TGPSC (Telangana) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under TRAI's Telecommunication Tariff (71st Amendment) Order, 2025, retail FTTH broadband plans up to 200 Mbps must be offered to PM-WANI Public Data Offices at tariffs not exceeding:
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Correct answer: A — Twice the corresponding consumer broadband price
PIB (DoT): The order mandates FTTH plans up to 200 Mbps be offered to PDOs at tariffs not exceeding twice the corresponding consumer broadband price.
TRAI's tariff order of 16 June 2025 on broadband for Public Data Offices relates to which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — PM-WANI
PIB (DoT): The order concerns broadband connectivity to Public Data Offices (PDOs) under the PM-WANI scheme.
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India was established with effect from which date?
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Correct answer: B — 20 February 1997
TRAI (trai.gov.in): TRAI was established with effect from 20 February 1997 (20th February 1997) by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
India's total exports (merchandise and services) during April–May 2025 were estimated at:
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Correct answer: B — US$ 142.43 billion
PIB (Commerce): The cumulative exports (merchandise & services) during April-May 2025 are estimated at US$ 142.43 billion.
What was the value of India's merchandise exports in May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — US$ 38.73 billion
PIB (Commerce): Merchandise exports during May 2025 were US$ 38.73 billion as compared to US$ 39.59 billion in May 2024.
Consider the following statements about India's trade data released on 16 June 2025: 1. Total exports (merchandise and services) in May 2025 grew 2.77% over May 2024. 2. The merchandise trade deficit in April–May 2025 was lower than in April–May 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Commerce): Total exports grew 2.77% in May 2025, but the merchandise trade deficit widened to US$ 48.33 billion from US$ 41.27 billion. So the answer is 1 only.
According to the PLFS monthly bulletin released on 16 June 2025, what was the unemployment rate (CWS, age 15+) in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 5.6%
PIB (MoSPI): The Unemployment Rate in CWS among persons of age 15 years and above increased to 5.6% in May 2025 from 5.1% in April 2025.
What was the Labour Force Participation Rate (CWS, age 15+) in May 2025 as per the PLFS monthly bulletin?
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Correct answer: A — 54.8%
PIB (MoSPI): LFPR in CWS among persons of age 15 years and above was 54.8% during May 2025 as compared to 55.6% during April 2025.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS monthly bulletin for May 2025: 1. The female unemployment rate was higher than the male unemployment rate. 2. The overall Worker Population Ratio was 51.7%. 3. In rural areas, the share of employment in agriculture declined from April to May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MoSPI): Female UR was 5.8% against 5.6% for males, WPR was 51.7%, and rural agriculture's share fell from 45.9% to 43.5%. All are correct, so the answer is 1, 2 and 3.
In which Cyprus city did PM Modi and President Nikos Christodoulides hold a roundtable with business leaders on 15 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Limassol
PIB (PMO): the roundtable interaction with business leaders from Cyprus and India was held in Limassol.
During PM Modi's Cyprus visit in June 2025, the Cyprus Stock Exchange signed an MoU with which Indian entity?
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Correct answer: C — NSE International Exchange, GIFT City
PIB (PMO): the two leaders welcomed the MoU between NSE International Exchange, GIFT City, Gujarat and the Cyprus Stock Exchange.
Consider the following statements about the India–Cyprus business roundtable of 15 June 2025: 1. NIPL and Eurobank Cyprus reached an understanding on introducing UPI for cross-border payments. 2. An India–Greece–Cyprus Business and Investment Council was launched. 3. The visit was the first ever by an Indian Prime Minister to Cyprus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: MEA called it the first visit of an Indian PM to Cyprus in over two decades, not the first ever. So the answer is 1 and 2 only.
Under the research reforms announced on 15 June 2025, the ceiling for direct purchases under GFR was raised to what amount?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2 lakh
PIB (S&T): the ceiling for direct purchases has been doubled from ₹1 lakh to ₹2 lakh.
Under the 15 June 2025 reforms, heads of research institutions can approve Global Tender Enquiries up to what value?
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Correct answer: C — ₹200 crore
PIB (S&T): heads of institutions can now approve Global Tender Enquiries (GTEs) up to ₹200 crore.
Consider the following statements about the 'Ease of Research' reforms of 15 June 2025: 1. Directors of scientific organisations and Vice Chancellors may make non-GeM purchases of specialised research equipment. 2. The limits for limited tender enquiries and advertised tenders were raised from ₹50 lakh to ₹1 crore. 3. The consultations behind the reforms were led by the NITI Aayog. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (S&T): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the consultations were led by the Principal Scientific Adviser's office, drawing on 13 IITs. So the answer is 1 and 2 only.
Consider the following statements about the MEA statement of 15 June 2025 on Indian nationals in Iran: 1. In some cases, Indian students were being relocated with the Embassy's facilitation to safer places within Iran. 2. The Indian Embassy in Tehran asked Indian nationals in Iran to join a Telegram link for updates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
MEA statement as reported by The Times of India and The News Minute: students were being relocated to safer places within Iran with the Embassy's help, and the Embassy shared a Telegram link for Indian nationals in Iran. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the MEA on 15 June 2025, which Indian mission was engaging Indian students in Iran to ensure their safety?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Embassy in Tehran
MEA (via The Times of India and The News Minute): the Indian Embassy in Tehran was continuously monitoring the security situation and engaging Indian students in Iran.
On 14 June 2025, India said it did not participate in the discussions on a statement on Israel–Iran developments issued by which grouping?
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Correct answer: B — Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
MEA: the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation issued a statement on developments between Israel and Iran on 14 June 2025, and India did not participate in the discussions on it.
Consider the following statements regarding India's position on the Israel–Iran situation in June 2025: 1. India's position had been articulated on 13 June 2025, urging the use of dialogue and diplomacy for de-escalation. 2. India communicated its overall position to other SCO members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
MEA (Lok Sabha reply, 25 July 2025): India's position was articulated on 13 June 2025 urging dialogue and diplomacy, and this overall position was communicated to other SCO members. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
With which Iranian Foreign Minister did External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar speak on 13 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Seyed Abbas Araghchi
The Indian Express and The Economic Times: Jaishankar spoke with Iranian FM Seyed Abbas Araghchi, conveying deep concern and urging an early return to diplomacy; MEA confirms the call took place on 13 June 2025.
Who was the Reviewing Officer of the Combined Graduation Parade at the Air Force Academy on 14 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — A P Singh
PIB (Defence): Air Chief Marshal A P Singh, Chief of the Air Staff, was the Reviewing Officer of the parade.
The Air Force Academy, where the Combined Graduation Parade was held on 14 June 2025, is located at which place?
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Correct answer: D — Dundigal, Hyderabad
PIB (Defence): the Combined Graduation Parade was held at the Air Force Academy (AFA), Dundigal, Hyderabad.
Who received the Chief of the Air Staff Sword of Honour at the AFA Combined Graduation Parade on 14 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Rohan Krishnamurti
PIB (Defence): Flying Officer Rohan Krishnamurti received the President's Plaque and the CAS Sword of Honour for standing first in the Pilots' course. Nishtha Vaid received the President's Plaque for the ground duty branches.
Which country hosts the multinational peacekeeping exercise Khaan Quest, whose 2025 edition opened on 14 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mongolia
PIB and The Economic Times: Exercise Khaan Quest 2025 is hosted by Mongolia at Ulaanbaatar from 14 to 28 June 2025.
The Indian Army contingent at Khaan Quest 2025 was drawn mainly from a battalion of which regiment?
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Correct answer: A — Kumaon Regiment
The Economic Times (Indian Army statement): the 40-member contingent is primarily from a battalion of the Kumaon Regiment. Arunachal Scouts formed the contingent for Nomadic Elephant, per PIB.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Khaan Quest: 1. It began in 2003 as a bilateral exercise between the US Marine Corps and the Mongolian Armed Forces. 2. The 2025 edition was its 22nd iteration. 3. The 2025 edition opened at the Five Hills Training Area near Ulaanbaatar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
U.S. Embassy in Mongolia: Khaan Quest first started in 2003 as a bilateral exercise between the US Marine Corps and the Mongolian Armed Forces. U.S. Army (army.mil): the 2025 edition was the 22nd iteration and opened at the Five Hills Training Area near Ulaanbaatar. So 1, 2 and 3 are all correct.
Which organisation invited 20 Indian school students to Japan under the Sakura Science Programme 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Japan Science and Technology Agency
PIB (Education): the Japan Science and Technology Agency (JST) invited 20 school students and 2 supervisors from India for 15–21 June 2025.
Who called Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 13 June 2025 to brief him on the evolving situation in West Asia?
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Correct answer: B — Benjamin Netanyahu
PIB (PMO): Prime Minister Modi spoke with Israeli PM Benjamin Netanyahu, who briefed him on recent developments; Modi shared India's concerns.
Consider the following statements about the MEA statement of 13 June 2025 on Iran and Israel: 1. India said it was closely monitoring the situation, including reports related to attacks on nuclear sites. 2. Indian nationals in the region were advised to exercise caution and follow local security advisories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
MEA statement (reported by ThePrint/PTI and Business Standard): India was monitoring the situation including reports of attacks on nuclear sites, and advised Indian nationals to exercise caution and follow local security advisories. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
With which two foreign ministers did External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar speak on 13 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Abbas Araghchi and Gideon Sa'ar
The Hindu and The Indian Express: on 13 June 2025 Jaishankar spoke with Abbas Araghchi and Gideon Sa'ar, the Iranian and Israeli foreign ministers; MEA confirms the call with his Iranian counterpart that day.
Consider the following statements about India's response on 13 June 2025 to the Israel–Iran escalation: 1. India said it enjoys close and friendly relations with both countries and stands ready to extend all possible support. 2. India called on the UN Security Council to hold an emergency session. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
MEA statement (ThePrint/PTI, Business Standard): India said it enjoys close and friendly relations with both countries and stands ready to extend all possible support, so 1 is correct. The statement urged dialogue and diplomacy and made no call for a UNSC session, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
As per DARPG's CPGRAMS report for May 2025, what was the average grievance disposal time in Central Ministries and Departments?
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Correct answer: C — 16 days
PIB (DARPG): the average grievance disposal time in Central Ministries/Departments from 1 to 31 May 2025 was 16 days.
What was India's all-India year-on-year CPI (retail) inflation for May 2025, released on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2.82%
PIB (MoSPI): all-India year-on-year inflation based on CPI for May 2025 was 2.82%, the lowest since February 2019.
Consider the following statements about the CPI data for May 2025 released on 12 June 2025: 1. All-India food inflation based on the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) was 0.99%. 2. This food inflation was the lowest since October 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoSPI): CFPI-based all-India food inflation for May 2025 was 0.99%, the lowest year-on-year food inflation since October 2021. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Which of the following correctly gives rural and urban CPI inflation for May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rural 2.59%, Urban 3.07%
PIB (MoSPI): for May 2025, rural inflation was 2.59% and urban inflation 3.07%, so the answer is Rural 2.59%, Urban 3.07%.
The Consumer Price Index numbers (Rural, Urban and Combined) released by MoSPI for May 2025 are compiled on which base year?
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Correct answer: D — 2012=100
PIB (MoSPI) (static): the release is titled 'Consumer Price Index Numbers on Base 2012=100 for Rural, Urban and Combined', so the base is 2012=100.
Which organisation chaired the 137th meeting of the Offshore Security Coordination Committee (OSCC) in New Delhi on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Coast Guard
PIB (Defence): the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) chaired the 137th OSCC meeting in New Delhi on 12 June 2025.
Who, as Director General of the Indian Coast Guard, addressed the 137th OSCC meeting on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Paramesh Sivamani
PIB (Defence): Director General ICG Paramesh Sivamani addressed the committee and underlined the importance of energy security.
In which year was the Offshore Security Coordination Committee (OSCC) constituted to ensure effective functioning of offshore security arrangements?
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Correct answer: D — 1978
PIB (Defence) (static): the OSCC was constituted in 1978 to ensure the effective functioning of offshore security arrangements.
Which organisation is implementing the DGT–Shell India Green Skills and EV training programme launched on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Edunet Foundation
PIB (MSDE): the initiative is implemented by Edunet Foundation, the training partner of Shell.
Consider the following statements about the first phase of the DGT–Shell India EV training programme: 1. A 240-hour advanced EV Technician course will run at 4 NSTIs. 2. A 90-hour job-oriented EV skills course will run at 12 ITIs with Shell-supported labs. 3. The 50-hour foundational green skills module is limited to ITIs that have physical labs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MSDE): 240-hour course at 4 NSTIs and 90-hour course at 12 ITIs with Shell-supported labs are correct. The 50-hour module is for additional ITIs without physical labs, so 3 is wrong. So the answer is 1 and 2 only.
The DGT–Shell India EV training programme launched on 12 June 2025 covers ITIs and NSTIs in Delhi-NCR, Maharashtra and three other states. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
PIB (MSDE): the programme covers Delhi-NCR, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Kerala is not among them.
What was the theme of the World Day Against Child Labour on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Progress is clear, but there's more to do: let's speed up efforts!
ILO and UN: the 2025 theme was 'Progress is clear, but there's more to do: let's speed up efforts!'.
On 12 June 2025, NHAI restricted consultancy firms to a maximum of how many National Highway projects per designated 'Engineer'?
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Correct answer: C — 10
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI restricted the maximum number to 10 projects per 'Engineer' for consultancy firms supervising construction or maintenance of National Highway projects.
The Technology Development Board's support to Clearsynth Labs, announced on 12 June 2025, is for a facility to manufacture what?
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Correct answer: B — Deuterated reagents and building blocks
PIB (DST): TDB extended financial support to Clearsynth Labs for commercial-scale production of deuterated reagents and building blocks.
According to the ILO–UNICEF report released on 11 June 2025, about how many children were in child labour in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 138 million
ILO and UNICEF: nearly 138 million children were engaged in child labour in 2024, including around 54 million in hazardous work.
According to the ILO–UNICEF report of 11 June 2025, which sector accounts for the largest share of child labour?
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Correct answer: D — Agriculture
ILO: agriculture remains the largest sector for child labour, accounting for 61 per cent of all cases, followed by services (27 per cent) and industry (13 per cent).
Consider the following statements about the ILO–UNICEF child labour report released on 11 June 2025: 1. Sub-Saharan Africa accounts for nearly two-thirds of all children in child labour. 2. The report says the world achieved the target of eliminating child labour by 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ILO and UNICEF: Sub-Saharan Africa accounts for nearly two-thirds of all children in child labour (around 87 million), so 1 is correct; the world missed the target of eliminating child labour by 2025, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Under the Tatkal rules announced on 11 June 2025, authorised agents cannot book opening-day Tatkal tickets for AC classes during which window?
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Correct answer: A — 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM
PIB (Railways): agents cannot book in the first 30 minutes; for AC classes this is 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM, and for non-AC classes 11:00 AM to 11:30 AM.
Consider the following statements about the Tatkal changes announced on 11 June 2025: 1. Aadhaar-based OTP authentication becomes mandatory for online Tatkal bookings from 15 July 2025. 2. OTP authentication for Tatkal tickets booked at PRS counters takes effect from 1 July 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Railways): Aadhaar-based OTP for online Tatkal is mandatory from 15 July 2025, so 1 is correct. OTP at PRS counters and for agents also comes into effect from 15 July 2025, not 1 July, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Which session of the India–Sweden Joint Commission for Economic, Industrial and Scientific Cooperation was held during Piyush Goyal's Stockholm visit in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 21st
PIB (Commerce) and the Government of Sweden: the 21st session of the India–Sweden Joint Commission for Economic, Industrial and Scientific Cooperation was held during the visit.
Which Swedish minister for International Development Cooperation and Foreign Trade did Piyush Goyal meet during his Stockholm visit of 11–12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Benjamin Dousa
PIB (Commerce) and the Government of Sweden: Goyal met Benjamin Dousa, Minister for International Development Cooperation and Foreign Trade, and State Secretary Håkan Jevrell.
According to India's national statement at the 113th International Labour Conference on 11 June 2025, what was India's social protection coverage in 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 64.3%
PIB (Labour): citing the ILO World Social Protection Report, India's social protection coverage grew from 24.4% in 2019 to 64.3% in 2025.
Consider the following statements made in India's national statement at the 113th ILC on 11 June 2025: 1. India's unemployment rate declined from 6% in 2017 to 3.2% by 2024. 2. Over 300 million unorganised workers are registered on the e-Shram portal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Labour): the statement said unemployment fell from 6% in 2017 to 3.2% by 2024 and that over 300 million unorganised workers are registered on e-Shram. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
At which session of the International Labour Conference did Mansukh Mandaviya deliver India's national statement in Geneva in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 113th
PIB (Labour): Mandaviya delivered the national statement at the plenary session of the 113th International Labour Conference in Geneva.
Which new motto did the Full Bench of the Lokpal of India adopt on 11 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption
PIB (Lokpal of India): the Full Bench adopted the new motto 'Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption', replacing the old one.
Consider the following statements about the composition of the Lokpal: 1. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight Members. 2. Fifty per cent of the Members of the Lokpal are judicial Members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Year End Review 2013, DoPT) (static): the Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight Members, of which fifty per cent shall be judicial Members. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Which of the following is NOT a member of the Selection Committee for the Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal?
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Correct answer: D — Chairman of Rajya Sabha
PIB (Year End Review 2013, DoPT) (static): the Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the CJI or a nominated SC judge, and an eminent jurist nominated by the President. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is not a member.
Through which route did IREDA raise ₹2,005.90 crore, as announced on 11 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP)
PIB (MNRE): IREDA raised ₹2,005.90 crore through a Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP), oversubscribed 1.34 times against a base issue of ₹1,500 crore.
According to Power Minister Manohar Lal on 10 June 2025, India met what peak power demand on 9 June 2025 with zero peak shortage?
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Correct answer: A — 241 GW
PIB (Power): India successfully met a peak power demand of 241 GW on 9 June 2025 with zero peak shortage.
The ₹5,400 crore Viability Gap Funding scheme announced by the Ministry of Power on 10 June 2025 covers how much Battery Energy Storage capacity?
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Correct answer: B — 30 GWh
PIB (Power): the VGF scheme is for 30 GWh of BESS, in addition to the 13.2 GWh already under way.
Consider the following statements based on the Power Ministry's press conference of 10 June 2025: 1. India's total installed generation capacity stands at 249 GW. 2. India's national energy shortage was 4.2% as of April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB (Power): installed capacity is now 472.5 GW (249 GW was the 2014 figure), and energy shortage fell to 0.1% as of April 2025 (4.2% was in 2013-14). So neither statement is correct.
The Stockholm International Conference on Electoral Integrity, where CEC Gyanesh Kumar delivered the keynote on 10 June 2025, was organised by which body?
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Correct answer: B — International IDEA
PIB (ECI): the conference was organised by the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA).
Consider the following statements made by the CEC in his Stockholm keynote of 10 June 2025: 1. India's electors grew from 173 million in 1951–52 to 979 million in 2024. 2. A total of 20,271 candidates contested the 2024 General Elections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (ECI): electors grew from 173 million in 1951–52 to 979 million in 2024, and 20,271 candidates contested in 2024. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
The Election Commission of India, whose foundation day (25 January) is observed as National Voters' Day, was established in 1950 under which Article of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: B — Article 324
PIB (static): National Voters' Day marks the foundation of the ECI, established on 25 January 1950 under Article 324 of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements about the flood preparedness review chaired by Amit Shah on 10 June 2025: 1. The Jal Shakti Ministry, NDMA and NRSC were asked to closely monitor glacial lakes. 2. He stressed increasing the forest area in the Narmada river area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MHA): Shah advised the Jal Shakti Ministry, NDMA and NRSC to closely monitor glacial lakes, and stressed increasing forest area in the Narmada river area. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
At the flood review of 10 June 2025, Amit Shah stressed increasing forest area in the area of which river, to be replicated for other rivers if successful?
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Correct answer: B — Narmada
PIB (MHA): the Home Minister stressed increasing the forest area in the Narmada river area.
At the flood review of 10 June 2025, which bodies were asked to work with the States so that drainage becomes an integral part of highway design?
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Correct answer: D — MoRTH and NHAI
PIB (MHA): Shah said MoRTH and NHAI should work with the States so that the highway drainage system becomes an integral part of road design.
Who chaired the first meeting of the Task Force on Textiles Exports held on 10 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sunil Barthwal
PIB (Commerce): the first meeting was held under the chairmanship of Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal.
Consider the following statements about the first meeting of the Task Force on Textiles Exports on 10 June 2025: 1. The meeting was held at Vanijya Bhawan, Delhi. 2. The European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR) was among the issues discussed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Commerce): the meeting was held at Vanijya Bhawan in Delhi, and the discussions included the European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR). So both 1 and 2 are correct.
MoHUA's Advisory No. 27 of 10 June 2025 on repurposing SPVs and continuing ICCCs relates to which mission?
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Correct answer: C — Smart Cities Mission
PIB (MoHUA): the advisory concerns the SPVs and ICCCs set up under the Smart Cities Mission.
Consider the following statements about the Smart Cities Mission, as stated by MoHUA on 10 June 2025: 1. As of March 2025, over 93% of the 8,000+ projects under the Mission had been completed. 2. The Mission was completed on 31 March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoHUA): over 93% of the 8,000+ projects were completed as of March 2025, and the Mission was completed on 31.03.2025. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Consider the following statements about the SPVs of the Smart Cities Mission (launched in 2015): 1. The SPVs were established under the Companies Act, 2013. 2. The equity in each SPV is shared 50:50 between the Central Government and the State Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoHUA) (static): the SPVs were set up under the Companies Act, 2013, with 50:50 equity between the State/UT government and the respective Urban Local Body, not the Centre. So 1 only.
The Global Young Scientists Conference and Annual General Meeting of the Global Young Academy, chaired by Dharmendra Pradhan on 10 June 2025, was held at which institution?
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Correct answer: A — IIT Hyderabad
PIB (Education): the conference and GYA AGM were held at IIT Hyderabad.
How many new members of the Global Young Academy were inducted at the event at IIT Hyderabad on 10 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 30
PIB (Education): Pradhan congratulated the 30 new members of GYA who were inducted during the event.