UPTET / Super TET Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What real GDP growth rate for 2025-26 did the NSO's First Advance Estimates (January 2026) project?
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Correct answer: C — 7.4%
PIB (MoSPI): real GDP is estimated to grow by 7.4% in 2025-26 against 6.5% in 2024-25.
Which base year is used for the constant-price GDP figures in the First Advance Estimates for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 2011-12
PIB (MoSPI): the estimates are given at constant (2011-12) and current prices.
What is the estimated level of real GDP (constant prices) for 2025-26 in the First Advance Estimates?
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Correct answer: D — ₹201.90 lakh crore
PIB (MoSPI): real GDP is estimated at ₹201.90 lakh crore in 2025-26, against ₹187.97 lakh crore in 2024-25.
Consider the following statements based on the First Advance Estimates of GDP for 2025-26: 1. Nominal GDP is estimated to grow at 8.0%. 2. Real GVA is estimated to grow at 7.3%. 3. Agriculture and allied sector is estimated to grow faster than manufacturing and construction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): statements 1 and 2 are correct; agriculture is estimated at 3.1% against 7.0% for manufacturing and construction, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which two CSIR laboratories developed the bio-bitumen technology transferred in January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — CSIR-CRRI and CSIR-IIP
PIB (Science & Technology): the technology was developed by CSIR-Central Road Research Institute, New Delhi, and CSIR-Indian Institute of Petroleum, Dehradun.
Consider the following statements about the CSIR bio-bitumen technology (January 2026): 1. It uses pyrolysis of post-harvest rice straw to produce bio-oil. 2. India imports about 80% of its bitumen requirement. 3. Laboratory validation shows 20–30% of conventional bitumen can be replaced. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Science & Technology): statements 1 and 3 are correct; India imports nearly 50% of its bitumen, not 80%.
Which of the following is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA), India's partner in TEPA?
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Correct answer: D — Denmark
PIB (Commerce): EFTA comprises Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland; Denmark is not a member.
Who is the Prime Minister of Liechtenstein whom Piyush Goyal called on in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Brigitte Haas
PIB (Commerce): Goyal called on Prime Minister Brigitte Haas; Sabine Monauni is Deputy PM and Hereditary Prince Alois is the Hereditary Prince.
Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA TEPA, as described in January 2026: 1. It is India's first free trade agreement with a group of developed countries. 2. It carries an agreed ambition of USD 100 billion in investments into India. 3. It aims to support the creation of one million direct jobs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Commerce): all three are correct.
The draft Pesticides Management Bill, 2025 is intended to replace which law?
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Correct answer: B — Insecticides Act, 1968
PIB (Agriculture): the draft Bill will replace the Insecticides Act, 1968 and the Insecticides Rules, 1971.
By what date could stakeholders submit suggestions on the draft Pesticides Management Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 4 February 2026
PIB (Agriculture): stakeholders can submit suggestions by 4 February 2026.
Consider the following statements about the draft Pesticides Management Bill, 2025: 1. It provides for compounding of offences, with penalties to be defined by state-level authorities. 2. It seeks to decriminalise petty offences. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Agriculture): both are correct — the Bill aims to decriminalise petty offences and allows compounding with penalties defined by state-level authorities.
How many public health facilities were NQAS-certified as of 31 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 50,373
PIB (Health): a total of 50,373 public health facilities were certified under NQAS as of 31 December 2025.
Consider the following statements about the National Quality Assurance Standards (NQAS): 1. Certification began in 2015 with 10 facilities. 2. It initially focused on District Hospitals. 3. The framework was established by NITI Aayog. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Health): statements 1 and 2 are correct; NQAS was established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, not NITI Aayog.
Which of the following countries was NOT on the port-call list of the Indian Navy's First Training Squadron deployment announced in January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Vietnam
PIB (Defence): the squadron is scheduled to call at Singapore, Indonesia and Thailand.
Which Indian Coast Guard ship is part of the Navy's First Training Squadron on its January 2026 deployment?
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Correct answer: A — ICGS Sarathi
PIB (Defence): the squadron comprises INS Tir, Shardul, Sujata and ICGS Sarathi.
The MoU signed on 7 January 2026 between the Ministry of Rural Development and the Department of Posts links India Post's network with which mission?
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Correct answer: A — DAY-NRLM
PIB (Rural Development): the MoU brings together the network of DAY-NRLM with India Post's rural post offices, IPPB and Dak Sevaks.
In January 2026, online ticket booking for over 170 ASI-protected monuments and museums was made available on which network?
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Correct answer: B — Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
PIB (Ministry of Culture): ASI enabled online ticket booking for over 170 monuments and museums on ONDC.
Which entity technically enabled the onboarding of ASI's monuments and museums onto the ONDC network in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — NSDL Database Management Limited (NDML)
PIB (Ministry of Culture): the integration was technically enabled by NDML, which onboarded ASI's complete inventory onto ONDC.
Consider the following statements about online booking of ASI monument tickets through ONDC (January 2026): 1. Indian visitors get a ₹5 discount on online booking. 2. Foreign nationals get a ₹50 discount on online booking. 3. Tickets can be booked only through a single ASI-run app. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the ₹5 (Indians) and ₹50 (foreigners) discounts continue, and tickets can be booked through multiple ONDC apps such as Highway Delite, Pelocal and Abhee, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many projects are included in the three-year PPP project pipeline released by the Department of Economic Affairs in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 852
PIB (Ministry of Finance): the pipeline comprises 852 projects with a combined cost of over ₹17 lakh crore.
Consider the following statements about the PPP project pipeline released in January 2026: 1. It was prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs in pursuance of a Union Budget 2025-26 announcement. 2. It covers only projects of central infrastructure ministries and excludes States/UTs. 3. Its combined project cost exceeds ₹17 lakh crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 3 only
PIB: the DEA made the pipeline under a Budget 2025-26 announcement, and it includes both central ministries and States/UTs, worth over ₹17 lakh crore. Statement 2 is wrong.
The fifth edition of NITI Aayog's 'Trade Watch Quarterly', released in January 2026, had a thematic focus on which sector?
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Correct answer: D — Automotive exports
PIB (NITI Aayog): the thematic section of this edition focuses on India's automotive exports.
Which period does the fifth edition of NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly (released January 2026) cover?
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Correct answer: A — April–June 2025
PIB (NITI Aayog): the edition covers Quarter I of FY 2025-26, i.e. April–June 2025.
How many literary works in classical Indian languages did Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan release on 6 January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 55
PIB (Ministry of Education): he released 55 literary works — 41 books from CIIL's Centres of Excellence plus 13 books and a Tirukkural sign language series from CICT.
Which classical Tamil work was released in an Indian Sign Language series by the Central Institute of Classical Tamil in January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Tirukkural
PIB (Ministry of Education): CICT brought out a Tirukkural Sign Language series along with 13 books.
Consider the following statements regarding classical languages in India: 1. The Centres for Excellence for studies in Classical Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam and Odia function under the Central Institute of Indian Languages, Mysuru. 2. The Sahitya Akademi is the nodal agency for the Linguistic Experts Committee that examines classical language proposals. 3. Marathi and Bengali were among the languages granted classical status on 3 October 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Cabinet, 3 October 2024): the Centres of Excellence are under CIIL, Mysuru; Sahitya Akademi is the nodal agency for the LEC; and Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali were granted classical status. All three are correct.
What share of its 2025-26 Gross Budgetary Support had Indian Railways spent by the end of December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 80.54%
PIB (Railways): Indian Railways spent 80.54%, i.e. ₹2,03,138 crore of the total GBS of ₹2,52,200 crore.
As per Indian Railways' capex update of January 2026, what was the total Gross Budgetary Support for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,52,200 crore
PIB (Railways): the total GBS for 2025-26 is ₹2,52,200 crore, of which ₹2,03,138 crore was spent by December 2025.
With which organisation did ONGC sign an MoU in January 2026 for CSR-funded development of Eklavya Model Residential Schools?
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Correct answer: A — National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation
PIB (Tribal Affairs): ONGC signed the MoU with NSTFDC, an autonomous body of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Consider the following statements about the ONGC–NSTFDC MoU of January 2026 and the EMRS scheme: 1. ONGC sanctioned ₹28 crore of CSR funds under the MoU. 2. The support covers 144 Eklavya Model Residential Schools. 3. EMRS is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by state education departments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Tribal Affairs): ONGC sanctioned ₹28 crore for 144 EMRS. EMRS is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which city hosted the 72nd National Volleyball Tournament, inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 4 January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Varanasi
PIB (PMO): the PM inaugurated the 72nd National Volleyball Tournament in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, via video conferencing.
At the 72nd National Volleyball Tournament inauguration (January 2026), PM Modi said India is set to host which multi-sport event in 2030?
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Correct answer: B — Commonwealth Games
PIB (PMO): the PM said the 2030 Commonwealth Games are set to be held in India and efforts are on to host the 2036 Olympics.
What was the value of India's AYUSH and herbal product exports in 2024-25, as reported at AYUSHEXCIL's 4th anniversary in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — USD 688.89 million
PIB (Commerce): AYUSH and herbal exports grew 6.11% from USD 649.2 million in 2023-24 to USD 688.89 million in 2024-25.
AYUSHEXCIL has been entrusted with anchoring which programme of the Ministry of Ayush?
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Correct answer: A — Ayush Quality Mark
PIB (Commerce): AYUSHEXCIL has been entrusted with anchoring the Ayush Quality Mark programme of the Ministry of Ayush.
Consider the following statements regarding AYUSH in trade, as reported in January 2026: 1. AYUSH exports grew by 6.11% in 2024-25. 2. Traditional medicine has a dedicated annex in the India–Oman CEPA. 3. The India–New Zealand FTA also recognises AYUSH with a dedicated annex. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Commerce): exports grew 6.11%, and both the India–Oman CEPA and the India–New Zealand FTA have dedicated annexes on health services and traditional medicine. All three are correct.
The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme for semiconductor chip design is implemented by which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
PIB backgrounder: the DLI Scheme is implemented by MeitY under the Semicon India Programme.
As per PIB's January 2026 backgrounder, how many chip design projects are supported under the DLI Scheme?
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Correct answer: C — 24
PIB backgrounder: 24 DLI-supported chip design projects target strategic sectors; 16 tape-outs, 6 ASICs and 10 patents have been achieved.
Consider the following statements about the Design Linked Incentive Scheme as reported in January 2026: 1. It is part of the Semicon India Programme. 2. DLI-supported projects have achieved 16 tape-outs. 3. The scheme mainly funds the construction of semiconductor fabrication plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB backgrounder: DLI is under the Semicon India Programme and its projects have achieved 16 tape-outs. It supports fabless chip design, not fab construction, so statement 3 is wrong.
On DSIR's 42nd Foundation Day (January 2026), which condition was relaxed for deep-tech startups seeking DSIR recognition?
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Correct answer: B — Mandatory three-year existence
PIB (Science & Technology): Jitendra Singh announced relaxation of the mandatory three-year existence condition for deep-tech startups under DSIR's Industrial R&D Promotion Programme.
Which foundation day did the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR) celebrate on 4 January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 42nd
PIB (Science & Technology): the event marked the 42nd Foundation Day of DSIR.
Consider the following statements about announcements at DSIR's 42nd Foundation Day (January 2026): 1. 'Creative India 2025' was launched under DSIR's PRISM scheme. 2. Over 55 women-led self-help groups get support from DSIR schemes. 3. The relaxation of the existence norm applies to all startups regardless of sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB: Creative India 2025 was launched under PRISM and DSIR supports over 55 women-led SHGs. The relaxation is specifically for deep-tech startups, so statement 3 is wrong.
World Braille Day is observed every year on which date?
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Correct answer: D — 4 January
PIB backgrounder: World Braille Day is observed annually on 4 January.
In which year was Bharati Braille adopted as a single national Braille standard with common codes for Indian languages?
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Correct answer: C — 1951
PIB backgrounder: Braille was introduced in India in 1887, and in 1951 Bharati Braille was adopted as a single national standard.
Consider the following statements about Braille as described in PIB's World Braille Day 2026 backgrounder: 1. Braille is a tactile code, not a language. 2. It is named after its 19th-century French inventor, Louis Braille. 3. India's Braille policy ecosystem is anchored in the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB backgrounder: Braille is a code, not a language, named after Louis Braille of 19th-century France. The ecosystem is anchored in the RPwD Act, 2016, not a 1995 Act, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Good Samaritan Rules, which protect 'Rah-Veers' who help road accident victims, were notified in 2020 under which section of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019?
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Correct answer: A — Section 134A
PIB (MoRTH): the Good Samaritan Rules were notified in 2020 under Section 134A of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019.
In the context of road accidents, the 'Golden Hour' referred to in MoRTH's Rah-Veer explainer (January 2026) means:
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Correct answer: B — The first hour after a serious injury
PIB (MoRTH): the law defines the Golden Hour as the first hour after a serious injury, the most critical time for medical intervention.
Between which two places will India's first Vande Bharat Sleeper train run, as announced during its inspection in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Guwahati – Howrah
PIB (Railways): the first Vande Bharat Sleeper will operate between Guwahati in Assam and Howrah in West Bengal.
Which indigenous automatic train protection system is fitted on the first Vande Bharat Sleeper train inspected in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — KAVACH
PIB (Railways): the train is equipped with the KAVACH safety system, automatic doors, improved fire safety and CCTV in all coaches.
Consider the following statements about the first Vande Bharat Sleeper train, as described by the Railways Ministry on 3 January 2026: 1. Its full cycle of trials, testing and certification has been completed. 2. The train starting from Guwahati will serve Assamese cuisine. 3. It was flagged off by the Prime Minister on 3 January 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Railways): trials, testing and certification are complete, and the Guwahati-origin train will serve authentic Assamese cuisine. The PM was to flag it off later in January; on 3 January the train was only inspected, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many proposals were approved in the third tranche of the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) on 2 January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 22
PIB (MeitY): 22 proposals were approved in the third tranche; 24 had been approved earlier, taking the total to 46.
What is the projected investment of the 22 ECMS proposals approved in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹41,863 crore
PIB (MeitY): projected investment is ₹41,863 crore; ₹2,58,152 crore is projected production and ₹12,704 crore was the earlier tranche.
Consider the following statements about the third tranche of ECMS approvals (January 2026): 1. The approved products include anode material, a critical item for lithium-ion cells. 2. The approved units are spread across eight states. 3. The approvals cover only bare components and no sub-assemblies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MeitY): anode material is among the supply-chain items, and the units are in eight states. Three sub-assemblies (camera module, display module, optical transceiver) were also approved, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the NIRYAT PROTSAHAN intervention launched in January 2026, what is the base interest subvention on pre- and post-shipment rupee export credit?
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Correct answer: A — 2.75%
PIB (Commerce): a base interest subvention of 2.75% is provided, with additional incentive for exports to notified under-represented or emerging markets.
With which institution is the collateral guarantee support for MSME export credit under the Export Promotion Mission being introduced?
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Correct answer: A — CGTMSE
PIB (Commerce): the collateral guarantee support is being introduced in partnership with the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE).
Consider the following statements about the Export Promotion Mission: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 November 2025 with an outlay of ₹25,060 crore. 2. Its two sub-schemes are NIRYAT PROTSAHAN and NIRYAT DISHA. 3. It is implemented by the Department of Commerce alone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Commerce): the Mission was approved on 12 November 2025 with ₹25,060 crore and has two sub-schemes, NIRYAT PROTSAHAN and NIRYAT DISHA. It is jointly implemented by the Department of Commerce, Ministry of MSME and Ministry of Finance, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the Cabinet Secretary's briefing on 2 January 2026, which was the single biggest cause of issues raised under PRAGATI?
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Correct answer: D — Land acquisition
Indian Express and The Hindu: land acquisition accounted for 35% of issues, forest/wildlife/environment 20% and right of use/way 18%.
What does the acronym PRAGATI, the project-review mechanism chaired by the Prime Minister, stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation
PIB (Cabinet Secretariat): PRAGATI stands for Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation, chaired by the Prime Minister.
Consider the following statements based on the Cabinet Secretary's PRAGATI briefing of 2 January 2026: 1. PRAGATI has reviewed over 3,300 projects worth more than ₹85 lakh crore. 2. Of 7,735 issues raised, 7,156 have been resolved. 3. The government announced plans to amend the land acquisition law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Indian Express and The Hindu: over 3,300 projects worth ₹85 lakh crore reviewed; 7,156 of 7,735 issues resolved. The Cabinet Secretary said there was no plan to change the land acquisition law, so statement 3 is wrong.
Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026, released on 2 January 2026, is which edition of India's official book of drug standards?
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Correct answer: D — 10th
PIB (Health): IP 2026 is the 10th edition of India's official book of drug standards.
Which new category of monographs has been included for the first time in Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Blood component monographs for transfusion medicine
PIB (Health): IP 2026 includes, for the first time, 20 blood component monographs pertaining to transfusion medicine.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP): 1. IP is published by the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission to fulfil the requirements of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. 2. IP is recognised in 19 countries of the Global South. 3. India ranked 8th in 2025 in contributions to the WHO pharmacovigilance database, up from 123rd in 2009–2014. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Health): IP is published by the IPC under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940; it is recognised in 19 Global South countries; and India rose from 123rd (2009–2014) to 8th (2025). All three are correct.
From which date has NHAI discontinued the Know Your Vehicle (KYV) process for new car FASTags?
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Correct answer: C — 1 February 2026
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI discontinued KYV for cars for all new FASTag issuances with effect from 1 February 2026.
Under NHAI's revised FASTag norms announced in January 2026, vehicle details must be validated against which database before activation?
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Correct answer: B — VAHAN
PIB (MoRTH): FASTag activation is permitted only after validation of vehicle details from the VAHAN database.
Who has been designated Chairperson of the NPS Trust Board by PFRDA, as announced in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Dinesh Kumar Khara
PIB (Finance): Dinesh Kumar Khara, former Chairman of SBI, has been appointed a trustee and designated Chairperson of the NPS Trust Board.
Consider the following statements about the PFRDA reforms announced in January 2026: 1. Scheduled Commercial Banks may independently set up pension funds to manage NPS, under an in-principle framework. 2. The revised Investment Management Fee for pension funds applies from 1 April 2026. 3. Three new trustees were appointed to the NPS Trust Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Finance): the board approved in principle a framework for banks to set up pension funds; the revised IMF applies from 1 April 2026; and three new trustees were appointed. All three are correct.
The #SkillTheNation Challenge launched by President Droupadi Murmu on 1 January 2026 is part of which initiative?
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Correct answer: A — SOAR (Skilling for AI Readiness)
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President launched the #SkilltheNation challenge under the SOAR (Skilling for AI Readiness) initiative of MSDE.
Where is the IGNOU Regional Centre and Skill Centre that President Murmu inaugurated virtually on 1 January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Rairangpur, Odisha
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President virtually inaugurated the IGNOU Regional Centre and Skill Centre at Rairangpur, Odisha.
Consider the following statements about the SOAR initiative: 1. It is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. 2. It was launched in July 2025. 3. Its courses are offered on the Skill India Digital Hub. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MSDE): SOAR – Skilling for AI Readiness is MSDE's flagship programme launched in July 2025, and the President urged citizens to enrol in the SOAR course on the Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH). All three are correct.
According to DRDO on its 68th Foundation Day, what was the approximate value of Acceptances of Necessity accorded in 2025 for DRDO-developed systems?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1.30 lakh crore
PIB (MoD): 22 AoNs worth approximately ₹1.30 lakh crore were accorded in 2025, the highest in any single year; ₹26,000 crore was the value of 11 contracts signed.
'Anant Shastra', mentioned by DRDO in January 2026 among systems accorded AoN, is the name of which system?
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Correct answer: A — Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missile System
PIB (MoD): the AoNs include the Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missile System 'Anant Shastra'.
Who is the Chairman of DRDO and Secretary, Department of Defence R&D, who addressed DRDO staff on its 68th Foundation Day?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Samir V. Kamat
PIB (MoD): Secretary, Department of Defence R&D and Chairman DRDO Dr Samir V. Kamat addressed DRDO staff.
Who took charge as Vice Chief of the Air Staff, Indian Air Force, on 1 January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor
PIB (MoD): Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor took charge as Vice Chief of the Air Staff on 1 January 2026.
Which IAF command did Air Marshal Seethepalli Shrinivas take over as AOC-in-C on 1 January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Training Command
PIB (MoD): Air Marshal Seethepalli Shrinivas took over as AOC-in-C, Training Command; Air Marshal Tejinder Singh took over South Western Air Command.
Consider the following statements about Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor, who became Vice Chief of the Air Staff in January 2026: 1. He served as Defence Attaché to Pakistan. 2. Immediately before this, he was AOC-in-C, South Western Air Command. 3. He was commissioned in the transport stream of the IAF. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoD): Kapoor was Defence Attaché to Pakistan and served as AOC-in-C Training Command and thereafter South Western Air Command before becoming VCAS. He was commissioned in the fighter stream, so statement 3 is wrong.
India's broadband subscriber base crossed which milestone in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 billion
PIB (Communications): the broadband subscriber base crossed the 1 billion (100 crore) mark in November 2025, reaching 100.37 crore.
By how much has India's broadband subscriber base grown between November 2015 and November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — More than six times
PIB (Communications): the base grew from 13.15 crore in November 2015 to 100.37 crore in November 2025 — more than six times.