CLAT Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many Padma Vibhushan awards were announced for 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 7
PIB 2096285 (MHA): the list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 19 Padma Bhushan and 113 Padma Shri awards.
What was the total number of Padma Awards approved for 2025, counting the duo case as one?
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Correct answer: C — 139
PIB 2096285: the President approved 139 Padma Awards including 1 duo case, counted as one.
Consider the following statements about the Padma Awards 2025: 1. 19 Padma Bhushan awards were announced. 2. 23 of the awardees are women. 3. 10 awards were conferred posthumously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096285: there are 19 Padma Bhushan awards and 23 women awardees; 13 awards are posthumous, while 10 is the count of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI awardees.
Which Japanese industrialist was named for the Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) in Trade and Industry in 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Osamu Suzuki
PIB 2096285: Osamu Suzuki (Posthumous), Trade and Industry, Japan, is among the 7 Padma Vibhushan awardees.
Match the Padma Awards 2025 recipients with their award category: 1. Sharda Sinha – Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) 2. P R Sreejesh – Padma Bhushan 3. Arijit Singh – Padma Bhushan Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096285: Sharda Sinha received the Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) and P R Sreejesh the Padma Bhushan (sports); Arijit Singh is in the Padma Shri list.
Which state topped NITI Aayog's inaugural Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Odisha
PIB 2095974: Odisha topped with a score of 67.8, followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
Who launched NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025 on 24 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Arvind Panagariya
PIB 2095974: 16th Finance Commission Chairman Arvind Panagariya launched the inaugural FHI 2025.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five sub-indices of NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Ease of Doing Business
PIB 2095974: the sub-indices are Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index and Debt Sustainability.
Which state ranked second in NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chhattisgarh
PIB 2095974: Odisha (67.8) was followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
What MSP was fixed for raw jute (TD-3 grade) for the 2025-26 season?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5,650 per quintal
PIB 2095068: the MSP of raw jute (TD-3 grade) was fixed at ₹5,650 per quintal, ₹315 above 2024-25.
What return over the all-India weighted average cost of production does the 2025-26 raw jute MSP ensure?
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Correct answer: D — 66.8%
PIB 2095068: the MSP ensures a return of 66.8% over the all-India weighted average cost of production.
Which state accounts for 82% of India's jute farmers, according to the Cabinet's January 2025 MSP decision?
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Correct answer: A — West Bengal
PIB 2095068: 82% of jute farmers belong to West Bengal; Assam and Bihar have 9% each of jute production.
From where was the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme launched on 22 January 2015?
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Correct answer: A — Panipat, Haryana
PIB 2095231: PM Narendra Modi launched BBBP on 22 January 2015 from Panipat, Haryana.
According to the Health Minister at the BBBP 10-year event, India's Maternal Mortality Rate has fallen since 2014 from 130 to how many deaths per lakh live births?
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Correct answer: C — 97
PIB 2095231: MMR decreased from 130 to 97 deaths per lakh live births, and IMR from 39 to 28 per 1,000 live births.
Consider the following about Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP): 1. It was launched in 2015 from Panipat, Haryana. 2. It is a joint effort of the Ministries of Women and Child Development, Education, and Health and Family Welfare. 3. The Mission Vatsalya Portal was launched at its 10-year celebration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095231: BBBP was launched in 2015 from Panipat by three ministries; the Mission Vatsalya Portal was launched at the 22 January 2025 event.
According to MeitY's January 2025 report, what share of national income did India's digital economy account for in 2022-23?
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Correct answer: A — 11.74%
PIB 2095260: India's digital economy was estimated at 11.74% of national income in 2022-23.
With MeitY's digital economy estimates, India became the first developing country to use which organisation's framework to size its digital economy?
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Correct answer: C — OECD
PIB 2095260: India is the first among developing countries to use the OECD framework; alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.
Consider the following about MeitY's report on India's digital economy (January 2025): 1. The digital economy was worth ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23. 2. It is projected to contribute one-fifth of GDP by 2030. 3. It also gives alternate estimates using the ADB's input-output approach. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095260: the digital economy equalled ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23, is projected at one-fifth of GDP by 2030, and alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.
From when will the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme, introduced in January 2025, be implemented?
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Correct answer: D — 1 April 2025
PIB 2094862: the DIA Scheme will be implemented with effect from 1 April 2025.
The Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of what size?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ¼ carat (25 cents)
PIB 2094862: the scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of less than ¼ carat (25 cents).
Consider the following about the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme: 1. It mandates an export obligation with 10% value addition. 2. Exporters with Two Star Export House status and above and US$15 million annual exports are eligible. 3. It allows duty-free import of lab-grown diamonds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094862: the scheme requires 10% value addition and is open to Two Star Export Houses with US$15 million exports; it covers natural cut and polished diamonds.
Who administered the presidential oath to Donald Trump on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr.
Congressional Record: Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. administered the presidential oath.
Consider the following statements about the US inauguration on 20 January 2025: 1. Donald Trump was sworn in as the 47th President. 2. The vice-presidential oath to JD Vance was administered by Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. 3. The ceremony was held in the Great Rotunda. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
Congressional Record: Trump was sworn in as the 47th President in the Great Rotunda; Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh, not the Chief Justice, administered Vance's oath.
Who administered the vice-presidential oath to JD Vance on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh
Congressional Record: Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh administered the vice-presidential oath to James David Vance.
Which three countries mediated the Gaza ceasefire that took effect on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Egypt, Qatar and the United States
UN OCHA: the ceasefire came into effect through mediation by Egypt, Qatar and the United States.
How long is the first phase of the Gaza ceasefire that took effect on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 42 days
UN OCHA: the first phase of the ceasefire is 42 days.
Consider the following statements about the first day of the Gaza ceasefire (19 January 2025): 1. Three Israeli women hostages were handed over via the ICRC. 2. 90 Palestinian detainees were released. 3. Fewer than 100 aid trucks entered Gaza that day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
UN OCHA and UN News: three women hostages were released via the ICRC and 90 Palestinian detainees were freed; more than 630 aid trucks entered Gaza that day.
How many property cards did PM Narendra Modi distribute under the SVAMITVA scheme on 18 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Over 65 lakh
PIB (Ministry of Panchayati Raj): over 65 lakh property cards were distributed on 18 January 2025, taking the total to 2.25 crore.
The SVAMITVA scheme is implemented by which Union Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Panchayati Raj
PIB: SVAMITVA is a scheme of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, whose Minister Rajiv Ranjan Singh attended the 18 January 2025 ceremony.
With the 18 January 2025 distribution, the total number of property cards issued under SVAMITVA reached:
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Correct answer: B — 2.25 crore
PIB: the distribution took the total number of property cards under SVAMITVA to 2.25 crore.
Consider the following statements about the SVAMITVA property card distribution on 18 January 2025: 1. It covered more than 50,000 villages across 237 districts. 2. The Union Territories covered were Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. 3. Tamil Nadu and Kerala were among the 10 states covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the ceremony covered 50,000+ villages in 237 districts, in 10 states and the UTs of J&K and Ladakh. The 10 states were Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Mizoram, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, not Tamil Nadu or Kerala.
Which feature of the Sanchar Saathi mobile app, launched on 17 January 2025, lets users report suspected fraud calls and SMS?
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Correct answer: A — Chakshu
PIB (DoT): Chakshu, Reporting Suspected Fraud Communications, lets users report suspected calls and SMS from the app and phone logs.
Under National Broadband Mission 2.0, operational optical fibre connectivity is to be extended to how many villages by 2030?
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Correct answer: B — 2.70 lakh
PIB: NBM 2.0 targets OFC connectivity to 2.70 lakh villages by 2030 with 95% uptime, from about 50,000 now.
Consider the following targets of National Broadband Mission 2.0 (launched January 2025): 1. Raise the national average fixed broadband download speed to at least 100 Mbps by 2030. 2. Provide broadband to 90% of anchor institutions such as schools, PHCs, anganwadis and panchayat offices by 2030. 3. Power 50% of mobile towers with sustainable energy by 2030. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB: NBM 2.0 targets at least 100 Mbps average fixed broadband speed (from 63.55 Mbps) and broadband to 90% of anchor institutions by 2030; the tower target is 30% on sustainable energy, not 50%.
With the SpaDeX docking on 16 January 2025, India became which country in the world to achieve space docking?
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Correct answer: B — Fourth
PIB (DoS): India became the fourth country to achieve space docking; The Hindu: after the USA, Russia and China.
Which launch vehicle carried the SpaDeX satellites into orbit on 30 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — PSLV-C60
PIB: ISRO launched the SpaDeX spacecraft on PSLV-C60 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, on 30 December 2024.
In the SpaDeX mission, which satellite acted as the 'Chaser'?
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Correct answer: B — SDX01
ISRO and PIB: the two satellites are SDX01, the Chaser, and SDX02, the Target, each weighing about 220 kg.
Consider the following statements about the SpaDeX mission: 1. Each of the two SpaDeX satellites weighs about 220 kg. 2. The docking sequence moved the spacecraft from a 15-metre to a 3-metre hold point before capture. 3. Power transfer between the docked spacecraft was completed on the same day as docking. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (DoS): each satellite weighs about 220 kg and the spacecraft moved from the 15 m to the 3 m hold point before capture. Undocking and power-transfer checks were scheduled for the coming days, not done on 16 January.
India's cumulative exports (merchandise and services) during April–December 2024 were estimated at about:
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Correct answer: C — USD 602.64 billion
PIB (Commerce): April–December 2024 total exports were estimated at USD 602.64 billion, up 6.03%.
By what percentage did India's merchandise exports grow in April–December 2024 over the same period of 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 1.6%
PIB: Merchandise exports were USD 321.71 billion vs USD 316.65 billion, a growth of 1.6%.
Consider the following statements about India's trade data released on 15 January 2025: 1. Total exports in April–December 2024 grew by 6.03%. 2. Non-petroleum exports in December 2024 were USD 33.09 billion. 3. Merchandise exports in April–December 2024 declined over the previous year. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Merchandise exports rose 1.6%, so statement 3 is wrong; 1 and 2 match the PIB release.
'Mission Mausam', launched on 14 January 2025, aims to make India a:
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Correct answer: D — Weather-ready and Climate-smart nation
PIB (MoES): Mission Mausam aims at transforming India into a 'Weather-ready and Climate-smart' nation.
On which occasion was 'Mission Mausam' launched by the Prime Minister?
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Correct answer: A — 150th Foundation Day of IMD
PIB (PMO): PM launched Mission Mausam at IMD's 150th Foundation Day celebrations on 14 January 2025.
In which city did Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri meet Afghanistan's Acting Foreign Minister Amir Khan Muttaqi on 8 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dubai
MEA: the meeting took place in Dubai on 8 January 2025.
Which port did India and Afghanistan agree to promote for trade and humanitarian assistance at the 8 January 2025 meeting?
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Correct answer: A — Chabahar
MEA: both sides agreed to promote the use of Chabahar port for trade and commercial activities, including humanitarian assistance for Afghanistan.
Consider the following statements about the India–Afghanistan meeting of 8 January 2025, as per MEA: 1. India will provide further material support first to the health sector and for rehabilitation of refugees. 2. India has dispatched 50,000 MT of wheat to Afghanistan as humanitarian assistance. 3. India announced the reopening of its embassy in Kabul at ambassador level. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MEA: statements 1 and 2 are in the release; it said India would consider development projects but said nothing about reopening an embassy at ambassador level.
What real GDP growth rate for 2024-25 did the NSO's First Advance Estimates, released on 7 January 2025, project?
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Correct answer: D — 6.4%
PIB (MoSPI): real GDP is estimated to grow by 6.4% in 2024-25, against 8.2% in the Provisional Estimate for 2023-24.
As per the First Advance Estimates for 2024-25, what is the estimated growth of real GVA in agriculture and allied sectors?
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Correct answer: A — 3.8%
PIB (MoSPI): real GVA of agriculture and allied sectors is estimated to grow by 3.8% in 2024-25, against 1.4% in 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about the First Advance Estimates of GDP for 2024-25: 1. Nominal GDP is estimated to grow by 9.7%. 2. Private Final Consumption Expenditure at constant prices is estimated to grow by 4.0%. 3. Real GVA of construction is estimated to grow by 8.6%. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (MoSPI): nominal GDP 9.7% and construction 8.6% are correct; PFCE grows 7.3% in 2024-25 (4.0% was the previous year's rate).
Before his appointment as Secretary, Department of Space on 7 January 2025, V. Narayanan headed which ISRO centre?
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Correct answer: A — Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre
The Hindu, Indian Express (quoting the ACC order) and ISRO: Narayanan was Director, Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), Valiamala.
For what period was V. Narayanan appointed Secretary, Department of Space and Chairman, Space Commission by the ACC order of January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Two years from 14 January 2025, or until further orders
The Hindu and Indian Express quote the ACC order: two years with effect from 14.01.2025, or until further orders, whichever is earlier.
Consider the following statements about V. Narayanan, appointed Space Secretary in January 2025: 1. He joined ISRO in 1984. 2. He completed his M.Tech in Cryogenic Engineering and Ph.D. in Aerospace Engineering at IIT Kharagpur. 3. He succeeded K. Sivan as Space Secretary. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: he joined ISRO in 1984 and studied at IIT Kharagpur; The Hindu and Indian Express: he succeeds S. Somanath, not K. Sivan.
The draft Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 released on 3 January 2025 are meant to implement which law?
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Correct answer: D — Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
PIB (MeitY): the draft rules facilitate implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
What was the last date for submitting comments on the draft DPDP Rules, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 18 February 2025
PIB (MeitY): feedback may be submitted via the MyGov portal and the last date is 18 February 2025.
Consider the following statements about the draft DPDP Rules, 2025: 1. They provide for the Data Protection Board to function as a digital office. 2. They were drafted in line with the SARAL framework. 3. Comments on them were invited only through written submissions to the Ministry of Law and Justice. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MeitY): the rules cover the functioning of the Board as a digital office and follow the SARAL framework; comments are invited via the MyGov portal, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which pillar was newly introduced in the LEADS 2024 report released on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sustainable Logistics
PIB (Commerce): LEADS 2024 evaluates four pillars — Logistics Infrastructure, Logistics Services, Operating and Regulatory Environment, and the newly introduced Sustainable Logistics.
In LEADS 2024, which of the following was among the 'Achievers' of the North-Eastern group?
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Correct answer: B — Arunachal Pradesh
PIB (Commerce): North-Eastern Achievers — Assam and Arunachal Pradesh; Meghalaya and Tripura are Fast Movers; Manipur is an Aspirer.
Consider the following statements about the LEADS 2024 report: 1. It is the sixth edition of the report. 2. Kerala and West Bengal were placed among the 'Achievers' of the Coastal group. 3. Chandigarh and Delhi were the 'Achievers' among Union Territories. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Commerce): the DPIIT Secretary called it the 6th edition; Kerala and West Bengal are Coastal 'Aspirers', so statement 2 is wrong; UT Achievers are Chandigarh and Delhi.
Which chess player was named for the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 announced on 2 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gukesh D
PIB (Sports): the Khel Ratna 2024 awardees are Gukesh D (Chess), Harmanpreet Singh (Hockey), Praveen Kumar (Para-Athletics) and Manu Bhaker (Shooting).
Praveen Kumar, one of the four Khel Ratna 2024 awardees, represents which discipline?
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Correct answer: B — Para-Athletics
PIB (Sports): Shri Praveen Kumar was named for the Khel Ratna 2024 in Para-Athletics.
On which date were the National Sports Awards 2024 to be presented by the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan?
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Correct answer: C — 17 January 2025
PIB (Sports): the awardees will receive their awards from the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 17 January 2025 (Friday) at 1100 hours.
Consider the following pairs of Arjuna Award 2024 winners and their disciplines: 1. Jyothi Yarraji — Athletics 2. Abhay Singh — Squash 3. Sajan Prakash — Swimming How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: D — All three
PIB (Sports): the Arjuna list has Jyothi Yarraji (Athletics), Abhay Singh (Squash) and Sajan Prakash (Swimming), so all three pairs are correct.
What corpus did the Union Cabinet approve on 1 January 2025 for the Fund for Innovation and Technology (FIAT) under the crop insurance schemes?
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Correct answer: D — ₹824.77 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved creation of the Fund for Innovation and Technology (FIAT) with a corpus of ₹824.77 crore.
Under YES-TECH in PMFBY, what minimum weightage is given to technology-based yield estimates?
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Correct answer: A — 30%
PIB (Cabinet): YES-TECH uses remote sensing technology for yield estimation with minimum 30% weightage to technology-based yield estimates.
Consider the following statements about the crop insurance decisions of 1 January 2025: 1. WINDS envisages Automatic Weather Stations at block level and Automatic Rain Gauges at panchayat level. 2. 2024-25 was approved as the first year of WINDS implementation, with central fund sharing of 90:10. 3. Madhya Pradesh has adopted 100% technology-based yield estimation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Cabinet): all three are stated — AWS at block and ARGs at panchayat level; 2024-25 approved as WINDS' first year with 90:10 central sharing; MP has adopted 100% technology-based yield estimation.
Which body centrally coordinates the subscription process under the One Nation One Subscription scheme?
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Correct answer: B — INFLIBNET
PIB (Education): the entire subscription process will be centrally coordinated by INFLIBNET, an autonomous inter-university centre under the UGC.
How many international publishers' journals are covered under Phase I of One Nation One Subscription, which began on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30
PIB (Education): Phase I provides access to more than 13,000 scholarly journals from 30 major international publishers; 6,300 is the number of institutions.
Consider the following statements about the One Nation One Subscription scheme: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 25 November 2024. 2. ₹6,000 crore has been allocated for the three calendar years 2025, 2026 and 2027. 3. It provides ₹150 crore per year for beneficiary authors to publish in selected open access journals. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Education): Cabinet approved ONOS on 25 November 2024; ₹6,000 crore covers 2025, 2026 and 2027; and ₹150 crore per year supports open access publishing.
At what rate per tonne did the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2025 extend the one-time special package on DAP beyond the NBS subsidy?
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Correct answer: A — ₹3,500 per tonne
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved extension of the one-time special package on DAP beyond the NBS subsidy @ ₹3,500 per MT from 01.01.2025 till further orders.
What is the approximate financial implication of the DAP special package extension approved on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Up to ₹3,850 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the tentative budgetary requirement is approximately up to ₹3,850 crore; ₹2,625 crore was the earlier package and ₹6,475 crore is the total since April 2024.
Consider the following statements about fertiliser subsidy as stated in the Cabinet release of 1 January 2025: 1. Subsidy on P&K fertilisers has been governed by the NBS scheme since 1 April 2010. 2. The first one-time special package on DAP covered 1 April to 31 December 2024. 3. The new extension of the special package is limited to the Rabi 2024-25 season only. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet): NBS has governed P&K subsidy w.e.f. 01.04.2010 and the July 2024 package covered 01.04.2024 to 31.12.2024; the extension runs from 01.01.2025 till further orders, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2024 released on 31 December 2024, what is India's overall stage of ground water extraction?
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Correct answer: C — 60.47%
PIB (Jal Shakti): annual extraction of 245.64 BCM against an extractable resource of 406.19 BCM gives a stage of extraction of 60.47%; 73.4% is the share of safe units and 11.13% the share of over-exploited units.
Out of 6,746 assessment units in the 2024 ground water assessment, how many were categorised as 'Over-exploited'?
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Correct answer: A — 751
PIB (Jal Shakti): 751 units are over-exploited; 206 are critical, 711 semi-critical and 127 saline, with 4,951 safe.
Consider the following statements about the 2024 ground water assessment compared with the 2017 assessment: 1. Total annual recharge increased by 15 BCM. 2. Annual extraction increased by 3 BCM. 3. Recharge from tanks, ponds and water conservation structures rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Jal Shakti): recharge rose by 15 BCM and extraction fell (not rose) by 3 BCM; recharge from tanks, ponds and WCS rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. So statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Till which date did NPCI on 31 December 2024 extend the deadline for UPI apps to comply with the 30% transaction-volume cap?
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Correct answer: C — 31 December 2026
Business Standard/TechCrunch: NPCI extended the compliance deadline by two years, to 31 December 2026.
Before NPCI removed the limit on 31 December 2024, WhatsApp Pay's UPI user onboarding was capped at:
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Correct answer: D — 100 million users
Business Standard/TechCrunch: the limit had been set at 100 million users; 20 million and 40 million were earlier stages, and 500 million is roughly WhatsApp's Indian user base.
Consider the following statements about NPCI's decisions of 31 December 2024: 1. The UPI user onboarding limit for WhatsApp Pay was removed with immediate effect. 2. The 30% UPI volume cap was first proposed by NPCI in November 2020. 3. The volume cap applies only to bank-owned UPI apps. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
The Hindu/Business Standard: the WhatsApp Pay limit was removed with immediate effect and the 30% cap was first proposed in November 2020; the cap concerns third-party app providers such as PhonePe and Google Pay, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many payloads were flown on the POEM-4 platform of the PSLV-C60/SpaDeX mission launched on 30 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 24
ISRO: POEM-4 carried 24 payloads, 14 from ISRO/DOS centres and 10 from non-government entities through IN-SPACe; POEM-3 had carried 8.
The Walking Robotic Arm (RRM-TD) on POEM-4, described by ISRO as India's first space robotic manipulator with walking capability, was developed by:
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Correct answer: C — ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU)
ISRO: the Relocatable Robotic Manipulator-Technology Demonstrator (Walking Robotic Arm) was developed by IISU; the debris capture robotic manipulator and CROPS are from VSSC.
Consider the following statements about the PSLV-C60 mission: 1. PSLV-C60 was the first vehicle integrated up to the PS4 stage at the PSLV Integration Facility before being moved for satellite assembly. 2. Ten of the POEM-4 payloads came from academia and start-ups through IN-SPACe. 3. The previous POEM-3 platform had hosted 12 payloads. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: PSLV-C60 was the first vehicle integrated up to PS4 at PIF, and 10 of the 24 payloads came from NGEs via IN-SPACe; POEM-3 hosted only eight payloads, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the RBI's Financial Stability Report released on 30 December 2024, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to a 12-year low of how much in September 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 2.6%
RBI FSR: the GNPA ratio of SCBs declined to a 12-year low of 2.6% in September 2024; 0.6% is the NNPA ratio and 3.0% the baseline stress-test projection for March 2026.
The RBI's Financial Stability Report reflects the collective assessment of which body on the resilience of the Indian financial system?
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Correct answer: B — Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council
RBI press release: the FSR reflects the collective assessment of the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC).
Consider the following statements about scheduled commercial banks as reported in the RBI's December 2024 Financial Stability Report (September 2024 data): 1. CRAR and CET1 ratios stood at 16.7% and 14.0% respectively. 2. The provisioning coverage ratio improved to 77.0%. 3. The net NPA ratio stood at around 1.6%. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
RBI FSR: CRAR and CET1 were 16.7% and 14.0% and the PCR improved to 77.0%; the NNPA ratio was around 0.6%, not 1.6%, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to India's fourth Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted to the UNFCCC on 30 December 2024, by how much did India's total GHG emissions in 2020 change compared with 2019?
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Correct answer: D — Decreased by 7.93%
PIB (MoEFCC): India's total GHG emissions in 2020 decreased by 7.93% with respect to 2019.
As per BUR-4, which sector was the second-largest contributor to India's GHG emissions in 2020, after energy?
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Correct answer: B — Agriculture
PIB (MoEFCC): energy contributed 75.66%, followed by agriculture (13.72%), IPPU (8.06%) and waste (2.56%); LULUCF acted as a net sink.
Consider the following statements regarding India's BUR-4: 1. It contains the national GHG inventory for the year 2020. 2. Between 2005 and 2020, India's emission intensity of GDP fell by 36%. 3. By October 2024, non-fossil sources made up more than half of India's installed electricity capacity. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoEFCC): BUR-4 contains the 2020 inventory and emission intensity of GDP fell by 36% (2005–2020); the non-fossil share of installed capacity was 46.52%, less than half, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the HCES 2023-24 factsheet released on 27 December 2024, what was the average MPCE in urban India (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6,996
PIB (MoSPI): average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹6,996 in urban India without imputation; ₹7,078 is the urban figure with imputation and ₹6,459 was the 2022-23 urban figure.
Which State recorded the highest MPCE in both rural and urban areas in HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — Sikkim
PIB (MoSPI): among the States, MPCE was highest in Sikkim (rural ₹9,377, urban ₹13,927) and lowest in Chhattisgarh.
In HCES 2023-24, which State had the highest rural-urban difference in average MPCE?
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Correct answer: D — Meghalaya
PIB (MoSPI): the rural-urban difference in average MPCE among the States was highest in Meghalaya (104%), followed by Jharkhand (83%) and Chhattisgarh (80%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The share of non-food items in average MPCE was 53% in rural and 60% in urban areas. 2. The estimates are based on data from 2,61,953 households. 3. The fieldwork was conducted from August 2022 to July 2023. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): non-food items made up 53% (rural) and 60% (urban) of MPCE, and the estimates come from 2,61,953 households. Statement 3 is wrong: HCES 2023-24 fieldwork ran from August 2023 to July 2024 (August 2022 to July 2023 was HCES 2022-23).
Former Prime Minister Dr Manmohan Singh, who died on 26 December 2024, was born in which village?
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Correct answer: A — Gah, West Punjab
PIB (Cabinet resolution): Dr Manmohan Singh was born on 26 September 1932 in village Gah, West Punjab, in the Punjab province of undivided India.
During which period did Dr Manmohan Singh serve as Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
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Correct answer: C — September 1982 to January 1985
PIB (Cabinet resolution): Dr Manmohan Singh was Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from September 1982 to January 1985; November 1976 to April 1980 was his tenure as DEA Secretary and April 1980 to September 1982 as Member Secretary, Planning Commission.
In which year was Dr Manmohan Singh conferred the Padma Vibhushan?
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Correct answer: D — 1987
PIB (Cabinet resolution): Dr Manmohan Singh received the Padma Vibhushan in 1987; 1956 was the Adam Smith Prize, 1993 the Euromoney Finance Minister of the Year award and 1995 the Jawaharlal Nehru Birth Centenary Award of the Indian Science Congress.
Consider the following statements about Dr Manmohan Singh: 1. He served as India's Finance Minister from 1991 to 1996. 2. He was Chief Economic Adviser in the Ministry of Finance from 1972 to 1976. 3. He received his D.Phil from the University of Cambridge in 1962. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet resolution): he was Finance Minister from 1991 to 1996 and CEA from 1972 to 1976. Statement 3 is wrong: his D.Phil (1962) was from the University of Oxford; from Cambridge he received the Economics Tripos in 1957.
Who was appointed Governor of Manipur by the President of India on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Ajay Kumar Bhalla
PIB (President's Secretariat): Ajay Kumar Bhalla was appointed Governor of Manipur in the press communique of 24 December 2024.
General (Dr) Vijay Kumar Singh (Retd.) was appointed Governor of which State on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Mizoram
PIB (President's Secretariat): General (Dr) Vijay Kumar Singh (Retd.) was appointed Governor of Mizoram.
Whose resignation as Governor of Odisha did the President of India accept on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Raghubar Das
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President accepted the resignation of Raghubar Das as Governor of Odisha and appointed Dr Hari Babu Kambhampati in his place.
Consider the following statements about the gubernatorial changes announced on 24 December 2024: 1. Arif Mohammed Khan was moved from Kerala to Bihar. 2. Dr Hari Babu Kambhampati was Governor of Mizoram before being appointed to Odisha. 3. The appointments take effect from the dates the appointees assume charge. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (President's Secretariat): Arif Mohammed Khan, Governor of Kerala, was appointed Governor of Bihar; Hari Babu Kambhampati, Governor of Mizoram, was appointed to Odisha; and the appointments take effect from the dates of assuming charge. All three statements are correct.