Asia Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was the record monthly coal production from captive and commercial mines in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 18.40 MT
PIB (Coal): December 2024 witnessed the highest ever monthly production from captive and commercial mines, with 18.40 MT.
By what percentage did coal production from captive and commercial mines grow during April–December 2024 over the same period of the previous year?
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Correct answer: A — 34.20%
PIB (Coal): production between 1 April and 31 December 2024 reached 131.05 MT, a 34.20% increase from 97.665 MT; 30.75% is the rise in December's daily average.
How many Indian fishermen were to be repatriated by Bangladesh under the mutual release announced on 2 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 95
MEA: 95 Indian fishermen were handed over by Bangladesh authorities to the Bangladesh Coast Guard for handing over to the Indian Coast Guard on 5 January 2025; 90 Bangladeshi fishermen were to be released by India.
Where was the India–Bangladesh fishermen exchange of January 2025 to be concluded?
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Correct answer: D — At sea between the two Coast Guards
MEA: the mutual release and repatriation operation will be concluded at sea between the respective Coast Guard authorities.
What corpus did the Union Cabinet approve on 1 January 2025 for the Fund for Innovation and Technology (FIAT) under the crop insurance schemes?
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Correct answer: D — ₹824.77 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved creation of the Fund for Innovation and Technology (FIAT) with a corpus of ₹824.77 crore.
Under YES-TECH in PMFBY, what minimum weightage is given to technology-based yield estimates?
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Correct answer: A — 30%
PIB (Cabinet): YES-TECH uses remote sensing technology for yield estimation with minimum 30% weightage to technology-based yield estimates.
Consider the following statements about the crop insurance decisions of 1 January 2025: 1. WINDS envisages Automatic Weather Stations at block level and Automatic Rain Gauges at panchayat level. 2. 2024-25 was approved as the first year of WINDS implementation, with central fund sharing of 90:10. 3. Madhya Pradesh has adopted 100% technology-based yield estimation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Cabinet): all three are stated — AWS at block and ARGs at panchayat level; 2024-25 approved as WINDS' first year with 90:10 central sharing; MP has adopted 100% technology-based yield estimation.
Which body centrally coordinates the subscription process under the One Nation One Subscription scheme?
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Correct answer: B — INFLIBNET
PIB (Education): the entire subscription process will be centrally coordinated by INFLIBNET, an autonomous inter-university centre under the UGC.
How many international publishers' journals are covered under Phase I of One Nation One Subscription, which began on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30
PIB (Education): Phase I provides access to more than 13,000 scholarly journals from 30 major international publishers; 6,300 is the number of institutions.
Consider the following statements about the One Nation One Subscription scheme: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 25 November 2024. 2. ₹6,000 crore has been allocated for the three calendar years 2025, 2026 and 2027. 3. It provides ₹150 crore per year for beneficiary authors to publish in selected open access journals. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Education): Cabinet approved ONOS on 25 November 2024; ₹6,000 crore covers 2025, 2026 and 2027; and ₹150 crore per year supports open access publishing.
At what rate per tonne did the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2025 extend the one-time special package on DAP beyond the NBS subsidy?
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Correct answer: A — ₹3,500 per tonne
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved extension of the one-time special package on DAP beyond the NBS subsidy @ ₹3,500 per MT from 01.01.2025 till further orders.
What is the approximate financial implication of the DAP special package extension approved on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Up to ₹3,850 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the tentative budgetary requirement is approximately up to ₹3,850 crore; ₹2,625 crore was the earlier package and ₹6,475 crore is the total since April 2024.
Consider the following statements about fertiliser subsidy as stated in the Cabinet release of 1 January 2025: 1. Subsidy on P&K fertilisers has been governed by the NBS scheme since 1 April 2010. 2. The first one-time special package on DAP covered 1 April to 31 December 2024. 3. The new extension of the special package is limited to the Rabi 2024-25 season only. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet): NBS has governed P&K subsidy w.e.f. 01.04.2010 and the July 2024 package covered 01.04.2024 to 31.12.2024; the extension runs from 01.01.2025 till further orders, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which senior Maoist cadre was among the 11 who surrendered in Gadchiroli on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Vimla Chandra Sidam alias Tarakka
The Hindu; Indian Express: 11 Maoists, including senior cadre Vimla Chandra Sidam alias Tarakka, surrendered in the presence of CM Devendra Fadnavis.
What was the length of the Gatta–Gardewada–Wangeturi road inaugurated by Maharashtra CM Devendra Fadnavis in Gadchiroli on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 32 km
The Hindu; Indian Express: the CM inaugurated the 32-km Gatta–Gardewada–Wangeturi road and MSRTC bus services on the Wangeturi–Gardewada–Gatta–Aheri route.
The Ministry of Defence declared 2025 as the year of what?
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Correct answer: C — Year of Reforms
PIB (Defence): it was unanimously decided to observe 2025 as the 'Year of Reforms' in the Ministry of Defence.
Which structural change in the Armed Forces do the 'Year of Reforms' focus areas seek to facilitate through jointness and integration?
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Correct answer: D — Establishment of Integrated Theatre Commands
PIB (Defence): reforms should aim to further bolster jointness and integration initiatives and facilitate establishment of the Integrated Theatre Commands.
Who chaired the meeting at which it was decided to observe 2025 as the 'Year of Reforms' in the Ministry of Defence?
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Correct answer: A — Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh
PIB (Defence): Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh chaired a meeting with all the Secretaries of the MoD on the eve of the New Year, where the decision was taken unanimously.
On which two estates did the Kerala Cabinet approve model townships for Wayanad landslide survivors on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Elstone and Nedumpala estates
The Hindu; Hindustan Times: the townships will come up on 58.50 hectares of Elstone Estate and 48.96 hectares of Nedumpala Estate.
What size of house will each family get in the Wayanad rehabilitation townships approved on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,000 sq ft, single-storey
The Hindu; Hindustan Times: the homes will be 1,000 sq ft and single-storeyed.
Consider the following statements about the Wayanad rehabilitation plan approved on 1 January 2025: 1. Families at Elstone Estate will get five-cent plots and those at Nedumpala Estate 10-cent plots. 2. Elstone Estate falls under the Kalpetta municipality. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
The Hindu; Hindustan Times: five-cent plots at Elstone (Kalpetta municipality) and 10-cent plots at Nedumpala (Meppadi panchayat).
Botanist K.S. Manilal, who died on 1 January 2025, is best known for his work on which treatise?
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Correct answer: C — Hortus Malabaricus
The Hindu; Indian Express: Manilal devoted about 35 years to the research, translation and annotation of the Latin botanical treatise Hortus Malabaricus.
In which year was K.S. Manilal awarded the Padma Shri?
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Correct answer: D — 2020
The Hindu; Indian Express: Manilal was awarded the Padma Shri in 2020 for his contributions to botany.
The exchange of nuclear installation lists between India and Pakistan on 1 January 2025 was the how-manyth consecutive exchange?
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Correct answer: A — 34th
MEA: this is the 34th consecutive exchange of such lists, the first having taken place on 1 January 1992.
Under which agreement do India and Pakistan exchange lists of civilian prisoners and fishermen every 1 January and 1 July?
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Correct answer: B — Agreement on Consular Access, 2008
MEA: under the provisions of the bilateral Agreement on Consular Access 2008, such lists are exchanged every year on 1 January and 1 July.
Consider the following statements about the India–Pakistan exchanges of 1 January 2025: 1. India shared names of 381 civilian prisoners and 81 fishermen in its custody. 2. Pakistan shared names of 49 civilian prisoners and 217 fishermen in its custody. 3. The Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities was signed on 31 December 1988. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
MEA: India — 381 civilian prisoners and 81 fishermen; Pakistan — 49 civilian prisoners and 217 fishermen; the nuclear agreement was signed on 31 December 1988 and entered into force on 27 January 1991.
Who assumed command of the IAF's Western Air Command on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Air Marshal Jeetendra Mishra
PIB (Defence): Air Marshal Jeetendra Mishra assumed command of the Western Air Command on 01 January 2025, succeeding Air Marshal Pankaj Mohan Sinha.
What post did Air Marshal Jeetendra Mishra hold immediately before taking over the Western Air Command?
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Correct answer: A — Deputy Chief of Integrated Defence Staff (Operations)
PIB (Defence): he was Deputy Chief of Integrated Defence Staff (Operations) prior to taking over his present appointment.
How many awards will be conferred under the 28th National Awards for e-Governance 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 16
PIB (DARPG): 16 awards are being conferred under NAeG 2025 — 10 Gold and 6 Silver.
What incentive will Gold awardees receive under the National Awards for e-Governance 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10 lakh
PIB (DARPG): an incentive of ₹10 lakh for Gold awardees and ₹5 lakh for Silver awardees, to be used for public welfare projects.
Who assumed charge as CEO of UIDAI on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Bhuvnesh Kumar
PIB (MeitY): Shri Bhuvnesh Kumar assumed charge as the CEO of UIDAI on Wednesday (1 January 2025).
To which IAS batch and cadre does UIDAI CEO Bhuvnesh Kumar belong?
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Correct answer: C — 1995 batch, Uttar Pradesh cadre
PIB (MeitY): he is an officer of the 1995 batch IAS from the Uttar Pradesh cadre.
Which State launched an e-office implementation system for government files on 1 January 2025, with the CM inaugurating it from Samatva Bhawan?
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Correct answer: D — Madhya Pradesh
Free Press Journal; Patrika: Madhya Pradesh CM Mohan Yadav inaugurated the e-office system from Samatva Bhawan (CM House) on Wednesday, 1 January 2025.
In which offices was Madhya Pradesh's e-office system first started on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Minister's office and Chief Secretary's office
Free Press Journal; Patrika: the e-office system was started in the CM Secretariat and the Chief Secretary's office, and is to be extended gradually to all departments.
How many projects did Odisha's 133rd SLSWCA meeting approve on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 25
Odisha TV; Kalinga TV: the 133rd SLSWCA meeting approved 25 projects worth ₹4,222.24 crore across 16 sectors and 11 districts.
How many jobs are the projects approved by Odisha's SLSWCA on 1 January 2025 expected to generate?
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Correct answer: C — 14,497
Odisha TV; Kalinga TV: the projects are expected to generate more than 14,497 job opportunities.
According to the Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2024 released on 31 December 2024, what is India's overall stage of ground water extraction?
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Correct answer: C — 60.47%
PIB (Jal Shakti): annual extraction of 245.64 BCM against an extractable resource of 406.19 BCM gives a stage of extraction of 60.47%; 73.4% is the share of safe units and 11.13% the share of over-exploited units.
Out of 6,746 assessment units in the 2024 ground water assessment, how many were categorised as 'Over-exploited'?
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Correct answer: A — 751
PIB (Jal Shakti): 751 units are over-exploited; 206 are critical, 711 semi-critical and 127 saline, with 4,951 safe.
Consider the following statements about the 2024 ground water assessment compared with the 2017 assessment: 1. Total annual recharge increased by 15 BCM. 2. Annual extraction increased by 3 BCM. 3. Recharge from tanks, ponds and water conservation structures rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Jal Shakti): recharge rose by 15 BCM and extraction fell (not rose) by 3 BCM; recharge from tanks, ponds and WCS rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. So statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Till which date did NPCI on 31 December 2024 extend the deadline for UPI apps to comply with the 30% transaction-volume cap?
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Correct answer: C — 31 December 2026
Business Standard/TechCrunch: NPCI extended the compliance deadline by two years, to 31 December 2026.
Before NPCI removed the limit on 31 December 2024, WhatsApp Pay's UPI user onboarding was capped at:
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Correct answer: D — 100 million users
Business Standard/TechCrunch: the limit had been set at 100 million users; 20 million and 40 million were earlier stages, and 500 million is roughly WhatsApp's Indian user base.
Consider the following statements about NPCI's decisions of 31 December 2024: 1. The UPI user onboarding limit for WhatsApp Pay was removed with immediate effect. 2. The 30% UPI volume cap was first proposed by NPCI in November 2020. 3. The volume cap applies only to bank-owned UPI apps. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
The Hindu/Business Standard: the WhatsApp Pay limit was removed with immediate effect and the 30% cap was first proposed in November 2020; the cap concerns third-party app providers such as PhonePe and Google Pay, so statement 3 is wrong.
The 45 MLD sewage treatment plant approved at the 59th Executive Committee meeting of NMCG for about ₹263 crore is located in which district of Uttar Pradesh?
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Correct answer: D — Chandauli
PIB (Jal Shakti): the ₹263 crore 45 MLD STP on the Hybrid Annuity Model is for Chandauli; Manikpur in Pratapgarh got a 15 KLD faecal sludge plant.
Which town in Bihar got a ₹257 crore sewerage project, including a 50 MLD STP and a 1 MLD nature-based STP, at NMCG's 59th Executive Committee meeting?
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Correct answer: B — Buxar
PIB (Jal Shakti): the ₹257 crore project with a 50 MLD STP, a 1 MLD nature-based STP, three interception pumping stations and 8.68 km of sewers is for Buxar.
Consider the following statements about the projects approved at NMCG's 59th Executive Committee meeting: 1. The meeting was chaired by NMCG Director General Rajeev Kumar Mital. 2. The Chandauli STP will be built on the Hybrid Annuity Model with 15 years of operation and maintenance. 3. Uttarpara-Kotrung in West Bengal got a 50 MLD sewage treatment plant. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Jal Shakti): DG Rajeev Kumar Mital chaired the meeting and the Chandauli STP is on HAM with 15-year O&M; Uttarpara-Kotrung got a 22 KLD faecal sludge plant, not a 50 MLD STP (that is Buxar).
Which Indian player won bronze in the women's section of the FIDE World Blitz Championship 2024 in New York?
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Correct answer: D — R. Vaishali
FIDE/The Hindu/Indian Express: R. Vaishali won bronze after losing to Ju Wenjun in the semi-finals.
Who won the women's title at the FIDE World Blitz Championship 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Ju Wenjun
FIDE: Ju Wenjun beat Lei Tingjie in the final; Valentina Gunina was the defending blitz champion beaten by Ju in the quarter-finals.
Consider the following statements about the open section of the FIDE World Blitz Championship 2024: 1. Magnus Carlsen and Ian Nepomniachtchi shared the title. 2. The decision to share first place was accepted by FIDE President Arkady Dvorkovich. 3. A silver medal was awarded to the player with the better tiebreak. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
FIDE: Carlsen and Nepomniachtchi shared first place after Dvorkovich accepted the proposal, 'without a silver medal being awarded', so statement 3 is wrong.
How much did Odisha get under PM-USHA, as announced by the state's Higher Education Minister on 31 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — ₹676.70 crore
OrissaPOST (PTI)/OdishaBytes: Odisha got ₹676.70 crore under PM-USHA, of which the Centre bears ₹408.70 crore and the State ₹268 crore.
Which of the following universities is NOT among the four Odisha universities to get ₹100 crore each under the MERU component of PM-USHA (December 2024)?
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Correct answer: C — Utkal University
OrissaPOST/OdishaBytes: the four MERU universities are Berhampur, Maharaja Sriram Chandra Bhanja Deo, Ravenshaw and Sambalpur; Utkal University is not among them.
Consider the following statements about Odisha's PM-USHA sanction announced on 31 December 2024: 1. The Centre and the State share the cost in a 60:40 ratio. 2. The funds follow decisions of the 3rd Project Approval Board meeting of the Union Ministry of Education. 3. Five districts get ₹10 crore each under the gender inclusion component. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
OrissaPOST/OdishaBytes/Odisha Samachar: funding is 60:40 (₹408.70 crore and ₹268 crore), based on the 3rd PAB meeting, and Bhadrak, Kandhamal, Mayurbhanj, Nabarangpur and Sambalpur get ₹10 crore each. All three are correct.
Which core industry recorded the highest growth in November 2024 as per the Index of Eight Core Industries released on 31 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Cement
PIB (Commerce): cement grew 13.0% in November 2024, the highest; coal grew 7.5%, steel 4.8% and electricity 3.8%.
Which two core industries contracted in November 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Crude oil and natural gas
PIB (Commerce): crude oil (−2.1%) and natural gas (−1.9%) contracted; fertilizers (2.0%), refinery products (2.9%) and coal (7.5%) grew.
Consider the following statements about the Index of Eight Core Industries data released on 31 December 2024: 1. Cumulative growth for April–November 2024-25 was 4.2%. 2. The final growth rate for August 2024 was revised to −1.5%. 3. Electricity has a higher weight in the index than refinery products. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Commerce): April–November growth was 4.2% and August 2024 was revised to −1.5%; refinery products (28.04%) outweigh electricity (19.85%), so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the Union Government accounts up to November 2024, total receipts stood at what share of the Budget Estimates 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 59.1%
PIB (Finance): total receipts of ₹18,94,408 crore were 59.1% of BE 2024-25; 56.9% is the expenditure share.
How much did the Centre transfer to State Governments as devolution of their share of taxes during April–November 2024?
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Correct answer: C — ₹8,12,063 crore
PIB (Finance): ₹8,12,063 crore was transferred as tax devolution; ₹6,58,494 crore was interest, ₹5,13,500 crore capital expenditure and ₹18,94,408 crore total receipts.
According to the Annual Ground Water Quality Report 2024, India's ground water is predominantly of which type?
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Correct answer: C — Calcium-bicarbonate type
PIB (Jal Shakti): the report finds ground water to be predominantly of the calcium-bicarbonate type.
Consider the following statements about the Annual Ground Water Quality Report 2024 of the CGWB: 1. It is the first such report prepared under a Standard Operating Procedure. 2. It covers more than 15,200 monitoring locations. 3. Over 81% of samples were found suitable for irrigation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Jal Shakti): the report is the first to adopt an SOP, covers over 15,200 monitoring locations, and finds over 81% of samples safe for irrigation. All three statements are correct.
How many 'Good to Moderate' air quality days (AQI below 200) did Delhi record in 2024, according to CAQM's review of 31 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 209
PIB (CAQM): Delhi recorded 209 Good to Moderate days in 2024; 157 is the number of Poor to Severe days.
Which two months of 2024 recorded Delhi's best average AQI for those months since 2018, as per CAQM?
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Correct answer: B — February and December
PIB (CAQM): February and December 2024 had the best average AQI for those months since 2018; January and May were the worst.
Consider the following statements about Delhi's air quality in 2024 as reviewed by CAQM: 1. Delhi's average AQI for 2024 was 209. 2. January 2024, with an average AQI of 355, was the worst January since 2018. 3. Delhi had more 'Poor to Severe' days than 'Good to Moderate' days. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (CAQM): the 2024 average AQI was 209 and January (355) was the worst January; Delhi had 157 Poor–Severe days against 209 Good–Moderate days, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many payloads were flown on the POEM-4 platform of the PSLV-C60/SpaDeX mission launched on 30 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 24
ISRO: POEM-4 carried 24 payloads, 14 from ISRO/DOS centres and 10 from non-government entities through IN-SPACe; POEM-3 had carried 8.
The Walking Robotic Arm (RRM-TD) on POEM-4, described by ISRO as India's first space robotic manipulator with walking capability, was developed by:
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Correct answer: C — ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU)
ISRO: the Relocatable Robotic Manipulator-Technology Demonstrator (Walking Robotic Arm) was developed by IISU; the debris capture robotic manipulator and CROPS are from VSSC.
Consider the following statements about the PSLV-C60 mission: 1. PSLV-C60 was the first vehicle integrated up to the PS4 stage at the PSLV Integration Facility before being moved for satellite assembly. 2. Ten of the POEM-4 payloads came from academia and start-ups through IN-SPACe. 3. The previous POEM-3 platform had hosted 12 payloads. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: PSLV-C60 was the first vehicle integrated up to PS4 at PIF, and 10 of the 24 payloads came from NGEs via IN-SPACe; POEM-3 hosted only eight payloads, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the RBI's Financial Stability Report released on 30 December 2024, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to a 12-year low of how much in September 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 2.6%
RBI FSR: the GNPA ratio of SCBs declined to a 12-year low of 2.6% in September 2024; 0.6% is the NNPA ratio and 3.0% the baseline stress-test projection for March 2026.
The RBI's Financial Stability Report reflects the collective assessment of which body on the resilience of the Indian financial system?
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Correct answer: B — Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council
RBI press release: the FSR reflects the collective assessment of the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC).
Consider the following statements about scheduled commercial banks as reported in the RBI's December 2024 Financial Stability Report (September 2024 data): 1. CRAR and CET1 ratios stood at 16.7% and 14.0% respectively. 2. The provisioning coverage ratio improved to 77.0%. 3. The net NPA ratio stood at around 1.6%. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
RBI FSR: CRAR and CET1 were 16.7% and 14.0% and the PCR improved to 77.0%; the NNPA ratio was around 0.6%, not 1.6%, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to India's fourth Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted to the UNFCCC on 30 December 2024, by how much did India's total GHG emissions in 2020 change compared with 2019?
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Correct answer: D — Decreased by 7.93%
PIB (MoEFCC): India's total GHG emissions in 2020 decreased by 7.93% with respect to 2019.
As per BUR-4, which sector was the second-largest contributor to India's GHG emissions in 2020, after energy?
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Correct answer: B — Agriculture
PIB (MoEFCC): energy contributed 75.66%, followed by agriculture (13.72%), IPPU (8.06%) and waste (2.56%); LULUCF acted as a net sink.
Consider the following statements regarding India's BUR-4: 1. It contains the national GHG inventory for the year 2020. 2. Between 2005 and 2020, India's emission intensity of GDP fell by 36%. 3. By October 2024, non-fossil sources made up more than half of India's installed electricity capacity. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoEFCC): BUR-4 contains the 2020 inventory and emission intensity of GDP fell by 36% (2005–2020); the non-fossil share of installed capacity was 46.52%, less than half, so statement 3 is wrong.
With which company did the Ministry of Defence sign a contract of about ₹1,990 crore on 30 December 2024 for construction of the Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) plug for the DRDO-AIP system?
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Correct answer: A — Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
PIB (Defence): the ~₹1,990 crore AIP plug contract was signed with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited, Mumbai.
The ₹877 crore contract signed with Naval Group, France, on 30 December 2024 is for integrating the Electronic Heavy Weight Torpedo on which class of Indian Navy submarines?
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Correct answer: D — Kalvari class
PIB (Defence): the Naval Group contract covers integration of the DRDO-developed EHWT on the Kalvari-class submarines.
Consider the following statements about the submarine contracts signed by the Ministry of Defence on 30 December 2024: 1. The two contracts together were worth about ₹2,867 crore. 2. The AIP technology is being indigenously developed by DRDO. 3. The torpedo integration contract was the larger of the two, at about ₹1,990 crore. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): the contracts total about ₹2,867 crore and the AIP technology is being developed by DRDO; the EHWT contract was about ₹877 crore while the AIP plug contract was about ₹1,990 crore, so statement 3 is wrong.
Who assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) on 30 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Justice V. Ramasubramanian
PIB (NHRC): Justice V. Ramasubramanian, former Supreme Court judge, assumed charge as Chairperson; Justice Sarangi joined as Member and Vijaya Bharathi Sayani had been Acting Chairperson.
Justice (Dr) Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi, who joined the NHRC as a Member on 30 December 2024, is a former Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Jharkhand High Court
PIB (NHRC): Justice (Dr) Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi is the former Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court.
Consider the following statements about the NHRC appointments that took effect in December 2024: 1. The new Chairperson and Members were appointed by the President on 21 December 2024. 2. Priyank Kanoongo, a former NCPCR Chairperson, joined the Commission as a Member. 3. Justice V. Ramasubramanian had served as Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court before his elevation to the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (NHRC): the appointments were made by President Droupadi Murmu on 21 December 2024; Priyank Kanoongo, former NCPCR Chairperson, joined as Member; and Justice Ramasubramanian was Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court in 2019 before becoming a Supreme Court judge. All three are correct.
India's first glass bridge over the sea, inaugurated in Kanniyakumari on 30 December 2024, connects which two landmarks?
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Correct answer: A — Thiruvalluvar Statue and Vivekananda Rock Memorial
The Hindu/Kanniyakumari district: the glass bridge connects the Thiruvalluvar Statue and the Vivekananda Rock Memorial.
What is the length of the glass bridge over the sea inaugurated in Kanniyakumari in December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 77 metres
The Hindu/Kanniyakumari district: the bridge is 77 metres long and 10 metres wide; ₹37 crore was its cost.
The Kanniyakumari glass bridge was inaugurated as part of the silver jubilee celebrations of:
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Correct answer: D — The Thiruvalluvar Statue's installation
The Hindu: the bridge was inaugurated as part of the silver jubilee celebrations of the installation of the Thiruvalluvar Statue.