NABARD Grade A Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Supreme Court's 6 November 2025 ruling that grounds of arrest must be given in writing to every arrestee was based on which constitutional provision?
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Correct answer: B — Article 22(1)
The court held that the Article 22(1) requirement to inform an arrested person of the grounds of arrest applies to all offences and must be met in writing.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 6 November 2025 judgment in Mihir Rajesh Shah vs State of Maharashtra: 1. Grounds of arrest must be supplied in writing, in a language the arrestee understands, for offences under all statutes. 2. Where written grounds cannot be given at the time of arrest, they must be supplied at least 24 hours before production for remand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The court required written grounds in the arrestee's language for all offences; if not given at arrest, they must be supplied at least two hours (not 24 hours) before production for remand.
Who authored the Supreme Court judgment of 6 November 2025 making written grounds of arrest mandatory for all offences?
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Correct answer: D — Justice Augustine George Masih
The Bench of CJI B.R. Gavai and Justice Augustine George Masih delivered the verdict; Justice Masih wrote the 52-page judgment.
India won the ICC Women's World Cup 2025 by defeating which team in the final on 2 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — South Africa
India beat South Africa in the final on Sunday, 2 November 2025.
While hosting the World Cup winners on 6 November 2025, President Murmu praised them for defeating which 'seven-time world champion' team?
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Correct answer: B — Australia
The President said the team defeated the seven-time world champion and then-undefeated Australian team.
Who was the coach of the Indian team that won the ICC Women's World Cup 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Amol Mazumdar
Coach Amol Mazumdar thanked the Prime Minister when the team met him on 5 November 2025.
The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues (Amendment) Rules, 2025, notified on 6 November 2025, were framed under which Act?
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Correct answer: C — Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994
The Health Ministry notified the amendment rules under the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994 on 6 November 2025.
Which mandatory requirement for Corneal Transplantation Centres was removed by the THOTA (Amendment) Rules, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Clinical Specular equipment
The amendment removed the mandatory requirement of Clinical Specular equipment in Corneal Transplantation Centres.
According to the Health Ministry, the THOTA (Amendment) Rules notified in November 2025 further strengthen which programme?
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Correct answer: D — National Organ Transplant Programme
The ministry said the amendment further strengthens the National Organ Transplant Programme (NOTP).
A high-level delegation from which country concluded a week-long visit to India in November 2025 to study DAY-NRLM?
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Correct answer: B — Ethiopia
A delegation from the Government of Ethiopia concluded a week-long learning and exposure visit focused on DAY-NRLM on 6 November 2025.
The National Rural Livelihoods Mission (now DAY-NRLM), studied by an Ethiopian delegation in November 2025, was created by restructuring which earlier scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
NRLM was launched by restructuring the erstwhile Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY).
In which year was the National Rural Livelihoods Mission renamed Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
The Ministry of Rural Development renamed NRLM as DAY-NRLM with effect from 29 March 2016.
With which New Zealand minister did Piyush Goyal co-chair the India–New Zealand CEOs Roundtable on 6 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Todd McClay
Goyal and New Zealand Trade Minister Todd McClay co-chaired the India–New Zealand CEOs Roundtable.
Te Puia in Rotorua, where Piyush Goyal received a traditional Pōwhiri on 6 November 2025, is New Zealand's national centre for what?
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Correct answer: A — Māori culture and arts
Te Puia is the national centre for Māori culture and arts, where Goyal was accorded a traditional Māori welcome (Pōwhiri).
Who formally unveiled the India AI Governance Guidelines on 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood, Principal Scientific Adviser
The guidelines were formally unveiled by Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood, Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
The India AI Governance Guidelines released in November 2025 were drafted by a high-level committee chaired by whom?
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Correct answer: A — Prof. Balaraman Ravindran, IIT Madras
The guidelines were drafted by a high-level committee under the chairmanship of Prof. Balaraman Ravindran, IIT Madras.
Consider the following statements about the India AI Governance Guidelines (November 2025): 1. The framework includes seven guiding principles (Sutras) and recommendations across six pillars of AI governance. 2. The guidelines propose a new standalone AI law to replace existing legislation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The framework has seven Sutras and six pillars; MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan said the focus remains on using existing legislation wherever possible, so statement 2 is wrong.
The IndiaAI Mission, under which the AI Governance Guidelines were released, was approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 March 2024 with what outlay?
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,371.92 crore
The Cabinet approved the IndiaAI Mission on 7 March 2024 with a budget outlay of ₹10,371.92 crore.
The launch of the India AI Governance Guidelines in November 2025 was described as a key milestone ahead of which event?
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Correct answer: C — India–AI Impact Summit 2026
MeitY said the launch marks a key milestone ahead of the India–AI Impact Summit 2026.
Where was the 9th round of India–Peru Trade Agreement negotiations held from 3 to 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Lima
The 9th round was held in Lima, Peru, from 3 to 5 November 2025.
Who led the Indian delegation as Chief Negotiator at the 9th round of India–Peru trade talks in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vimal Anand
The Indian delegation was led by Vimal Anand, Joint Secretary and Chief Negotiator; Vishvas Vidu Sapkal is India's Ambassador to Peru.
The 3rd round of India–Chile CEPA negotiations, mentioned alongside the 9th India–Peru round, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Santiago
The 3rd round of India–Chile CEPA negotiations was held in Santiago, Chile, from 27 to 30 October 2025.
According to India's statement at the Second World Summit for Social Development (Doha, November 2025), India's social security coverage in 2025 stood at about:
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Correct answer: D — 64.3%
Mandaviya said India's social security coverage rose from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025.
India's statement at the Second World Summit for Social Development in Doha recalled a declaration adopted 30 years earlier that placed people at the centre of development. Which was it?
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Correct answer: B — Copenhagen Declaration
The statement said that 30 years ago the Copenhagen Declaration placed people at the centre of development.
According to India's November 2025 statement in Doha, approximately how many Indians were lifted out of multidimensional poverty in the last 10 years?
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Correct answer: C — 250 million
Mandaviya said approximately 250 million Indians had been lifted out of multidimensional poverty in the last 10 years.
Which body conferred the 'Award for Outstanding Achievement in Social Security' on India in 2025, as cited at the Doha social summit?
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Correct answer: B — International Social Security Association
Mandaviya said the International Social Security Association conferred the 'ISSA Award for Outstanding Achievement in Social Security' on India this year.
What is the month-long target of the nationwide Digital Life Certificate Campaign 4.0 (1–30 November 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 2 crore
Campaign 4.0 has a month-long target of two crore DLCs; over 22 lakh were generated in its first four days.
Who formally launched the nationwide Digital Life Certificate Campaign 4.0 on 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Jitendra Singh
Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh, MoS (Independent Charge) and MoS for Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, formally launched the campaign.
MOIL, which recorded its best-ever October production in October 2025 (1.60 lakh tonnes), mainly produces which ore?
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Correct answer: A — Manganese ore
MOIL recorded production of 1.60 lakh tonnes of manganese ore in October 2025, its best October since inception.
Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, which began on 4 November 2025, covers how many States and Union Territories?
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Correct answer: B — 9 States and 3 UTs
SIR Phase II covers 9 States and 3 UTs (Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry).
Consider the following statements about SIR Phase II (November 2025): 1. The Election Commission ordered it under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Its enumeration period runs until 4 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ECI ordered the SIR under Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950, and the enumeration period runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
Approximately how many electors are covered by Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision that began in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 51 crore
Phase II covers nearly 51 crore electors across 321 districts and 1,843 Assembly constituencies.
Which of the following is NOT among the States/UTs covered by SIR Phase II, which began on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Assam
Phase II covers Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry; Assam is not in the list.
The Rules for 'Sustainable Harnessing of Fisheries in the Exclusive Economic Zone', notified on 4 November 2025, fulfil an announcement made in which Union Budget?
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Correct answer: C — 2025–26
The Rules fulfil the Budget 2025–26 announcement of an enabling framework for sustainable fisheries from the Indian EEZ and high seas.
According to the Fisheries Ministry (November 2025), the Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep together account for what share of India's EEZ area?
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Correct answer: D — 49%
The ministry said the island regions of Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep together account for 49% of India's EEZ area.
Consider the following statements about the EEZ fisheries Rules notified in November 2025: 1. Mechanised and large motorised vessels need an Access Pass, available free of cost through the ReALCraft portal. 2. Foreign fishing vessels can obtain an Access Pass through joint-venture arrangements with Indian firms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Access Pass is free through ReALCraft for mechanised and large motorised vessels, but foreign fishing vessels are not allowed an Access Pass under any arrangement.
Which vessel concept, allowing mid-sea transshipment, is introduced by the EEZ fisheries Rules of November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mother-and-child vessels
The Rules introduce the mother-and-child vessel concept, allowing mid-sea transshipment under RBI-regulated monitoring.
Where was the 17th India–Israel Joint Working Group meeting on defence cooperation held on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Tel Aviv
The 17th JWG meeting took place in Tel Aviv on 4 November 2025, where an MoU on Defence Cooperation was signed.
Which edition of the India–Israel Joint Working Group on defence cooperation met in November 2025 and signed an MoU on Defence Cooperation?
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Correct answer: D — 17th
It was the 17th meeting of the India–Israel JWG on defence cooperation.
Who co-chaired the 17th India–Israel Joint Working Group meeting on defence cooperation from the Indian side?
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Correct answer: A — Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh
The meeting was co-chaired by Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh and Israeli MoD Director General Maj Gen (Res) Amir Baram.
Who launched the third round (PLI 1.2) of the PLI Scheme for Specialty Steel on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — H.D. Kumaraswamy
Union Minister for Steel and Heavy Industries H.D. Kumaraswamy launched PLI 1.2 at Udyog Bhawan, New Delhi.
The PLI Scheme for Specialty Steel was approved by the Union Cabinet in July 2021 with what outlay?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6,322 crore
The scheme was approved in July 2021 with an overall outlay of ₹6,322 crore.
Consider the following statements about the PLI Scheme for Specialty Steel (as of November 2025): 1. It covers 22 product sub-categories, including super alloys and CRGO steel. 2. Incentive rates range from 4% to 15% for five years starting FY 2025–26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The scheme covers 22 product sub-categories including super alloys and CRGO, with incentives of 4% to 15% for five years starting FY 2025–26.
What is the size of the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme Fund launched by PM Modi at ESTIC 2025 on 3 November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1 lakh crore
PM Modi launched the ₹1 lakh crore RDI Scheme Fund to promote private sector–driven R&D.
Where was the Emerging Science, Technology and Innovation Conclave (ESTIC) 2025 held?
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Correct answer: A — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
PM Modi addressed ESTIC 2025 at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi; the conclave ran from 3 to 5 November 2025.
Under the RDI Scheme approved by the Union Cabinet on 1 July 2025, the Special Purpose Fund that acts as custodian of funds is set up within which body?
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Correct answer: C — Anusandhan National Research Foundation
The Special Purpose Fund within the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) is the first-level custodian; DST is the nodal department.
At ESTIC 2025, PM Modi said the number of registered patents in India had increased by how many times over the last decade?
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Correct answer: B — 17 times
The PM said India's R&D expenditure had doubled in the last decade and registered patents had increased 17 times.
Which Indian cooperative ranked first in the World Cooperative Monitor 2025 ranking by turnover relative to GDP per capita?
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Correct answer: B — Amul (Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation)
Amul (GCMMF) ranked first and IFFCO second in the turnover-over-GDP-per-capita ranking of the World Cooperative Monitor 2025.
On what basis did Amul and IFFCO top the World Cooperative Monitor 2025 list?
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Correct answer: A — Turnover relative to GDP per capita
The ICA said that by turnover relative to GDP per capita, India's Amul and IFFCO top the global list; the leading organisations by absolute turnover include Groupe Crédit Agricole and State Farm.
The World Cooperative Monitor 2025, released in Doha on 3 November 2025, was prepared by the International Cooperative Alliance in collaboration with which body?
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Correct answer: D — EURICSE
The ICA released the report in collaboration with the European Research Institute on Cooperative and Social Enterprises (EURICSE).
The 2025 edition of the World Cooperative Monitor was described by the ICA as a special report marking which observance?
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Correct answer: C — UN International Year of Cooperatives
The ICA called the 2025 World Cooperative Monitor a special report marking the UN International Year of Cooperatives.
With whom did Rohan Bopanna win the 2024 Australian Open men's doubles title?
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Correct answer: B — Matthew Ebden
Bopanna won the 2024 Australian Open with Matthew Ebden and rose to World No. 1 in doubles.
At what age did Rohan Bopanna become the oldest man to reach World No. 1 in the ATP doubles rankings?
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Correct answer: C — 43
ATP noted that Bopanna rose to No. 1 for the first time after the 2024 Australian Open and became the oldest man to do so, at 43.
Where was the 12th ADMM-Plus, addressed by Rajnath Singh on 1 November 2025, held?
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Correct answer: D — Kuala Lumpur
The 12th ADMM-Plus was held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, on 1 November 2025.
Which edition of the ADMM-Plus did Defence Minister Rajnath Singh attend in Kuala Lumpur on 1 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 12th
Rajnath Singh spoke at the 12th ADMM-Plus; the forum itself was entering its 16th year.
For the 2024–2027 cycle, India co-chairs which ADMM-Plus Expert Working Group, and with which country?
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Correct answer: C — Counter-Terrorism, with Malaysia
India co-chairs the Expert Working Group on Counter-Terrorism with Malaysia for 2024–27; it earlier co-chaired HADR with Indonesia (2020–24).
For how long is EPFO's Employees' Enrolment Scheme 2025 open?
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Correct answer: A — 1 November 2025 to 30 April 2026
The scheme is open for six months, from 1 November 2025 to 30 April 2026.
EPFO's Employees' Enrolment Scheme 2025 allows employers to declare left-out employees who joined during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1 July 2017 to 31 October 2025
It covers employees who joined between 1 July 2017 and 31 October 2025 and were left out of EPF coverage.
The Employees' Enrolment Scheme 2025 was launched on 1 November 2025 at which Foundation Day of EPFO?
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Correct answer: B — 73rd
Dr Mansukh Mandaviya launched the scheme at EPFO's 73rd Foundation Day celebrations in New Delhi.
Who assumed charge as Director General of the Bureau of Indian Standards with effect from 1 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sanjay Garg
Sanjay Garg, IAS (1994, Kerala cadre), assumed charge as DG, BIS, from 1 November 2025.
As Director General of BIS, Sanjay Garg will also serve as President of India's national committee in which international body?
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Correct answer: D — International Electrotechnical Commission
The BIS DG also serves as President of India's national committee in the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC).
Who assumed charge as the Chief of Personnel of the Indian Navy on 1 November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Vice Admiral Gurcharan Singh
Vice Admiral Gurcharan Singh assumed charge as Chief of Personnel; Vice Admiral B. Sivakumar became the 40th Chief of Materiel.
Vishvajit Sahay, who took charge on 1 November 2025, holds which post?
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Correct answer: A — Controller General of Defence Accounts
Vishvajit Sahay, a 1990-batch IDAS officer, assumed charge as Controller General of Defence Accounts (CGDA).
The 'framework for the US-India major defence partnership' signed on 31 October 2025 is intended to guide the partnership over how many years?
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Correct answer: B — 10 years
The 2025 framework marks a new chapter to further transform the partnership over the next 10 years.
In which city did Rajnath Singh and Pete Hegseth sign the India-US defence framework on 31 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Kuala Lumpur
They signed it in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, on the sidelines of the 12th ADMM-Plus.
At the second India-ASEAN Defence Ministers' Informal Meeting on 31 October 2025, which initiatives did India announce?
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Correct answer: A — ASEAN-India Initiative on Women in UN Peacekeeping Operations and ASEAN-India Defence Think-Tank Interaction
Rajnath Singh announced the ASEAN-India Initiative on Women in UN Peacekeeping Operations and the ASEAN-India Defence Think-Tank Interaction.
Which city hosted the Asian Youth Games 2025, held from 22 to 31 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Manama
The Asian Youth Games 2025 were held in Manama, Bahrain, from 22 to 31 October 2025.
How many medals did India win at the Asian Youth Games 2025, its best-ever tally?
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Correct answer: C — 48
India won 48 medals (13 gold, 18 silver, 17 bronze) and finished sixth.
At the Asian Youth Games 2025, which sport made its debut with both India's boys' and girls' teams winning gold?
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Correct answer: B — Kabaddi
Both Indian kabaddi teams stayed unbeaten and won gold in the sport's debut appearance at the Games.
How many Guinness World Records titles did the Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan achieve, as announced on 31 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Three
The Health Ministry announced three Guinness World Records titles under the campaign.
During which period did the Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan run in 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 17 September-2 October
The campaign ran from 17 September to 2 October 2025, alongside Poshan Maah.
How many personnel were awarded the Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak for 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,466
The MHA announced the medal for 1,466 personnel of States, UTs, CAPFs and CPOs for 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak: 1. It was instituted by the Ministry of Defence in 2019. 2. It is awarded in four fields, including Forensic Science. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The medal was instituted by the Ministry of Home Affairs in February 2024, and it covers Special Operation, Investigation, Intelligence and Forensic Science.
From which class will Artificial Intelligence and Computational Thinking be introduced in schools, as announced on 30 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Class 3
AI & CT will be embedded from the foundational stage, beginning in Class (Grade) 3.
From which academic session will the AI and Computational Thinking curriculum be introduced from Class 3?
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Correct answer: A — 2026-27
The Ministry of Education said AI & CT will be introduced from Grade 3 starting in the academic session 2026-27.
Who chairs the CBSE expert committee set up to develop the AI and Computational Thinking curriculum for schools?
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Correct answer: B — Prof. Karthik Raman, IIT Madras
CBSE constituted an expert committee chaired by Prof. Karthik Raman of IIT Madras.
Where was the third round of India-Chile CEPA negotiations held from 27 to 30 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Santiago
The third round of India-Chile CEPA negotiations was held in Santiago, Chile.
Which round of India-Chile Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement negotiations took place in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Third
PIB reported that the 3rd round of India-Chile CEPA negotiations was held in Santiago from 27 to 30 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about the third round of India-Chile CEPA talks: 1. It was held from 27 to 30 October 2025. 2. Critical minerals were among the chapters discussed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The round ran from 27 to 30 October 2025 and covered chapters including critical minerals.
According to Chile's SUBREI, the India-Chile Partial Scope Agreement, which entered into force in 2007, was expanded in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2017
SUBREI notes that the Partial Scope Agreement entered into force in 2007 and was later expanded in 2017.
The Model Youth Gram Sabha initiative launched on 30 October 2025 is led by which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Panchayati Raj
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj launched it in collaboration with the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
The Model Youth Gram Sabha will be implemented in how many schools initially?
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Correct answer: A — Over 1,000
It will be implemented across over 1,000 schools, including JNVs, EMRSs and state government schools.
What was India's total installed electricity capacity as of 30 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 500.89 GW
The country's total installed capacity crossed 500 GW to reach 500.89 GW as of 30 September 2025.
With non-fossil sources crossing 51% of installed capacity, which COP26 Panchamrit goal has India achieved five years early?
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Correct answer: D — 50% of installed electric capacity from non-fossil sources by 2030
The Ministry said India has achieved the Panchamrit goal of 50% installed electric power capacity from non-fossil sources by 2030, five years early.
On which date did renewables meet 51.5% of India's total electricity demand, the first day more than half of India's power came from green sources?
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Correct answer: B — 29 July 2025
On 29 July 2025, renewables met 51.5% of the country's total electricity demand of 203 GW.
Which provision was introduced for the first time in the 14th round of commercial coal mine auctions launched on 29 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Underground Coal Gasification (UCG)
For the first time, provisions for Underground Coal Gasification were introduced; 21 of the 41 mines have UCG potential.
How many coal mines were offered in the 14th round of commercial coal mine auctions?
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Correct answer: C — 41
A total of 41 coal mines were offered, of which 21 have UCG potential.
Before the 14th round, how many coal mines had the Ministry of Coal auctioned across 12 rounds of commercial auctions?
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Correct answer: D — 133
The ministry has auctioned 133 coal mines across 12 rounds, with a peak rated capacity of about 276 MTPA.