Teaching Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The University of Liverpool received the Letter of Approval on 4 June 2026 to set up its branch campus in:
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Correct answer: A — Bengaluru
The Ministry of Education handed over the LoA for the University of Liverpool's branch campus in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
Under which regulations was the University of Liverpool granted its Letter of Intent and Letter of Approval for an Indian campus?
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Correct answer: D — UGC (Setting Up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions in India) Regulations, 2023
The LoI (26 May 2025) and LoA were granted under the UGC (Setting Up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions in India) Regulations, 2023.
Consider the following statements about the University of Liverpool's Indian campus: 1. The university received its Letter of Intent on 26 May 2025. 2. The Letter of Approval was handed over by the Secretary (Higher Education), who is also UGC Chairman. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the Ministry of Education release.
India's first flex-fuel passenger vehicle, launched on 4 June 2026, was made by:
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Correct answer: C — Maruti Suzuki
Hardeep Singh Puri launched India's first flex-fuel passenger vehicle by Maruti Suzuki.
Flex-fuel vehicles, such as the one launched on 4 June 2026, can operate on ethanol–petrol blends in which range?
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Correct answer: B — E20 to E100
The release states flex-fuel vehicles can operate on blends from E20 up to E100.
The 1st World Yogasana Championship 2026, declared open by the Prime Minister on 4 June 2026, is being held in:
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Correct answer: B — Ahmedabad
The PM declared open the 1st World Yogasana Championship 2026 in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, via video conferencing.
At the World Yogasana Championship opening, athletes were urged to become ambassadors of which Ministry of Ayush campaign?
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Correct answer: D — Yoga Three Sixty Five
The PM urged athletes to become ambassadors of the Ministry of Ayush's 'Yoga Three Sixty Five' campaign.
The India–UK Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory was launched on 4 June 2026 by G. Kishan Reddy and:
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Correct answer: D — Yvette Cooper
It was launched by Mines Minister G. Kishan Reddy and UK Foreign Secretary Yvette Cooper.
Which Indian institute is a partner, along with TEXMiN and the University of Cambridge, in the India–UK Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory?
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Correct answer: C — IIT (ISM) Dhanbad
The Observatory is a joint initiative of TEXMiN, IIT (ISM) Dhanbad and the University of Cambridge.
The Mines Minister said the India–UK Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory would advance the objectives of which Indian mission?
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Correct answer: B — National Critical Mineral Mission
Reddy said the Observatory would support evidence-based policymaking and advance the objectives of the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM).
As stated on 4 June 2026, PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana aims to cross how many households by December 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 75 lakh
Pralhad Joshi said the scheme, which has crossed 40 lakh households, is expected to cross 75 lakh by December 2026.
Which new model was introduced on 4 June 2026 to speed up rooftop solar adoption among underserved households under PM Surya Ghar?
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Correct answer: D — Utility-Linked Aggregation model
The Utility-Linked Aggregation (ULA) model was introduced, with about 30 lakh installations planned across States.
PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana was approved by the Cabinet with what total outlay?
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Correct answer: C — ₹75,021 crore
The Cabinet approved the scheme with an outlay of ₹75,021 crore for one crore households (PIB, 29 February 2024).
Dr Subhash C. Kashyap, who died on 4 June 2026, had served as Secretary-General of which body?
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Correct answer: C — Lok Sabha
Kashyap served as Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha from 1983 to 1990.
During which period did Subhash C. Kashyap serve as Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha?
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Correct answer: A — 1983–1990
The Hindu and The Tribune (PTI) report he served as Secretary-General from 1983 to 1990.
With the MoU signed on 4 June 2026, the West Bengal Legislative Assembly became which Legislature to join NeVA?
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Correct answer: B — 33rd
West Bengal became the 33rd Legislature to join the NeVA initiative.
The National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) is a Mission Mode Project of which Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
NeVA is a Mission Mode Project of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Consider the following statements about NeVA as of 4 June 2026: 1. 21 Legislatures have moved to fully digital functioning through NeVA. 2. NeVA follows the vision of 'One Nation – One Application' for legislative governance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs release.
MY Bharat's Guinness World Records title, presented on 4 June 2026, was earned through which quiz?
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Correct answer: A — Viksit Bharat Young Leaders' Dialogue Quiz
The record was set by 390,812 participants in the Viksit Bharat Young Leaders' Dialogue (VBYLD) Quiz.
D. K. Shivakumar, who took oath on 3 June 2026, became the Chief Minister of Karnataka in which number?
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Correct answer: C — 25th
The Hindu and The Indian Express report that Shivakumar was sworn in as the 25th Chief Minister of Karnataka.
Who administered the oath of office and secrecy to Karnataka Chief Minister D. K. Shivakumar on 3 June 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Governor Thaawarchand Gehlot
Governor Thaawarchand Gehlot administered the oath of office and secrecy at Lok Bhavan, Bengaluru.
Along with D. K. Shivakumar, how many ministers were sworn in at Lok Bhavan, Bengaluru, on 3 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 13
Shivakumar was sworn in along with 13 ministers, including G. Parameshwara.
Consider the following statements about Article 164, under which Karnataka's new Chief Minister took office in June 2026: 1. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, and other Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. 2. The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a State shall not exceed ten per cent of the total members of the Legislative Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is Article 164(1). Statement 2 is wrong: Article 164(1A) sets the ceiling at fifteen per cent, with a minimum of twelve Ministers.
In June 2026, the Union Cabinet approved one-time budgetary support of up to how much for ATF price stabilisation for Scheduled Indian Airlines?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10,000 crore
The Cabinet approved one-time budgetary support not exceeding ₹10,000 crore for OMCs.
Under the ATF Price Stabilisation Fund approved on 3 June 2026, the budgetary support will reach Oil Marketing Companies in which form?
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Correct answer: D — Interest-free advances
The support is given as interest-free advances to OMCs through the Demands for Grants of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
Consider the following statements about the ATF Price Stabilisation Fund approved in June 2026: 1. It covers both domestic and international operations of Scheduled Indian Airlines. 2. It will be implemented through an MoU between participating airlines and OMCs, with the Ministries of Civil Aviation and Petroleum and Natural Gas as signatories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are in the Cabinet release: coverage is domestic and international, and implementation is through an airline–OMC MoU with MoCA and MoPNG as signatories.
Under the ATF price stabilisation mechanism of June 2026, amounts recovered from OMCs when ATF prices moderate go back to the Consolidated Fund of India. Which Article of the Constitution creates the Consolidated Fund of India?
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Correct answer: C — Article 266
Article 266(1) provides that all revenues, loans raised and loan repayments received by the Government of India form the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 267 deals with the Contingency Fund.
According to the Sports Ministry, what was the theme of World Bicycle Day 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Cycling for a Greener Future
The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports said the 2026 theme is 'Cycling for a Greener Future'.
Consider the following statements about World Bicycle Day, observed on 3 June: 1. It was declared by the UN General Assembly through resolution A/RES/72/272. 2. The UN General Assembly resolution of 15 March 2022 dealt with integrating mainstream bicycling into public transportation systems. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both are on the UN observance page: A/RES/72/272 declared World Bicycle Day, and A/RES/76/255 of 15 March 2022 is on integrating bicycling into public transport.
The Armoor–Jagtial–Mancherial section approved for 4-laning by the CCEA on 3 June 2026 lies on which National Highway?
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Correct answer: B — NH-63
Armoor–Jagtial–Mancherial is a section of NH-63; the Jagtial–Karimnagar section is on NH-563.
Consider the following statements about the Telangana highway projects approved on 3 June 2026: 1. The Jagtial–Karimnagar section of NH-563 will be built on Build-Operate-Transfer (Toll) mode. 2. The projects pass through Nizamabad, Jagtial, Mancherial and Karimnagar districts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: NH-563 Jagtial–Karimnagar is on BOT (Toll), NH-63 Armoor–Jagtial–Mancherial on HAM, across Nizamabad, Jagtial, Mancherial and Karimnagar districts.
The Rameshwar–Paradeep coastal highway approved by the CCEA on 3 June 2026 will be built on which mode?
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Correct answer: C — Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM)
The coastal highway from Rameshwar to Paradeep will be built on the Hybrid Annuity Model in two packages.
The new Rameshwar–Paradeep coastal highway approved in June 2026 passes through which of these districts of Odisha?
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Correct answer: A — Puri and Kendrapada
The corridor passes through Khurda, Puri, Kendrapada and Jagatsinghpur districts.
How many Panchayats received the National Panchayat Awards 2025 in New Delhi on 3 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 42
The National Panchayat Awards 2025 were conferred on 42 Panchayats.
Under the National Panchayat Awards 2025, which award was conferred on 8 Panchayats (3 District, 2 Block and 3 Gram Panchayats) as best performers on an overall basis?
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Correct answer: B — Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar
The Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar went to 8 Panchayats; the Deen Dayal Upadhyay award went to 34 Gram Panchayats.
Consider the following statements about the National Panchayat Awards 2025: 1. Awardee Panchayats receive financial incentives under the Incentivization of Panchayats scheme, a component of the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan. 2. The Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar is based on the nine themes of Localisation of SDGs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj: incentives of ₹50 lakh to ₹5 crore come under IoP, an RGSA component, and DDUPSVP covers the nine LSDG themes.
On 3 June 2026, President Droupadi Murmu virtually inaugurated how many Space Labs in Eklavya Model Residential Schools?
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Correct answer: A — 75
The President virtually inaugurated 75 Space Labs in Eklavya Model Residential Schools.
The 'Training Fab' virtually inaugurated by the President on 3 June 2026 is located at:
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Correct answer: C — Centre for Nano Science and Engineering, IISc Bengaluru
The Training Fab is at the Centre for Nano Science and Engineering, Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru.
The scheme approved by the Cabinet on 3 June 2026 to replace old trucks and buses in Delhi-NCR has a total outlay of:
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Correct answer: A — ₹9,585 crore
The total outlay is ₹9,585 crore, including ₹5,041 crore from the Centre and about ₹1,601 crore in State tax concessions.
Under the Delhi-NCR vehicle replacement scheme approved in June 2026, trucks and buses complying with which emission norms are targeted for replacement?
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Correct answer: C — BS-IV or earlier
The scheme incentivises replacing trucks and buses that comply with BS-IV or earlier norms with BS-VI or stricter vehicles, or EVs.
Consider the following statements about the National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB), which funds the June 2026 vehicle replacement scheme: 1. It was constituted under an Act of Parliament of 1985, enacted with the concurrence of Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. 2. The National Capital Region covers more districts of Uttar Pradesh than of Haryana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct per NCRPB. Statement 2 is wrong: the NCR covers 14 districts of Haryana, 8 of Uttar Pradesh and 2 of Rajasthan besides the NCT of Delhi.
Telangana, which celebrated its Formation Day on 2 June 2026, was formed as a State on:
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Correct answer: A — 2 June 2014
The Centre notified 2 June 2014 as the appointed day under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, on which Telangana was formed.
Under which law was the State of Telangana formed?
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Correct answer: C — Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014
Section 3 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 provides for the formation of Telangana on and from the appointed day.
Consider the following statements about the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014: 1. The appointed day of 2 June 2014 was notified by the Centre through notification S.O. 655(E) dated 4 March 2014. 2. Section 5 of the Act made Hyderabad the common capital of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh for a period not exceeding fifteen years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct per India Code. Statement 2 is wrong: Section 5 set the common-capital period at not more than ten years.
Where did Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy unfurl the national flag at the main Telangana Formation Day celebrations on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Parade Grounds, Secunderabad
The CM unfurled the national flag at Parade Grounds, Secunderabad.
On Telangana Formation Day 2026, CM Revanth Reddy paid tributes at the Telangana Martyrs Memorial located at:
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Correct answer: C — Gun Park, Hyderabad
The CM paid floral tributes at the Telangana Martyrs Memorial in Gun Park, Hyderabad.
Which Union Territory signed a reform-linked MoU under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Puducherry
The MoUs were signed with four States and one UT – Puducherry.
Which of the following States was NOT among those that signed reform-linked MoUs under JJM 2.0 on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
The four States were Arunachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Tamil Nadu and Nagaland; Kerala was not among them.
The reform-linked MoUs under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 signed in June 2026 mandate which model of rural water governance?
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Correct answer: B — Gram Panchayat-led, service-based and community-centred model
The MoUs mandate a Gram Panchayat-led, service-based and community-centred model of rural water governance.
Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai was appointed in June 2026 as Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Patna High Court
The President appointed her Chief Justice of the Patna High Court with effect from 5 June 2026.
Before her appointment as Chief Justice of the Patna High Court in June 2026, Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai was a Judge of which High Court?
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Correct answer: A — Sikkim High Court
She was a Judge of the Sikkim High Court.
Under Article 217(1) of the Constitution, which governs appointments such as the Patna High Court Chief Justice in June 2026, a permanent Judge of a High Court holds office until the age of:
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Correct answer: C — 62 years
Article 217(1) says a High Court Judge (other than an additional or acting Judge) holds office until he attains sixty-two years; Supreme Court Judges serve till 65 under Article 124.
Which DRDO laboratory was the nodal laboratory for developing the RudraM-II missile flight-tested in June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad
RudraM-II was indigenously developed by Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad, as the nodal DRDO laboratory.
Flight data confirming the RudraM-II test objectives in June 2026 was captured by range instruments of the Integrated Test Range located at:
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Correct answer: B — Chandipur
All test objectives were confirmed by flight data from range instruments deployed by ITR, Chandipur.
Consider the following statements about the RudraM-II tests of June 2026: 1. RudraM-II is an air-to-surface missile and was tested from an airborne platform. 2. The Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL) was the nodal DRDO laboratory for its development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad, was the nodal laboratory; DRDL was one of the sister labs.
As noted by President Murmu on 2 June 2026, South Africa was the first country with which India established a Strategic Partnership. In which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1997
The President said South Africa was the very first country with which India established a Strategic Partnership in 1997.
Who is the Deputy President of South Africa who called on President Droupadi Murmu on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Shipokosa Paulus Mashatile
Shipokosa Paulus Mashatile, Deputy President of South Africa, called on the President on his first visit to India.
According to President Murmu (June 2026), bilateral trade between India and South Africa is about:
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Correct answer: A — USD 15.5 billion
The President noted that India–South Africa bilateral trade is about USD 15.5 billion.
Mission 'Senehjori', launched by the Ministry of DoNER on 2 June 2026, aims to develop which product into a global luxury brand?
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Correct answer: B — Assam's Muga silk
Mission Senehjori – Assam Muga Silk USP aims to turn Assam's Muga silk into a globally competitive luxury textile ecosystem.
According to the DoNER Ministry (June 2026), Assam accounts for about what share of the world's Muga silk production?
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Correct answer: D — 90%
Scindia said Assam accounts for 90 per cent of the world's Muga silk production.
Consider the following statements about Mission Senehjori and Muga silk: 1. Muga is described as India's first GI-tagged silk. 2. The Mission has an estimated investment of ₹396–411 crore over three years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are in the MDoNER release: Muga is India's first GI-tagged silk, and the Mission's estimated investment is ₹396–411 crore over three years, including ₹136–151 crore from MDoNER.
Union Health Minister J. P. Nadda addressed the 2nd Convocation of which AIIMS on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — AIIMS Bathinda
Nadda addressed the 2nd Convocation Ceremony of AIIMS Bathinda in Punjab.
Along with a PET-CT facility, which facility did J. P. Nadda inaugurate at AIIMS Bathinda on 2 June 2026 to enhance cancer care?
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Correct answer: A — A second HELA facility
Nadda inaugurated a state-of-the-art PET-CT facility and a second HELA facility to enhance cancer care.
The India–Oman CEPA, which entered into force on 1 June 2026, was signed on 18 December 2025 in:
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Correct answer: A — Muscat
The CEPA was signed in Muscat on 18 December 2025 in the presence of PM Modi and Sultan Haitham bin Tarik.
Under the India–Oman CEPA, what share of India's exports to Oman gets zero-duty access?
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Correct answer: C — 99.38%
The Commerce Ministry release says the CEPA offers zero-duty access for 99.38% of India's exports to Oman.
Consider the following statements about the India–Oman CEPA: 1. India is the first country to secure a comprehensive bilateral trade pact with Oman. 2. India has excluded dairy and edible oils from market access under the Agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: India is the second nation after the United States. Statement 2 is correct: dairy and edible oils are among the sensitive sectors excluded.
Under the India–Oman CEPA, Oman raised the ceiling for intra-corporate transferees (ICT) from 20% to:
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Correct answer: B — 50%
The release says the ICT ceiling was raised from 20% to 50%.
The notifications of 1 June 2026 appointing five Supreme Court judges were issued under which provision of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: B — Article 124(2)
The Law Ministry notifications cite clause (2) of Article 124, under which the President appoints Supreme Court judges.
Who among the following was appointed a Supreme Court judge on 1 June 2026 directly from the Bar as a senior advocate?
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Correct answer: D — Venkita Subramani Mohana
Venkita Subramani Mohana was a senior advocate; the other four appointees were High Court Chief Justices.
Justice Sheel Nagu, appointed a Supreme Court judge on 1 June 2026, was until then the Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: A — Punjab and Haryana
Justice Sheel Nagu was Chief Justice of the High Court of Punjab and Haryana.
Consider the following statements: 1. Justice Shree Chandrashekhar was the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court before his appointment to the Supreme Court on 1 June 2026. 2. On 5 May 2026, the Union Cabinet approved a Bill to raise the number of Supreme Court judges from 33 to 37, excluding the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Law Ministry release names him as Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court, and the Cabinet release of 5 May 2026 gives the 33-to-37 increase excluding the CJI.
Myanmar President U Min Aung Hlaing began his first official visit to India (30 May–3 June 2026) at:
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Correct answer: C — Bodh Gaya
The joint statement says the President visited Bodh Gaya on 30 May 2026 and prayed at the Mahabodhi Temple.
India announced during the Myanmar President's visit that Mekong Ganga ICCR scholarships for Myanmar students would be raised from 36 to:
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Correct answer: A — 100
The joint statement says the scholarships will be enhanced from 36 to 100 from 2026 onwards.
Consider the following statements about the India–Myanmar joint statement of 1 June 2026: 1. The Prime Minister said Myanmar lies at the confluence of India's Neighbourhood First, Act East and MAHASAGAR policies. 2. Both sides agreed to enhance bilateral trade, including through the Rupee-Kyat settlement mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both statements appear in the joint statement.
In India's MAHASAGAR policy, cited in the India–Myanmar joint statement of 1 June 2026, MAHASAGAR stands for:
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Correct answer: D — Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
The joint statement expands MAHASAGAR as Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
As per the first release of the new IIP series on 1 June 2026, industrial growth in April 2026 was:
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Correct answer: D — 4.9%
MoSPI's quick estimate puts IIP growth for April 2026 at 4.9%.
The new series of the Index of Industrial Production released on 1 June 2026 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: B — 2022-23
MoSPI revised the IIP base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23.
Consider the following statements about IIP for April 2026 (new series): 1. Mining and Quarrying contracted by 5.1%. 2. Manufacturing grew by 4.9%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: manufacturing grew 6.2%; 4.9% was the headline IIP growth and the growth of electricity and gas supply.
What is the outlay of the ANRF–Ministry of Jal Shakti MAHA Water Mission launched on 1 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹200 crore
Dr Jitendra Singh launched the ₹200-crore MAHA Water Mission.
The MAHA Water Mission launched by ANRF on 1 June 2026 is mainly meant to support:
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Correct answer: D — Startups in the water sector
The Mission supports startups with technology development, field validation and deployment for water challenges.
Telangana's revised minimum wages that took effect on 1 June 2026 were notified under which law?
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Correct answer: C — Code on Wages, 2019
GO No. 6 activates the provisions of the Code on Wages, 2019, which has replaced the Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
Under Telangana's revised minimum wages effective 1 June 2026, the minimum monthly wage for highly skilled workers in Zone 1 is:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20,000
Both BusinessLine (PTI) and ETV Bharat report ₹20,000 a month for highly skilled workers in Zone 1.
Which of the following laws were subsumed in the Code on Wages, 2019? 1. Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 2. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 3. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
The Code on Wages, 2019 amalgamates the Payment of Wages Act 1936, Minimum Wages Act 1948, Payment of Bonus Act 1965 and Equal Remuneration Act 1976. The Industrial Disputes Act is not among them.
The second India–Australia Defence Ministers' Dialogue on 1 June 2026 was co-chaired by Rajnath Singh and:
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Correct answer: C — Richard Marles
Australian Deputy Prime Minister and Defence Minister Richard Marles co-chaired the dialogue.
As co-leads of the IORA Working Group on Maritime Safety and Security, India and Australia planned a Search and Rescue and tabletop exercise in June 2026 at the Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre in:
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Correct answer: B — Chennai
The Defence Ministry release names MRCC Chennai.