Banking & Insurance Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
India's headline CPI inflation for September 2025 (1.54%) was the lowest since:
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Correct answer: B — June 2017
PIB (MoSPI): headline inflation of 1.54% in September 2025 is the lowest year-on-year inflation after June 2017.
What was the all-India food inflation based on the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — -2.28%
PIB (MoSPI): CFPI-based food inflation for September 2025 is -2.28% (provisional); -2.17% and -2.47% are the rural and urban figures.
Consider the following statements about the CPI release for September 2025: 1. The housing index used in CPI is compiled for the urban sector only. 2. Urban headline inflation was lower than rural headline inflation in September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the housing index is compiled for the urban sector only; urban headline inflation (2.04%) was higher than rural (1.07%).
Who chairs the Technical Expert Group constituted by MoSPI to guide the National Household Income Survey 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Dr Surjit S. Bhalla
PIB: MoSPI constituted a Technical Expert Group under the Chairmanship of Dr Surjit S. Bhalla, former Executive Director of India, IMF.
When is the National Household Income Survey (NHIS), India's first pan-India household income survey, scheduled to be launched?
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Correct answer: D — February 2026
PIB: the National Household Income Survey is scheduled to be launched in February 2026 and will be the first-ever pan-India survey focused on household income.
The PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, which completed four years in October 2025, was launched on:
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Correct answer: C — 13 October 2021
PIB: launched on 13 October 2021, PM GatiShakti integrates geospatial data from more than 57 Central Ministries, Departments and States/UTs.
'PM GatiShakti – Offshore', launched in October 2025, is primarily meant for:
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Correct answer: A — Integrated planning and management of offshore development
PIB: PM GatiShakti – Offshore is a digital platform for the integrated planning and management of offshore development, consolidating datasets from multiple ministries.
Consider the following statements about PM GatiShakti District Master Plans: 1. They were first developed for 28 Aspirational Districts in October 2024. 2. As of October 2025, they are being rolled out to all 112 Aspirational Districts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: PM GatiShakti District Master Plans were launched for 28 Aspirational Districts in October 2024 and are now being progressively rolled out across all 112 Aspirational Districts.
Where was COP30 to the UNFCCC scheduled to be held from 10 to 21 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Belém, Brazil
PIB: the 30th Conference of Parties (CoP30) to the UNFCCC would be held in Belém from November 10–21, 2025; the Pre-COP was in Brasilia.
At the Pre-COP30 Ministerial Roundtable in October 2025, India said COP30 should be the 'COP of':
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Correct answer: D — Adaptation
PIB: 'COP30 should be the COP of Adaptation', the Minister emphasized, urging a minimum package of indicators from the UAE–Belém Work Programme.
Under the 'Vishwas Scheme' approved by EPFO's CBT in October 2025, penal damages for delayed PF remittance (beyond 4 months) are set at:
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Correct answer: B — A flat rate of 1% per month
PIB: under Vishwas Scheme the rate of penal damages will be a flat 1% per month, except graded rates of 0.25% for default up to 2 months and 0.50% up to 4 months.
Consider the following statements about the partial withdrawal changes approved at the 238th CBT meeting: 1. Members can withdraw up to 100% of the eligible balance, including the employer's share. 2. The minimum service requirement for all partial withdrawals has been reduced to 12 months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: members can withdraw up to 100% of the eligible balance including employee and employer share, and the minimum service requirement has been uniformly reduced to 12 months for all partial withdrawals.
How many earlier partial-withdrawal provisions of the EPF Scheme were merged into a single rule by the CBT in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 13
PIB: CBT simplified partial withdrawals by merging 13 complex provisions into a single rule under three categories.
During which period will the Employees' Enrolment Scheme 2025 of EPFO remain operational?
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Correct answer: A — 1 November 2025 to 30 April 2026
PIB: the scheme shall be operational from November 1, 2025, to April 30, 2026.
Under the Employees' Enrolment Scheme 2025, what penal damage must an employer pay?
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Correct answer: D — A lump sum of Rs 100 only
PIB: employers availing the scheme shall be liable to pay a nominal Penal Damage of Rs 100 only as a lump sum.
Which of the following Global Impact Challenges under the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 is meant for young innovators aged 13–21 years?
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Correct answer: D — YUVAi
PIB: YUVAi is a youth-first initiative for innovators aged 13–21 years to develop AI solutions for public good.
Consider the following statements about the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 challenges: 1. 'AI by HER' is organised by the Women Entrepreneurship Platform of NITI Aayog. 2. The Summit is scheduled for 16–20 February 2026 in New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: AI by HER is organised by the Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP), NITI Aayog; the grand showcase is the India-AI Impact Summit 2026, 16–20 February 2026, New Delhi.
According to NITI Aayog's October 2025 report on deep-sea fisheries, India accounts for what share of global fish production?
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Correct answer: A — 8%
PIB: India is the second-largest fish-producing country in the world, accounting for 8% of global production.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's report 'India's Blue Economy: Strategy for Harnessing Deep-Sea and Offshore Fisheries': 1. India's EEZ has an estimated potential yield of 7.16 million tonnes. 2. Phase 1 of the proposed roadmap covers 2025–28. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the EEZ has an estimated potential yield of 7.16 million tonnes; Phase 1 (laying the foundation and fostering early growth) spans 3 years, 2025–28.
LEAPS 2025, launched by DPIIT in October 2025, recognises excellence in which sector?
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Correct answer: D — Logistics
PIB: the Logistics Excellence, Advancement, and Performance Shield (LEAPS) 2025 aims to benchmark logistics excellence, aligned with the National Logistics Policy and PM GatiShakti.
Exercise AUSTRAHIND, whose 2025 edition began on 13 October 2025, is a joint military exercise between India and which country?
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Correct answer: A — Australia
PIB: an Indian Army contingent departed for Perth, Australia, to take part in the India–Australia joint military Exercise AUSTRAHIND 2025.
Where was Exercise AUSTRAHIND 2025 held?
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Correct answer: C — Irwin Barracks, Perth
PIB: the contingent departed for Irwin Barracks, Perth, Australia, for AUSTRAHIND 2025, scheduled from 13 to 26 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about Exercise AUSTRAHIND 2025: 1. It was the third edition of the exercise. 2. The Indian contingent was led by a battalion of the Sikh Regiment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: AUSTRAHIND 2025 was the fourth edition, and the Indian contingent of 120 personnel was led by a battalion of the Gorkha Rifles.
What is the outlay of the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana launched by PM Modi on 11 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹24,000 crore
PIB: the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana has an outlay of ₹24,000 crore; together with the Pulses Mission (₹11,440 crore) the two schemes total ₹35,440 crore.
According to PM Modi, how many government schemes are brought together under the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana?
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Correct answer: D — 36
PIB: the PM said that under the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana, 36 different government schemes are being brought together in a unified and coordinated manner.
Consider the following statements about the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana: 1. Its 100 districts were selected on agricultural output per unit of land, cropping frequency and the availability of institutional credit for farmers. 2. It was launched at IARI, New Delhi, on the birth anniversaries of Jayaprakash Narayan and Nanaji Deshmukh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the 100 districts were chosen on three parameters — output per unit of land, number of times crops are grown on the same land in a year, and availability of institutional loans; the PM launched it at IARI on 11 October, the birth anniversaries of JP and Nanaji Deshmukh.
What pulses production target does the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses set for 2030–31?
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Correct answer: C — 350 lakh tonnes
PIB: the mission aims to scale up domestic pulses production to 350 lakh tonnes and expand cultivation to 310 lakh hectares by 2030–31.
Consider the following statements about the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses: 1. It provides for 100% procurement of Tur, Urad and Masoor at MSP for four years. 2. It will be implemented from 2025–26 to 2029–30. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the mission ensures 100% procurement of Tur, Urad and Masoor at MSP for four years, but it runs from 2025–26 to 2030–31, not 2029–30.
Under the Pulses Mission, seed quality assurance will be maintained through which portal?
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Correct answer: B — SATHI
PIB: breeder seed production will be monitored by ICAR and quality assurance maintained through the SATHI portal (seedtrace.gov.in).
Indian Coast Guard Ship Sachet made a port call at Maputo on 11 October 2025. Maputo is in which country, according to the PIB release?
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Correct answer: D — Mozambique
PIB: ICGS Sachet made a port call at Maputo, Mozambique, on 11 October 2025 during its overseas deployment to Africa.
Consider the following statements about ICGS Sachet's October 2025 visit to Maputo: 1. The ship carried 20 metric tonnes of HADR material, including medicines, for Mozambique. 2. ICGS Sachet is a Fast Patrol Vessel of the Indian Coast Guard. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the ship carried 20 metric tonnes of HADR material including medical stores and medicines; ICGS Sachet is an Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV), not a Fast Patrol Vessel.
At which event did global 6G alliances issue the 'New Delhi Declaration' in October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — International Bharat6G Symposium 2025
PIB: the joint statement was issued at the International Bharat6G Symposium 2025, held alongside India Mobile Congress 2025.
Consider the following statements about the 6G New Delhi Declaration (October 2025): 1. It calls for 6G to be developed as a global public good through open, transparent and inclusive standardisation. 2. It envisions integrating terrestrial and non-terrestrial networks such as satellites and high-altitude platforms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the declaration calls for open, transparent and inclusive standardisation of 6G as a global public good, and envisions end-to-end coverage by integrating terrestrial and non-terrestrial networks, including satellites and high-altitude platforms.
The Central Electricity Authority released a roadmap on its 52nd Foundation Day (11 October 2025) for which nuclear capacity goal?
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Correct answer: B — 100 GW by 2047
PIB: CEA released the 'Road Map for Achieving the Goal of 100 GW of Nuclear Capacity by 2047'.
Consider the following statements about the Central Electricity Authority (CEA): 1. The CEA was set up in 1983. 2. On its 52nd Foundation Day it launched the EADMS portal for reporting and analysing electrical accidents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the CEA Chairperson recalled the Authority's journey since its inception in 1973 (not 1983); the EADMS portal was launched as a central platform for reporting, analysing and minimising electrical accidents.
On which date did the India–EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October 2025
PIB: TEPA was signed on 10 March 2024 in New Delhi and came into force on 1 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA TEPA: 1. EFTA states have pledged to increase FDI in India by $50 billion in the first 10 years and by a further $50 billion in the next five years. 2. India has offered tariff concessions on 92.2% of its tariff lines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: under Article 7.1, EFTA pledged $50 billion FDI in the first 10 years and another $50 billion in the next five; it is EFTA that offers concessions on 92.2% of tariff lines — India offers 82.7%.
Consider the following statements about the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) scheme: 1. The Union Cabinet approved the ₹1 lakh crore RDI Fund on 1 July 2025. 2. The Special Purpose Fund within ANRF will invest directly in startups and industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Cabinet approved the ₹1 lakh crore RDI Fund on 1 July 2025; the Special Purpose Fund will not invest directly in industries and startups but will channel capital to second-level fund managers such as AIFs, DFIs and NBFCs.
Which department is the nodal ministry for the ₹1 lakh crore RDI scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Department of Science & Technology
PIB: the Department of Science & Technology (DST) is the nodal ministry of the RDI scheme.
Africa's 'Mission 300', which India backed at the G20 Energy Transitions Ministerial in October 2025, aims to:
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Correct answer: A — Electrify 300 million Africans by 2030
PIB: Manohar Lal reaffirmed India's support for Africa's Mission 300 — an initiative to electrify 300 million Africans by 2030.
Consider the following statements made at the G20 Energy Transitions Ministerial Meeting (October 2025): 1. The Global Biofuels Alliance now includes 32 countries and 14 international organisations. 2. Bharat Urja Manthan – A Global Energy Conclave is scheduled for March 2026 in New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Manohar Lal said the Global Biofuels Alliance now has 32 countries and 14 international organisations, and invited countries to Bharat Urja Manthan, scheduled for March 2026 in New Delhi.
What was India's result at the New Delhi 2025 World Para Athletics Championships?
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Correct answer: A — 22 medals; 10th place
PIB: India finished 10th overall with a record 22 medals — 6 gold, 9 silver and 7 bronze — its best-ever performance at the championships.
At which venue were the New Delhi 2025 World Para Athletics Championships held?
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Correct answer: B — Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium
PIB: the championships were held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, with over 2,100 participants from 100 countries in 186 medal events.
When is the India–AI Impact Summit 2026 scheduled to be held in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: A — 19–20 February 2026
PIB: the India AI-Impact Summit 2026, hosted by MeitY, will be held on 19–20 February 2026 in New Delhi.
Consider the following statements about the India–AI Impact Summit 2026: 1. It is guided by three sutras — People, Planet and Progress. 2. Its seven thematic chakras include 'Science' and 'Democratizing AI Resources'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the summit is guided by the sutras of People, Planet and Progress, translated into seven chakras, including Science and Democratizing AI Resources.
According to NITI Aayog's tax working paper of October 2025, the Income-tax Act, 2025 continues to criminalise how many actions and omissions?
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Correct answer: B — 35 across 13 provisions
PIB: the paper highlights that the 2025 Act continues to criminalise 35 actions and omissions across 13 provisions, most prescribing mandatory imprisonment.
Consider the following statements about the NITI Tax Policy Working Paper Series: 1. The first paper in the series dealt with Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors in India. 2. The second paper recommends removing criminal sanctions even for cases of fraud and wilful evasion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the first paper was on certainty, transparency and uniformity in Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors; the second paper recommends restricting criminal sanctions to cases involving fraud or wilful evasion, not removing them.
What combined initial funding have India and the UK committed to the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre?
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Correct answer: A — £24 million over four years
PIB: India and the UK have committed a combined initial £24 million over four years to the initiative.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre: 1. Its three focus areas are AI in telecom, quantum communication and semiconductor design. 2. It is delivered jointly by UKRI and India's Department of Telecommunications under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the three focus areas are transforming telecom with AI, non-terrestrial networks and telecom cybersecurity (not quantum or semiconductors); the Centre is delivered by UKRI and DoT under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative.
Which Australian naval facility in Sydney did Rajnath Singh visit on 10 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — HMAS Kuttabul
PIB: Rajnath Singh visited the historic and strategic naval facility HMAS Kuttabul in Sydney on 10 October 2025.
In which year was the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership established, as recalled by Rajnath Singh in Sydney?
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Correct answer: C — 2020
PIB: Rajnath Singh spoke of the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership 2020 as the banner for re-positioning defence relations.
Consider the following statements from Rajnath Singh's address at the India–Australia Defence Industry Business Round Table (October 2025): 1. Australia has identified India as a 'Top Tier Partner', removing certain regulatory barriers to technology sharing. 2. India allows FDI in defence up to 49% under the automatic route. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Rajnath Singh said Australia has identified India as a Top Tier Partner; he said the FDI policy has been liberalised up to 74% (not 49%) under the automatic route.
According to NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy' (October 2025), India's tech services sector could create up to how many new jobs in the next five years?
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Correct answer: D — 4 million
PIB: the roadmap says India's tech services sector has the opportunity to create up to 4 million new jobs in the next five years.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy': 1. It was developed by NITI Aayog's Frontier Tech Hub in collaboration with NASSCOM and BCG. 2. It recommends launching a National AI Talent Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the roadmap was developed by NITI's Frontier Tech Hub with NASSCOM and BCG, and recommends a National AI Talent Mission working with the IndiaAI Mission.
Who was designated Mental Health Ambassador by the Union Health Ministry on World Mental Health Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Deepika Padukone
PIB: J P Nadda said Deepika Padukone has been designated as the Mental Health Ambassador for raising awareness about access to mental health services.
After the October 2025 upgrade, the Tele MANAS app is available in how many regional languages in addition to English and Hindi?
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Correct answer: B — 10
PIB: the Tele MANAS app will now be available in 10 regional languages in addition to English and Hindi.
The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) signed an MoU in October 2025 with which entity to support the Bharat Taxi ride-hailing platform?
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Correct answer: B — Sahakar Taxi Cooperative Limited
PIB: NeGD and Sahakar Taxi Cooperative Limited formalised their collaboration through an MoU for advisory and technical support to Bharat Taxi, to be launched in December 2025.
During UK PM Keir Starmer's October 2025 visit, which UK university received in-principle approval to open a campus in GIFT City?
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Correct answer: B — University of Surrey
PIB (list of outcomes): in-principle approval was given for opening a campus of the University of Surrey in GIFT City; Lancaster University received an LoI for Bengaluru.
India and the UK agreed in October 2025 to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of which missile system?
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Correct answer: D — Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM)
PIB (joint statement): both leaders announced agreement to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM) systems to support India's air defence.
Consider the following statements about UK PM Keir Starmer's visit to India (October 2025): 1. Phase II of the UK-India Critical Minerals Supply Chain Observatory includes a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad. 2. It was Starmer's second official visit to India as Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Phase II of the Observatory will establish a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad; the joint statement says this was Prime Minister Starmer's first official visit to India.
Under the October 2025 amendments to the PLI scheme for textiles, the minimum investment for new applicants in the Part-1 category was reduced to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹150 crore
PIB: with effect from 1 August 2025, the minimum investment for new applicants was reduced from ₹300 crore to ₹150 crore in Part-1 and from ₹100 crore to ₹50 crore in Part-2.
Consider the following statements about the amended PLI scheme for textiles: 1. The incremental turnover required to qualify for incentives has been reduced from 25% to 10%. 2. The application portal has been opened until 31 March 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: from FY 2025–26 applicants need a minimum 10% incremental turnover (down from 25%); the application portal is open until 31 December 2025, not 31 March 2026.
Which India–Australia implementing arrangement was signed at the inaugural Defence Ministers' Dialogue in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation
PIB (joint statement): ministers welcomed the signing of the Australia–India Implementing Arrangement on Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation; the air-to-air refuelling arrangement had been signed in 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue (October 2025): 1. It was the inaugural edition, and the ministers agreed to hold it annually. 2. Australia's first defence trade mission to India took place from 7 to 10 October 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the October 2025 meeting was the inaugural Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue, with a commitment to an annual dialogue; ministers welcomed Australia's first defence trade mission to India from 7 to 10 October 2025.
What is the duration of the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 launched in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 60 days
PIB: the 60-day Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 prioritises six enhanced key strategies.
Consider the following statements about the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign: 1. The first campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day. 2. At the launch of TFYC 3.0, the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at AIIMS, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the inaugural campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day; the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at NIMHANS, Bengaluru, not AIIMS.