UKPSC Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which Indian institute under the Department of Science & Technology played a crucial part in the first imaging of two orbiting black holes in OJ287 (reported October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences, Nainital
PIB: ARIES, Nainital, an autonomous institute of DST, played a crucial part; its scientists Alok C. Gupta and Shubham Kishore were among the authors.
Consider the following statements about the OJ287 black hole observation: 1. The image was obtained using the RadioAstron space telescope together with ground-based observatories. 2. The larger of the two black holes was seen launching a twisting jet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the team used the RadioAstron space telescope with ground-based observatories; it was the smaller black hole that was seen launching a jet that twists like a 'wagging tail'.
What combined initial funding have India and the UK committed to the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre?
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Correct answer: A — £24 million over four years
PIB: India and the UK have committed a combined initial £24 million over four years to the initiative.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre: 1. Its three focus areas are AI in telecom, quantum communication and semiconductor design. 2. It is delivered jointly by UKRI and India's Department of Telecommunications under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the three focus areas are transforming telecom with AI, non-terrestrial networks and telecom cybersecurity (not quantum or semiconductors); the Centre is delivered by UKRI and DoT under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative.
Which Australian naval facility in Sydney did Rajnath Singh visit on 10 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — HMAS Kuttabul
PIB: Rajnath Singh visited the historic and strategic naval facility HMAS Kuttabul in Sydney on 10 October 2025.
In which year was the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership established, as recalled by Rajnath Singh in Sydney?
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Correct answer: C — 2020
PIB: Rajnath Singh spoke of the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership 2020 as the banner for re-positioning defence relations.
Consider the following statements from Rajnath Singh's address at the India–Australia Defence Industry Business Round Table (October 2025): 1. Australia has identified India as a 'Top Tier Partner', removing certain regulatory barriers to technology sharing. 2. India allows FDI in defence up to 49% under the automatic route. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Rajnath Singh said Australia has identified India as a Top Tier Partner; he said the FDI policy has been liberalised up to 74% (not 49%) under the automatic route.
According to NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy' (October 2025), India's tech services sector could create up to how many new jobs in the next five years?
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Correct answer: D — 4 million
PIB: the roadmap says India's tech services sector has the opportunity to create up to 4 million new jobs in the next five years.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy': 1. It was developed by NITI Aayog's Frontier Tech Hub in collaboration with NASSCOM and BCG. 2. It recommends launching a National AI Talent Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the roadmap was developed by NITI's Frontier Tech Hub with NASSCOM and BCG, and recommends a National AI Talent Mission working with the IndiaAI Mission.
Who was designated Mental Health Ambassador by the Union Health Ministry on World Mental Health Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Deepika Padukone
PIB: J P Nadda said Deepika Padukone has been designated as the Mental Health Ambassador for raising awareness about access to mental health services.
After the October 2025 upgrade, the Tele MANAS app is available in how many regional languages in addition to English and Hindi?
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Correct answer: B — 10
PIB: the Tele MANAS app will now be available in 10 regional languages in addition to English and Hindi.
The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) signed an MoU in October 2025 with which entity to support the Bharat Taxi ride-hailing platform?
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Correct answer: B — Sahakar Taxi Cooperative Limited
PIB: NeGD and Sahakar Taxi Cooperative Limited formalised their collaboration through an MoU for advisory and technical support to Bharat Taxi, to be launched in December 2025.
Where was the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference, attended by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla in October 2025, held?
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Correct answer: A — Bridgetown, Barbados
PIB: the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference was held in Bridgetown, Barbados, where Om Birla led the Indian Parliamentary Delegation.
In which year did the Government of India gift the Speaker's chair in the Barbados Parliament, to mark Barbados' independence?
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Correct answer: D — 1966
PIB: the historic Speaker's chair was a gift from the Government of India in 1966 to mark Barbados' independence.
In which South African city was the G20 Trade & Investment Ministers' Meeting held in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Gqeberha
PIB: MoS Jitin Prasada participated in Day-1 proceedings of the G20 Trade & Investment Ministers' Meeting (TIMM) in Gqeberha.
Consider the following statements: 1. At the G20 TIMM in October 2025, India called for restoring a fully functional two-tier WTO dispute settlement system with an operational Appellate Body. 2. The G20 comprises 20 countries and the European Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Jitin Prasada called for a fully functional two-tier dispute settlement system with an operational appellate body; the G20 comprises 19 countries, the European Union and the African Union.
During UK PM Keir Starmer's October 2025 visit, which UK university received in-principle approval to open a campus in GIFT City?
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Correct answer: B — University of Surrey
PIB (list of outcomes): in-principle approval was given for opening a campus of the University of Surrey in GIFT City; Lancaster University received an LoI for Bengaluru.
India and the UK agreed in October 2025 to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of which missile system?
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Correct answer: D — Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM)
PIB (joint statement): both leaders announced agreement to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM) systems to support India's air defence.
Consider the following statements about UK PM Keir Starmer's visit to India (October 2025): 1. Phase II of the UK-India Critical Minerals Supply Chain Observatory includes a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad. 2. It was Starmer's second official visit to India as Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Phase II of the Observatory will establish a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad; the joint statement says this was Prime Minister Starmer's first official visit to India.
Under the October 2025 amendments to the PLI scheme for textiles, the minimum investment for new applicants in the Part-1 category was reduced to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹150 crore
PIB: with effect from 1 August 2025, the minimum investment for new applicants was reduced from ₹300 crore to ₹150 crore in Part-1 and from ₹100 crore to ₹50 crore in Part-2.
Consider the following statements about the amended PLI scheme for textiles: 1. The incremental turnover required to qualify for incentives has been reduced from 25% to 10%. 2. The application portal has been opened until 31 March 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: from FY 2025–26 applicants need a minimum 10% incremental turnover (down from 25%); the application portal is open until 31 December 2025, not 31 March 2026.
Which India–Australia implementing arrangement was signed at the inaugural Defence Ministers' Dialogue in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation
PIB (joint statement): ministers welcomed the signing of the Australia–India Implementing Arrangement on Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation; the air-to-air refuelling arrangement had been signed in 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue (October 2025): 1. It was the inaugural edition, and the ministers agreed to hold it annually. 2. Australia's first defence trade mission to India took place from 7 to 10 October 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the October 2025 meeting was the inaugural Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue, with a commitment to an annual dialogue; ministers welcomed Australia's first defence trade mission to India from 7 to 10 October 2025.
What is the duration of the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 launched in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 60 days
PIB: the 60-day Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 prioritises six enhanced key strategies.
Consider the following statements about the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign: 1. The first campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day. 2. At the launch of TFYC 3.0, the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at AIIMS, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the inaugural campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day; the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at NIMHANS, Bengaluru, not AIIMS.
In October 2025 the combined assets under management of NPS and Atal Pension Yojana crossed which mark?
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Correct answer: C — ₹16 lakh crore
PIB: the combined AUM of NPS and APY crossed the ₹16 lakh crore mark on 9 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about the pension sector (October 2025): 1. The combined subscriber base of NPS and APY has surpassed 9 crore. 2. PFRDA's Multiple Scheme Framework became effective from 1 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the subscriber base has surpassed 9 crore; the Multiple Scheme Framework is effective from 1 October 2025, not 1 April 2025.
How many critical and strategic mineral blocks are offered in Tranche VI of the auction launched in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 23
PIB: Tranche VI, launched on 16 September 2025, includes 23 critical and strategic mineral blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.
Consider the following statements about Tranche VI of the critical mineral block auction: 1. It comprises 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases. 2. It was launched by the Ministry of Mines on 16 September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Tranche VI was launched on 16 September 2025 and includes 23 blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.
How many medicinal substances will the CCRAS DRAVYA portal catalogue in its first phase?
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Correct answer: C — 100
PIB: in its first phase, the DRAVYA portal aims to catalogue information on 100 key medicinal substances.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' proposes which national mission for informal workers?
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Correct answer: D — Mission Digital ShramSetu
PIB: NITI Aayog called for Mission Digital ShramSetu, a proposed national mission to make AI accessible, affordable and impactful for every worker.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' (October 2025): 1. It focuses on India's 490 million informal workers. 2. It warns that on the current trajectory, informal workers' average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, against a $14,500 target. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the study explores how AI can transform the lives of India's 490 million informal workers and warns that at the current trajectory their average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, far below the $14,500 target.
At the first meeting of the upgraded India–Qatar Joint Commission (October 2025), the two sides set a goal of doubling bilateral trade by:
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Correct answer: B — 2030
PIB: the sides set a shared goal of doubling bilateral trade by 2030.
Consider the following statements about Piyush Goyal's October 2025 visit to Qatar: 1. The upgraded Joint Commission replaced the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce. 2. India–Qatar bilateral trade in 2024–25 was over USD 24 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: it was the first meeting of the upgraded Joint Commission, elevated from the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce; trade was valued at over USD 14 billion in 2024–25.
The draft Shram Shakti Niti 2025 is described as rooted in which civilisational ethos?
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Correct answer: B — Śrama dharma
PIB: the policy is rooted in India's civilisational ethos of śrama dharma — the dignity and moral value of work.
Under the draft National Labour & Employment Policy – Shram Shakti Niti 2025, which platform is to serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment?
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Correct answer: D — National Career Service (NCS)
PIB: the National Career Service (NCS) platform will serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment, enabling job matching, credential verification and skill alignment.
Which country received the ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security immediately before India (in 2022)?
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Correct answer: D — Iceland
PIB: previous recipients include Brazil (2013), China (2016), Rwanda (2019) and Iceland (2022).
Consider the following statements: 1. According to the ILO, India's social protection coverage rose from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025. 2. The ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security is presented every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: coverage expanded from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025, as highlighted by the ILO; the ISSA Award is presented once every three years at the World Social Security Forum.
India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly has been raised to which number, the maximum permissible for any member country?
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Correct answer: C — 30
PIB: Dr Mandaviya stressed the rise in India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly to 30, the maximum permissible limit for any member country.
After the vesting orders issued on 8 October 2025, how many coal blocks had been vested or allocated under commercial coal auctions in total?
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Correct answer: C — 125
PIB (Ministry of Coal): with these vesting orders, a total of 125 coal blocks have been vested or allocated under commercial coal auctions.
Consider the following statements about the five coal blocks for which vesting orders were issued on 8 October 2025: 1. All five blocks are fully explored. 2. Their Coal Mine Development and Production Agreements were signed on 21 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: four of the blocks are partially explored and one is fully explored; the CMDPAs were signed on August 21, 2025.
As of September 2025, public sector banks had sanctioned loans under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana amounting to about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,907 crore
PIB: as of September 2025, PSBs had sanctioned over 5.79 lakh loan applications amounting to ₹10,907 crore.
Consider the following statements about the model loan scheme under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: 1. It offers collateral-free loans of up to ₹2 lakh. 2. It provides a 12-month moratorium from disbursement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the model loan scheme offers loans up to ₹2 lakh without collateral and a 6-month moratorium period from disbursement.
During PM Modi's July 2025 State visit to Brazil, India and Brazil set a target of raising bilateral trade within five years to:
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Correct answer: B — USD 20 billion
PIB: the leaders set a target to increase bilateral trade to USD 20 billion over the next five years.
Consider the following statements: 1. Brazil is India's largest trading partner in the Latin American and Caribbean region. 2. India–Brazil bilateral merchandise trade in FY 2024-25 was about USD 20 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Brazil is the largest trading partner of India in the LAC region; bilateral merchandise trade in FY 2024-25 stood at USD 12.19 billion (USD 20 billion is the five-year target).
What was the theme of the World Cotton Day 2025 event organised by the Ministry of Textiles and CITI in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: D — Cotton 2040: Technology, Climate & Competitiveness
PIB: the event, jointly organised by the Ministry of Textiles and CITI, focused on the theme 'Cotton 2040: Technology, Climate & Competitiveness'.
Consider the following statements made at World Cotton Day 2025 (New Delhi): 1. India accounts for 40% of the world's cotton area. 2. India's cotton sector supports six million farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Giriraj Singh said India accounts for 40% of the world's cotton area (productivity ~450 kg/ha); Secretary Neelam Shami Rao said the sector supports six million farmers and over 45 million jobs.
Which section of the IT Act, 2000 empowers the Government, in its executive capacity, to block online content that threatens national security, public order or friendly relations with foreign States?
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Correct answer: C — Section 69A
PIB: MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan explained that Section 69A empowers the Government, in its executive capacity, to block online content in such cases; Section 79(3)(b) deals with notices to intermediaries.
Consider the following statements: 1. Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, read with Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021, empowers ministries, departments and States/UTs to send notices to intermediaries. 2. Under Section 79, final adjudication of an intermediary's liability rests with the executive. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Section 79(3)(b) read with Rule 3(1)(d) empowers ministries, departments and States/UTs to send notices to intermediaries; Section 79 places intermediaries on notice, while final adjudication rests with the judiciary.
What symbol sits at the centre of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 logo?
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Correct answer: B — Ashoka Chakra
PIB: at the centre of the winning design is the Ashoka Chakra, symbolising ethical governance, justice and constitutional values.
Consider the following statements about the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 logo: 1. It was selected through a Logo Design Contest on MyGov that received 599 entries. 2. The Summit is scheduled for 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: MyGov received 599 entries in the contest held from 28 May to 12 June 2025; the Summit is set for 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Who designed the winning logo of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Ajith P. Suresh
PIB: MyGov received 599 entries, and the winning design was submitted by Shri Ajith P. Suresh.
What was the theme of Wildlife Week 2025 celebrations held at Dehradun on 6 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Human-Wildlife Coexistence
PIB: this year's theme was 'Human-Wildlife Coexistence', aimed at moving from 'conflict to coexistence'.
At Wildlife Week 2025, a Centre of Excellence for Human–Wildlife Conflict Management (CoE-HWC) was launched at which institution?
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Correct answer: B — SACON
PIB: the projects launched included the Centre of Excellence for Human–Wildlife Conflict Management (CoE-HWC) at SACON, a dedicated national centre for policy, research and field mitigation.
The fourth edition of NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly (Q4 FY25) carries a special focus on which sector?
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Correct answer: C — Leather and footwear
PIB: this edition examines the leather and footwear sector, highlighting its employment potential and export opportunities.
According to NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly (October 2025), India's share in the $296 billion global leather and footwear market is about:
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Correct answer: D — 1.8%
PIB: India's overall share in the $296 billion global market is modest at 1.8%; the sector employs 4.4 million people.
The Competition Commission of India's 'Market Study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition' (October 2025) was conducted through which institution?
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Correct answer: D — Management Development Institute Society (MDIS)
PIB: CCI released its report Market Study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition, conducted through the Management Development Institute Society (MDIS).
What is the motto of the National Service Scheme (NSS)?
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Correct answer: B — Not Me, But You
PIB: inspired by the ideals of Mahatma Gandhi, the motto of NSS is 'NOT ME, BUT YOU' ('स्वयं से पहले आप').
Consider the following statements: 1. The National Service Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 1969. 2. The MY Bharat–NSS Awards for 2022-23 were given to 30 NSS volunteers, besides ten units and their Programme Officers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: NSS is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 1969; awards for 2022-23 went to ten NSS units, their ten Programme Officers and 30 NSS volunteers.
In which year did India achieve leprosy elimination status at the national level (prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population)?
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Correct answer: B — 2005
PIB (MoHFW explainer): India achieved elimination status in March 2005 at the national level, meaning a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population, and has sustained it.
Nikusth 2.0, the revamped web portal for leprosy data and monitoring, was launched on which occasion?
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Correct answer: D — National Anti-Leprosy Day, 30 January 2023
PIB: Nikusth 2.0, a revamped web-based ICT portal for recording, reporting and monitoring leprosy activities, was launched on 30 January 2023 (National Anti-Leprosy Day) by the Union Health Minister.
Consider the following statements about leprosy in India: 1. As of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population. 2. The new case detection rate rose from 7.0 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 9.73 per 100,000 in 2024–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: as of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had achieved a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000. The new case detection rate fell (not rose) from 9.73 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 7.0 in 2024–25.