tested, and what is its stated cost?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 125 kg; under ₹20,000
MoD: ADIDOC has been tested for loads up to 125 kg and costs under ₹20,000; imported equivalents cost about ₹2 lakh.
Vibhu Bakhru was appointed on 14 July 2025 as Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka High Court
Law Ministry communique: Vibhu Bakhru, Judge (Delhi), appointed Chief Justice of Karnataka High Court.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 217 of the Constitution: 1. Every Judge of a High Court is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. 2. A permanent High Court Judge holds office until the age of sixty-five years. 3. To qualify, an advocate must have practised in a High Court for at least seven years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Article 217(1) sets the retirement age at sixty-two years (not 65), and Article 217(2)(b) requires at least ten years as an advocate of a High Court (not seven).
Chief Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh was transferred on 14 July 2025 from the Tripura High Court to which High Court?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana High Court
Law Ministry communique: Aparesh Kumar Singh transferred from Tripura to Telangana as Chief Justice.
Veteran actor Kota Srinivasa Rao, who died on 13 July 2025, was primarily associated with which film industry?
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Correct answer: C — Telugu
The Hindu, NDTV, The Tribune: veteran Telugu actor Kota Srinivasa Rao passed away at 83.
Kota Srinivasa Rao served as a BJP MLA from 1999 to 2004 from which constituency?
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Correct answer: D — Vijayawada East
NDTV and The Tribune: he served as BJP MLA from the Vijayawada East Assembly constituency from 1999 to 2004.
Which civilian honour had Kota Srinivasa Rao received?
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Correct answer: A — Padma Shri
The Tribune and The New Indian Express: Kota Srinivasa Rao was a recipient of the Padma Shri.
The Aadi Karmayogi mission of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs aims to build a cadre of how many tribal change leaders?
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Correct answer: C — 20 lakh
Ministry of Tribal Affairs: the initiative aims to build a dynamic cadre of 20 lakh tribal grassroots functionaries and village-level change leaders.
Where was the first Regional Process Lab of the Aadi Karmayogi mission launched on 10 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bengaluru
Ministry of Tribal Affairs: the first RPL was hosted in Bengaluru.
Consider the following about the first Aadi Karmayogi Regional Process Lab (July 2025): 1. It was launched on Guru Purnima. 2. It trains State Master Trainers from Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. 3. It is run by the Ministry of Rural Development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Aadi Karmayogi is a mission of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
In which city did G. Kishan Reddy release the Copper and Aluminium Vision Documents on 4 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Hyderabad
Ministry of Mines: the documents were released at the international conference organised by the Indian National Committee of the World Mining Congress in Hyderabad.
The Copper Vision Document (July 2025) plans to add how much smelting and refining capacity by 2030?
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Correct answer: A — 5 million tonnes per annum
Ministry of Mines: the Copper Vision Document outlines plans to add 5 million tonnes per annum of smelting and refining capacity by 2030.
The Aluminium Vision Document (July 2025) aims to expand India's bauxite production capacity to what level?
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Correct answer: D — 150 MTPA
Ministry of Mines: the document aims to expand bauxite production capacity to 150 MTPA and double the national aluminium recycling rate.
Which Governor did the Mission Karmayogi team call on in Hyderabad on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jishnu Dev Varma
DoPT: the Mission Karmayogi team called on the Governor of Telangana, Shri Jishnu Dev Varma, on 2nd July 2025 in Hyderabad.
Which digital platform, central to Mission Karmayogi, was highlighted in the team's discussions in Telangana (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — iGOT Karmayogi
DoPT: a key highlight of the discussions was the iGOT Karmayogi platform for digital learning and competency-based training.
The Sigachi Industries factory explosion of 30 June 2025 took place at Pashamylaram in which district?
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Correct answer: B — Sangareddy district, Telangana
PIB and New Indian Express: the fire tragedy occurred at a factory in Pashamylaram, Sangareddy district, Telangana.
What was being manufactured at the Sigachi Industries unit when the 30 June 2025 explosion occurred?
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Correct answer: D — Microcrystalline cellulose (MCC)
New Indian Express: the explosion occurred while microcrystalline cellulose powder was being manufactured for use as a binding agent in pharmaceuticals.
Consider the following about the Sigachi Industries blast (30 June 2025): 1. The Prime Minister announced ₹2 lakh ex-gratia from PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased. 2. The state's Technical Expert Committee traced the explosion to the spray dryer. 3. The injured were to get ₹1 lakh each from PMNRF. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct (PIB). Statement 2 is wrong: the committee traced it to the sealing machine in the packing area, not the spray dryer (The Hindu, Telangana Today). Statement 3 is wrong: the injured get ₹50,000 (PIB).
Where are the headquarters of the National Turmeric Board, inaugurated by Amit Shah on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nizamabad, Telangana
PIB: Amit Shah inaugurated the headquarters of the National Turmeric Board in Nizamabad, Telangana.
Who was announced as the first Chairperson of the National Turmeric Board?
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Correct answer: B — Palle Ganga Reddy
PIB (14 January 2025): Piyush Goyal announced Shri Palle Ganga Reddy as the board's first Chairperson.
Consider the following about the National Turmeric Board: 1. It was launched on 14 January 2025 by the Union Commerce and Industry Minister. 2. Amit Shah said it fulfils a 40-year-old demand of turmeric farmers. 3. Its headquarters are in Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (PIB, 14 January 2025 and 29 June 2025). Statement 3 is wrong: the headquarters are in Nizamabad.
Which private company handed over the first centre fuselage assembly for the LCA Tejas Mk1A to HAL on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — VEM Technologies
The Ministry of Defence said VEM Technologies handed over the first centre fuselage to HAL.
In which city was the first Tejas Mk1A centre fuselage handed over to HAL?
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Correct answer: A — Hyderabad
The handover took place in Hyderabad on 30 May 2025.
Katejhari village, where a bus arrived for the first time as mentioned in Mann Ki Baat in May 2025, is in which district?
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Correct answer: A — Gadchiroli
Katejhari is in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.
The 'sugar boards' installed in schools to make children aware of their sugar intake, praised in Mann Ki Baat in May 2025, are an initiative of which body?
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Correct answer: D — CBSE
The PM described sugar boards as a unique initiative of CBSE.
According to the Prime Minister in Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), India's annual honey production has risen to about how much?
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Correct answer: B — 1.25 lakh metric tonnes
Honey production rose from about 70–75 thousand metric tonnes 10–11 years ago to about 1.25 lakh metric tonnes.
In Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), the PM mentioned women spraying pesticides with drones in Sangareddy district. In which state is Sangareddy?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana
Sangareddy district is in Telangana.
According to the PM in Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), how many records were set at the Khelo India Youth Games hosted in Bihar?
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Correct answer: A — 26
The PM said 26 records were made; 36 is the number of medals Bihar won.
Where and when is Wings India 2026, Asia's largest civil aviation event, scheduled to be held?
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Correct answer: A — Begumpet Airport, Hyderabad; 28–31 January 2026
Wings India 2026 is scheduled for 28–31 January 2026 at Begumpet Airport, Hyderabad.
Wings India 2026 is organised by the Ministry of Civil Aviation in collaboration with which industry body?
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Correct answer: B — FICCI
The Ministry of Civil Aviation organises Wings India with FICCI.
Which city is to receive the largest number of electric buses (about 4,500) in the current phase of PM E-DRIVE, as announced in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bengaluru
About 4,500 e-buses are to go to Bengaluru, 2,800 to Delhi, 2,000 to Hyderabad, 1,000 to Ahmedabad and 600 to Surat.
As approved by the Union Cabinet, how much of the PM E-DRIVE outlay is earmarked for the procurement of e-buses, and how many e-buses does it support?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,391 crore for 14,028 e-buses
The Cabinet release provides ₹4,391 crore for 14,028 e-buses; ₹10,900 crore is the total scheme outlay over two years.
Under PM E-DRIVE, which agency handles demand aggregation of e-buses in the nine cities with population above 40 lakh?
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Correct answer: D — Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL)
As per the Cabinet release, demand aggregation is done by CESL in nine cities with more than 40 lakh population.
For the fire tragedies in Hyderabad and Solapur on 18 May 2025, what ex-gratia did the Prime Minister announce from PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2 lakh
The PM announced ₹2 lakh from PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased and ₹50,000 for each injured person.
Consider the following statements about the fires of 18 May 2025: 1. The fire at Gulzar Houz near Charminar in Hyderabad killed 17 members of a family. 2. The fire in Solapur broke out at a chemical factory. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The Solapur fire broke out at Central Textile Mills, a textile factory in the Akkalkot Road MIDC area.
How many people died in the fire at a textile mill in Solapur's MIDC area on 18 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 8
Eight people, including the factory owner and members of two families, died in the Solapur fire; 17 died in the Hyderabad fire the same day.
According to the MHA (14 May 2025), how many Naxalites' bodies were recovered in the operation at Karreguttalu Hill?
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Correct answer: B — 31
Bodies of 31 uniformed Naxalites were recovered; 35 weapons were recovered, 21 encounters took place, and 16 of those killed were women.
Karreguttalu Hill, the site of a major anti-Naxal operation in April–May 2025, lies on the border of which two states?
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Correct answer: D — Chhattisgarh and Telangana
Karreguttalu Hill lies on the border of Bijapur (Chhattisgarh) and Mulugu (Telangana).
Consider the following statements about the Karreguttalu Hill operation: 1. It ran from 21 April to 11 May 2025. 2. Several security force personnel were killed during the operation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The MHA stated there were no casualties among the security forces.
Consider the following statements about the 72nd Miss World pageant: 1. It opened at the Gachibowli Indoor Stadium, Hyderabad, on 10 May 2025. 2. Its finale was scheduled for 31 May 2025 at the Hitex Exhibition Centre. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Who represented India at the 72nd Miss World pageant?
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Correct answer: B — Nandini Gupta
Nandini Gupta represented India; Krystyna Pyszková was the reigning Miss World and Julia Morley the organisation's Chairperson and CEO.
At the opening of the 72nd Miss World, Perini Natyam was performed by how many children?
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Correct answer: B — 250
A performance of Perini Natyam by 250 children set the tone for the evening.
Where is Babuji Vanam, inaugurated on 30 April 2025 as the world's first energy transmission garden, located?
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Correct answer: A — Kanha Shanti Vanam, Hyderabad
Babuji Vanam was inaugurated at Kanha Shanti Vanam, Hyderabad, Telangana.
The inauguration of Babuji Vanam marked the closing of which birth anniversary celebrations of Pujya Babuji Maharaj?
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Correct answer: C — 125th
It marked the closing ceremony of the 125th birth anniversary celebrations of Pujya Babuji Maharaj.
Who administered the oath of office to Justice A. Rajasheker Reddy as Lokayukta of Telangana on 28 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Governor Jishnu Dev Varma
Governor Jishnu Dev Varma administered the oath at Raj Bhavan, Hyderabad.
Consider the following about the new Lokayukta of Telangana: 1. Justice A. Rajasheker Reddy is a former High Court judge. 2. He was sworn in at the Telangana Legislative Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The oath-taking ceremony was held at Raj Bhavan, Hyderabad.
For how long did DRDL ground-test an Active Cooled Scramjet Subscale Combustor on 25 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 1,000 seconds
DRDL conducted the ground test for more than 1,000 seconds; the earlier test in January 2025 was for 120 seconds.
Which laboratory conducted the long-duration scramjet combustor ground test in Hyderabad on 25 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL)
The test was conducted by the Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL), a Hyderabad-based DRDO lab.
Consider the following about DRDO's scramjet test of 25 April 2025: 1. Hypersonic cruise missiles travel at more than five times the speed of sound (over 6,100 km/h). 2. The test was conducted at the Scramjet Connect Test Facility in Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Defence release.
For how long will Virginia tobacco grower registrations and barn licences now be valid, as notified in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 3 years
The registrations and licences will be valid for 3 years instead of 1 year.
Consider the following about the amendment to the Tobacco Board Rules, 1976, notified in April 2025: 1. It takes effect from the 2025-26 crop season in Andhra Pradesh. 2. It will benefit around 91,000 farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. It will benefit around 83,500 farmers covering about 91,000 barns.
Where did Telangana CM A. Revanth Reddy launch the free fine rice (sanna biyyam) scheme on 30 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Huzurnagar
The scheme was launched at a public meeting in Huzurnagar, Suryapet district, on Ugadi.
How much fine rice per person per month does Telangana's free fine rice scheme, launched on 30 March 2025, provide to eligible ration cardholders?
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Correct answer: C — 6 kg
The state supplies 6 kg of fine rice per person per month free through the PDS.
Consider the following statements about Telangana's fine rice scheme launched on 30 March 2025: 1. It is expected to cover over three crore people, nearly 85% of the state's population. 2. The CM said the scheme was introduced because the coarse rice supplied earlier was often not consumed and was resold. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
All India Radio reported coverage of over three crore people (about 85%), and the CM said coarse rice was rejected by beneficiaries and misused through resale.
Pasala Krishna Bharathi, the Gandhian who died on 23 March 2025, was the daughter of freedom fighters from which district?
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Correct answer: B — West Godavari, Andhra Pradesh
She was the daughter of freedom fighters Pasala Krishna Murthy and Anja Lakshmi of West Godavari district.
Why were the parents of Gandhian Pasala Krishna Bharathi (died March 2025) imprisoned when she was born in jail in 1932?
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Correct answer: C — For hoisting the national flag at the Bhimavaram sub-collector's office
Her parents were jailed for hoisting the Indian flag at the Bhimavaram sub-collector's office, and she was born in jail.
To what level did the two Bills passed by the Telangana Assembly on 17 March 2025 seek to raise reservation for Backward Classes?
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Correct answer: D — 42%
The two Bills seek to raise BC reservation to 42% in education, State government jobs and rural and urban local bodies.
Under the Telangana Bills passed on 17 March 2025, what would be the reservation shares of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes alongside 42% for Backward Classes?
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Correct answer: A — SC 15%, ST 10%
Once approved, BCs would get 42%, SCs 15% and STs 10% reservation in the State.
According to Telangana CM A. Revanth Reddy (17 March 2025), the BC quota in local bodies is to be raised to 42% from what level?
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Correct answer: B — 23%
The CM said the government was committed to the BC Declaration promising to raise the BC quota in local bodies from 23% to 42%.
Consider the following statements about Telangana's BC reservation Bills of March 2025: 1. They were passed only after the Centre gave its prior approval to breach the 50% ceiling. 2. One of the two Bills covers reservation of seats in rural and urban local bodies. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the Bills were passed by the Assembly first and need the Centre's approval afterwards because total reservation (BC 42% + SC 15% + ST 10%) would exceed the 50% cap set in Indra Sawhney. Statement 2 is correct.
The Electronics Manufacturing Cluster at Divitipally, where four units' foundation was laid on 8 March 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: B — Telangana
Divitipally is in Mahabubnagar district, Telangana.
Which company is the anchor unit at the Divitipally EMC, building a 16 GW cell and 5 GW battery pack giga factory?
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Correct answer: C — Amara Raja Advanced Cell Technologies
Amara Raja Advanced Cell Technologies is the anchor unit, with a projected investment of ₹9,500 crore over five years.
Consider the following statements about the Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0) Scheme: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2020. 2. For EMC projects, financial assistance is 50% of the project cost, subject to a ceiling of ₹70 crore for every 100 acres. 3. It is administered by the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
The Cabinet approved EMC 2.0 on 21 March 2020 with an outlay of ₹3,762.25 crore. Assistance for EMC projects is 50% of project cost, up to ₹70 crore per 100 acres. The scheme is run by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), not Heavy Industries.
At the sports ministers' Chintan Shivir that ended in Hyderabad on 8 March 2025, India's goal was a top-10 finish at which Olympics?
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Correct answer: B — 2036 Summer Olympics
Stakeholders agreed talent identification must begin early for India to secure a top-10 finish at the 2036 Olympics, which India hopes to host.