Haryana Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Where did PM Modi and UK PM Keir Starmer hold talks on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Chequers, Buckinghamshire
PIB (24 July 2025): PM Modi was received by PM Starmer at the UK Prime Minister's country residence at Chequers in Buckinghamshire.
Which document, steering the India-UK Comprehensive Strategic Partnership for the next ten years, was adopted on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — India-UK Vision 2035
PIB: the two leaders adopted the India-UK Vision 2035, which will steer the relationship for the next ten years.
Where did PM Modi call on King Charles III on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sandringham Estate
PIB (24 July 2025): PM Modi called on King Charles III at Sandringham Estate, the summer residence of His Majesty.
Consider the following statements about the Modi-Starmer talks of 24 July 2025: 1. The leaders welcomed the finalisation of a Defence Industrial Roadmap. 2. The two sides agreed to negotiate a Double Contribution Convention that will come into effect along with CETA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB (24 July 2025): the leaders welcomed the finalisation of a Defence Industrial Roadmap, and the two sides agreed to negotiate a Double Contribution Convention which will come into effect along with CETA. Both correct.
As of July 2025, India's bid to host the 2036 Olympics is in which phase with the IOC's Future Host Commission?
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Correct answer: C — Continuous Dialogue
PIB (24 July 2025): IOA has submitted a letter of intent to IOC; the bid is now in the 'Continuous Dialogue' phase with the Future Host Commission of IOC.
Which body submitted India's letter of intent to the IOC to host the 2036 Olympic Games?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Olympic Association
PIB: bidding to host the Olympic Games is the responsibility of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA), which has submitted a letter of intent to IOC.
Which Indian Navy ships arrived at Da Nang, Vietnam, on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INS Delhi, Shakti and Kiltan
PIB: INS Delhi, Shakti and Kiltan of the Eastern Fleet arrived at Tien Sa Port, Da Nang, Vietnam on 24 July 2025.
The Indian Navy ships that visited Da Nang in July 2025 belong to which fleet?
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Correct answer: C — Eastern Fleet
PIB: the ships of the Eastern Fleet were under RAdm Susheel Menon, Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet.
Who presented India's third Voluntary National Review at the UN High-Level Political Forum on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Suman Bery
PIB: NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Suman Bery presented India's Third VNR on 23 July 2025 at the HLPF.
The High-Level Political Forum on SDGs, where India presented its VNR in July 2025, is convened by which UN body?
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Correct answer: C — Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
PIB: the VNR was presented at the Ministerial Segment of the HLPF on SDGs convened by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
According to India's VNR 2025, around how many people are estimated to have escaped multidimensional poverty?
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Correct answer: B — 248 million
PIB: around 248 million individuals are estimated to have escaped Multidimensional Poverty.
Consider the following statements about India's VNR 2025: 1. It is India's third submission to the HLPF. 2. Its preparation was steered by NITI Aayog. 3. It describes India as the second-largest start-up ecosystem in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the VNR marks India's third submission to the HLPF and was steered by NITI Aayog; it describes India as the third-largest (not second-largest) start-up ecosystem. So 3 is wrong.
India's Digital Public Infrastructure highlighted in the VNR 2025 is grounded in the 'JAM' trinity. What does JAM stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile
PIB: the report highlights India's leadership in Digital Public Infrastructure grounded in the Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile (JAM) trinity.
How many Anganwadi-cum-Crèches had the Ministry of Women and Child Development approved under the Palna Scheme, as stated on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 14,599
PIB (23 July 2025): the Ministry approved 14,599 Anganwadi-cum-Crèches under the Palna Scheme.
The Palna Scheme is implemented under which vertical of Mission Shakti?
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Correct answer: D — Samarthya
PIB: the Palna Scheme was introduced under the Samarthya vertical of Umbrella Mission Shakti for all States and UTs w.e.f. 1 April 2022.
Who assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Financial Reporting Authority on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nitin Gupta
PIB (24 July 2025): Nitin Gupta, IRS (IT:86) (Retd.), assumed charge as Chairperson, NFRA on 23 July 2025.
Before heading NFRA, Nitin Gupta served as Chairman of which body from June 2022 to June 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Central Board of Direct Taxes
PIB: Nitin Gupta earlier served as Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) from June 2022 to June 2024.
NFRA, whose new Chairperson and Full-Time Members took oath on 23 July 2025, functions under which Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
PIB (Ministry of Corporate Affairs, 24 July 2025): the Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs administered the oaths to the NFRA Chairperson and Full-Time Members at a ceremony held in the Ministry on 23.07.2025.
Which category of intellectual property recorded the highest growth in filings between 2020-21 and 2024-25, as per the Commerce Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Geographical Indications
PIB (22 July 2025): GI saw the highest growth at 380%, followed by Designs (266%) and Patents (180%).
By what percentage did total IP filings by Indian citizens rise from 2020-21 to 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 44%
PIB: IP filings increased by 44%, from 4,77,533 in 2020-21 to 6,89,991 in 2024-25.
Preparations for Census 2027 began with a gazette notification expressing the Government's intent to conduct the Population Census. That notification is dated:
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Correct answer: D — 16 June 2025
PIB (MHA, 22 July 2025): the preparation for Census 2027 started with the publication of the gazette notification dated 16.06.2025.
Which portal will be used for management and monitoring of Census 2027 activities, as discussed at the July 2025 conference?
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Correct answer: C — CMMS (Census Management and Monitoring System)
PIB: the conference discussed management and monitoring of census activities through the Census Management and Monitoring System (CMMS) portal.
What was the gross NPA ratio of public sector banks as of 31 March 2025, as per the Finance Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 2.58%
PIB (22 July 2025): gross NPAs of PSBs reduced from 9.11% (March 2021) to 2.58% (March 2025); 3.47% was March 2024.
As part of NPA recovery measures, the pecuniary jurisdiction of Debt Recovery Tribunals was raised from ₹10 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20 lakh
PIB: the pecuniary jurisdiction of DRTs was increased from ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh to let them focus on high-value cases.
Where was the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission launched by the Prime Minister on 1 July 2023?
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Correct answer: C — Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission was inaugurated on 1 July 2023 by the Prime Minister at Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh.
As of July 2025, how many people had been screened under the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission?
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Correct answer: A — 6 crore
PIB: 6 crore individuals have been screened against the target of 7 crore; 2.6 crore is the number of health cards distributed.
Consider the following statements about the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission: 1. It aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia in India by 2047. 2. It targets universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 years in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26. 3. Screening uses validated Point-of-Care Testing kits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission aims at elimination by 2047 and universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26, using validated POCT kits. All correct.
Bharat NCX 2025, the National Cybersecurity Exercise that began on 21 July 2025, is conducted by the National Security Council Secretariat in collaboration with which institution?
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Correct answer: C — Rashtriya Raksha University
PIB (NSCS): the exercise is conducted by the NSCS in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU).
What is the theme of the National Cybersecurity Exercise Bharat NCX 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace
PIB (NSCS): Bharat NCX 2025 introduces the focused theme 'Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace'.
According to EPFO's provisional payroll data, what was the net addition of members in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20.06 lakh
PIB (Labour): EPFO recorded a net addition of 20.06 lakh members in May 2025, the highest since April 2018; 9.42 lakh was the number of new subscribers.
Which state led net payroll additions in EPFO's May 2025 data, with 20.33 percent of the total?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
PIB: Maharashtra led by adding 20.33% of net payroll during the month.
By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries grow in June 2025 over June 2024 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 1.7 percent
PIB (Commerce and Industry): the combined ICI increased by 1.7 percent (provisional) in June 2025; 1.2 percent was the final figure for May 2025.
The eight core industries together carry what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: C — 40.27 percent
PIB: the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
After Phase-IV amalgamation under 'One State-One RRB', how many Regional Rural Banks remain with effect from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 28
PIB (Finance): Phase-IV amalgamation reduced RRBs from 43 to 28 w.e.f. 1 May 2025, in 26 states and 2 UTs.
Consider the following statements about the consolidation of Regional Rural Banks: 1. Phase-I amalgamation (2005-2010) reduced the number of RRBs from 196 to 82. 2. Phase-IV amalgamation reduced the number of RRBs from 56 to 43. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: Phase-I cut RRBs from 196 to 82, so 1 is correct. The 56-to-43 reduction was Phase-III (by end-March 2021); Phase-IV cut them from 43 to 28, so 2 is wrong.
What rank did India secure among 110 countries at the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 7th
7th, matching its best-ever rank of 1998 and 2001; India was 4th in 2024.
Consider the following statements about India's performance at the International Mathematical Olympiad 2025: 1. It was only the second time that India won three gold medals at the IMO, the first being in 1998. 2. India's team score of 193 out of 252 was the highest ever achieved by an Indian IMO team. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India also won two silver and one bronze.
Which institution is the nodal agency that selects and trains Indian students for the International Mathematical Olympiad and other international Olympiads?
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Correct answer: D — Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE)
Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE), Mumbai, a national centre of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
Where was the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025 held?
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Correct answer: A — Sunshine Coast, Australia
Sunshine Coast, Australia; 630 students took part, including 69 female contestants.
During the Indian Navy's Singapore port call of July 2025, Commanding Officers of Eastern Fleet ships laid a wreath at which memorial?
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Correct answer: A — Kranji War Memorial
PIB (MoD): the Commanding Officers took part in a wreath-laying ceremony at the Kranji War Memorial, honouring Indian soldiers who made the supreme sacrifice in World War II.
The Indian Navy ships' port call to Singapore (16-19 July 2025) was under the command of which officer?
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Correct answer: B — Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet
PIB: the ships were under the command of Rear Admiral Susheel Menon, Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet (FOCEF).
Which group of ships made the Indian Navy's port call to Singapore in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — INS Delhi, Shakti, Satpura and Kiltan
PIB: Indian Naval Ships Delhi, Shakti, Satpura and Kiltan of the Eastern Fleet made the port call (16-19 July 2025).
Consider the following statements about the Indian Navy's Singapore port call of July 2025: 1. The deck reception during the visit was hosted on board INS Delhi. 2. The port call took place from 20 to 23 July 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB: the deck reception was hosted on board INS Shakti, so 1 is wrong; the port call was from 16 to 19 July 2025 (the release was issued on 23 July), so 2 is wrong.
INS Sandhayak, the Indian Navy's first indigenous Survey Vessel Large, made its maiden port call in July 2025 at which Malaysian port?
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Correct answer: B — Port Klang
PIB (MoD): INS Sandhayak made her maiden port call at Port Klang, Malaysia, for hydrographic cooperation from 16 to 19 July 2025.
When was INS Sandhayak, the first ship of the Sandhayak-class survey vessels, commissioned?
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Correct answer: A — February 2024
PIB: INS Sandhayak, the first of the indigenously designed and built Sandhayak-class hydrographic survey ships, was commissioned in February 2024.
The visit of INS Sandhayak to Malaysia promoted the MAHASAGAR vision. What does MAHASAGAR stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
PIB (MoD): MAHASAGAR stands for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
The Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers (CPI-AL/RL) released in July 2025 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: B — 2019=100
PIB (Labour): the Labour Bureau has revised the base year of CPI-AL and CPI-RL to 2019=100.
Consider the following statements about CPI-AL and CPI-RL for June 2025: 1. Both indices stood at 134 points. 2. The revised series covers 20 states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Labour): CPI-AL and CPI-RL for June 2025 stand at 134 points each, so 1 is correct; the revised series covers 34 states/UTs as against 20 states in the old series, so 2 is wrong.
Where was the 88th session of the Executive Committee of the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CCEXEC88) held in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rome
PIB (Health): CCEXEC88 was held at the FAO Headquarters in Rome, Italy, from 14 to 18 July 2025.
India chairs the Codex work on a group standard for which product, with Mali, Nigeria and Senegal as co-chairs?
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Correct answer: A — Whole millet grains
PIB (Health): the work on a group standard for whole millet grains is chaired by India with Mali, Nigeria and Senegal as co-chairs.
Consider the following statements about CCEXEC88 (July 2025): 1. India will co-chair new work proposals on standards for fresh turmeric and fresh broccoli. 2. The new standards for fresh dates were given final adoption at CCEXEC88 itself. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Health): India will co-chair new work on fresh turmeric and fresh broccoli, so 1 is correct; the fresh dates standards were endorsed for further approval at CAC48 in November 2025, so 2 is wrong.
Which new lichen species from the Western Ghats was reported by MACS-Agharkar Research Institute in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Allographa effusosoredica
PIB (S&T): scientists uncovered a previously unknown lichen species, Allographa effusosoredica, from the Western Ghats.
The algal partner (photobiont) identified in the new lichen Allographa effusosoredica belongs to which genus?
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Correct answer: D — Trentepohlia
PIB (S&T): the integrative study unveiled its algal partner, a Trentepohlia species.
The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana, approved by the Cabinet on 16 July 2025, will cover how many districts?
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Correct answer: B — 100
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved the scheme for a period of six years, beginning with 2025-26, to cover 100 districts.
The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana draws inspiration from which programme?
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Correct answer: D — NITI Aayog's Aspirational District Programme
PIB (Cabinet): the scheme draws inspiration from NITI Aayog's Aspirational District Programme and is the first of its kind focusing exclusively on agriculture and allied sectors.
Consider the following statements about the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana: 1. Districts will be identified on low productivity, low cropping intensity and less credit disbursement. 2. At least one district will be selected from each state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Cabinet): 100 districts will be identified based on low productivity, low cropping intensity and less credit disbursement, and a minimum of 1 district will be selected from each state. Both are correct.
The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana will be implemented through convergence of how many existing schemes, and its progress monitored monthly on how many key performance indicators?
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Correct answer: A — 36 schemes across 11 departments; 117 KPIs
PIB (Cabinet): the scheme will be implemented through convergence of 36 existing schemes across 11 departments, and progress in each district will be monitored on 117 KPIs through a dashboard on a monthly basis.
Which foreign university's India campus, inaugurated on 16 July 2025 in Gurugram, became the first to be operationalised under UGC's foreign campus regulations?
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Correct answer: C — University of Southampton
PIB (MoE): the University of Southampton became the first foreign university to operationalise a campus in India under the UGC (Setting up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions in India) Regulations.
The University of Southampton, which opened its India campus in Gurugram in July 2025, is a founding member of which UK university group?
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Correct answer: A — Russell Group
PIB (MoE): the University of Southampton is a QS Top 100 global institution and a founding member of the UK's Russell Group.
Consider the following statements about the University of Southampton's India campus: 1. It was set up under the University Grants Commission (Setting up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions in India) Regulations, a reform under NEP 2020. 2. The university received its Letter of Intent on 29 August 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoE): the campus is the first under UGC's new regulations enabling foreign universities to set up branch campuses, a key reform under NEP 2020; the university received its official Letter of Intent on 29 August 2024. Both are correct.
The CCEA on 16 July 2025 allowed NLC India Limited to invest how much in its subsidiary NLC India Renewables Limited, exempt from Navratna investment guidelines?
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Correct answer: B — ₹7,000 crore
PIB (CCEA): the exemption enables NLCIL to invest Rs 7,000 crore in its wholly owned subsidiary NIRL. (₹7,500 crore and ₹20,000 crore relate to NTPC's delegation approved the same day.)
The NLCIL investment approved on 16 July 2025 was also exempted from which ceiling stipulated by the Department of Public Enterprises for CPSE investment in JVs and subsidiaries?
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Correct answer: C — 30% of net worth
PIB (CCEA): the investment is further exempted from the 30% net worth ceiling stipulated by DPE for overall investment by CPSEs in JVs and subsidiaries.
The enhanced delegation granted to NTPC by the CCEA on 16 July 2025 for renewable energy investment raised the limit to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20,000 crore
PIB (CCEA): NTPC's investment in NGEL and onward in NREL and other JVs/subsidiaries was allowed beyond the earlier approved limit of Rs 7,500 crore up to Rs 20,000 crore.
NTPC's enhanced investment delegation approved in July 2025 is aimed at achieving how much renewable energy capacity by 2032?
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Correct answer: B — 60 GW
PIB (CCEA): the delegation is for RE capacity addition to achieve 60 GW renewable energy capacity by 2032. (32 GW by 2047 is NLCIL's target.)
Around what time (IST) did the Axiom-4 Dragon carrying Shubhanshu Shukla splash down on 15 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Shortly after 3 PM IST
ISRO: splashdown occurred on July 15, 2025 at approximately 15:03 hrs IST; NASA: 5:31 a.m. EDT (= 15:01 IST); PIB (DoS): shortly after 3 PM IST.
Where did the Axiom-4 crew capsule splash down on 15 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Pacific Ocean, off the coast of California
ISRO and NASA: the Dragon splashed down in the Pacific Ocean off the coast of California.
What was the name of the SpaceX Dragon spacecraft that brought the Axiom-4 crew back to Earth?
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Correct answer: B — Grace
PIB (DoS): Shukla returned to Earth in the SpaceX Dragon capsule 'Grace', which splashed down off the coast of San Diego.
Consider the following statements about the Axiom-4 mission: 1. Shubhanshu Shukla flew as the mission commander. 2. Shukla completed seven ISRO-led microgravity experiments aboard the ISS. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
PIB (Cabinet) and PIB (DoS): Shukla was Mission Pilot and Peggy Whitson was mission commander, so 1 is wrong; ISRO: Shukla completed a suite of seven microgravity experiments, so 2 is correct.
According to ISRO, after undocking from the ISS the Axiom-4 Dragon flew in Earth orbit for about how long before splashdown, and how many orbits did ISRO say the mission covered?
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Correct answer: D — About 22 hours 30 minutes; ~282 orbits
ISRO: after an Earth-orbiting free flight lasting nearly 22 hours and 30 minutes, the Dragon splashed down; ISRO titled the mission 'a saga of ~12 million kilometers and ~282 orbits aboard ISS'.
The ADEETIE scheme for energy efficiency in MSMEs was launched on 15 July 2025 at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Panipat, Haryana
PIB (Ministry of Power): the ADEETIE scheme was launched at a national roll-out event at Arya (P.G.) College, Panipat, Haryana.
The ADEETIE scheme, with an outlay of ₹1,000 crore, is being implemented by which body?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Energy Efficiency
PIB (Ministry of Power): the ADEETIE scheme, with a budgetary outlay of ₹1,000 crore, is an initiative of the Ministry of Power and is being implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
Under the ADEETIE scheme, what interest subvention is provided on loans for energy-efficiency projects?
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Correct answer: D — 5% for micro and small enterprises; 3% for medium enterprises
PIB (Ministry of Power): the scheme envisages interest subvention of 5% for Micro and Small Enterprises and 3% for Medium Enterprises on loans.
On World Youth Skills Day 2025 (15 July), the Ministry of Skill Development launched a week-long celebration marking how many years of the Skill India Mission?
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Correct answer: B — 10 years
PIB (MSDE): Jayant Chaudhary launched the week-long celebration of the 10-year milestone of the Skill India Mission on World Youth Skills Day.
As stated by the Skill Development Ministry in July 2025, how many youth have been trained under PMKVY over the past decade?
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Correct answer: A — Over 1.64 crore
PIB (MSDE): schemes like PMKVY have trained over 1.64 crore youth, while more than 14,500 ITIs have been supported through reforms.
The week-long celebration of 10 years of the Skill India Mission, launched on 15 July 2025, was to culminate on 22 July 2025 at Bharat Mandapam in which event?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat SkillNxt 2025
PIB (MSDE): the celebrations will culminate in the 'Bharat SkillNxt 2025' event on July 22 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
As per the PLFS monthly bulletin for June 2025, the unemployment rate (CWS) for persons aged 15 years and above was:
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Correct answer: D — 5.6%
PIB (MoSPI): the unemployment rate in CWS among persons aged 15 and above remained the same at 5.6% in May 2025 and June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS bulletin for June 2025: 1. The Labour Force Participation Rate (CWS, 15+) declined from May 2025 to June 2025. 2. LFPR in urban areas was higher than in rural areas in June 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoSPI): LFPR was 54.2% in June against 54.8% in May, so 1 is correct; rural LFPR was 56.1% and urban 50.4%, so 2 is wrong.
As per the PLFS bulletin for June 2025, the overall Worker Population Ratio (CWS, 15+) at the country level was:
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Correct answer: A — 51.2%
PIB (MoSPI): the overall WPR at the country level was 51.2% in June 2025 against 51.7% in May; 53.3% was rural WPR and 46.8% urban WPR.
India's combined merchandise and services exports for April–June 2025 were estimated at:
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Correct answer: D — US$ 210.31 billion
PIB (Commerce): cumulative exports during April–June 2025 are estimated at US$ 210.31 billion, compared to US$ 198.52 billion in April–June 2024. (US$ 112.17 billion was merchandise only.)
Which merchandise export category recorded the sharpest growth (46.93%) in June 2025, according to the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Electronic Goods
PIB (Commerce): electronic goods exports increased by 46.93% from US$ 2.82 billion in June 2024 to US$ 4.15 billion in June 2025; pharma rose 5.95%, engineering 1.35%, marine 13.33%.
Consider the following statements about India's trade data released on 15 July 2025: 1. Merchandise exports for April–June 2025 grew faster than combined merchandise and services exports. 2. India's overall trade deficit (merchandise + services) in June 2025 narrowed compared to June 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
PIB (Commerce): merchandise exports grew 1.92% against 5.94% for combined exports, so 1 is wrong; the June trade balance was –US$ 3.51 billion against –US$ 7.30 billion in June 2024, so 2 is correct.
Who was appointed Governor of Haryana by the President on 14 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ashim Kumar Ghosh
President's Secretariat communique (14 July 2025): Prof. Ashim Kumar Ghosh appointed as Governor of Haryana.
Consider the following statements about the appointments announced on 14 July 2025: 1. Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju was appointed Governor of Goa. 2. Kavinder Gupta was appointed Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh. 3. The President accepted the resignation of B. D. Mishra as Governor of Haryana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: B. D. Mishra resigned as Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh, not as Governor of Haryana.
Kavinder Gupta was appointed on 14 July 2025 as Lieutenant Governor of which Union Territory?
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Correct answer: C — Ladakh
President's Secretariat communique: Shri Kavinder Gupta appointed as Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh.
Which Article of the Constitution provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal?
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Correct answer: D — Article 155
Article 155: 'The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.'