Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many candidates did UPSC recommend for appointment in the final result of the Civil Services Examination 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 1,009
A total of 1,009 candidates were recommended; 230 are on the reserve list.
How many IAS vacancies were reported by the Government for the Civil Services Examination 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 180
The Government reported 180 IAS vacancies; 55 were for the IFS and 147 for the IPS.
Which edition of Civil Services Day was observed on 21 April 2025, and where did the Prime Minister address civil servants?
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Correct answer: B — 17th, Vigyan Bhawan
17th, Vigyan Bhawan: the PM addressed the 17th Civil Services Day at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
Consider the following about Civil Services Day 2025: 1. The observance marked the 150th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. 2. Civil Services Day is linked to Sardar Patel's address of 21 April 1947 in which he called civil servants the 'Steel Frame of India'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as stated in the PMO release on the PM's address.
Consider the following about Amit Shah's review of the new criminal laws in Chhattisgarh on 21 April 2025: 1. He asked the state to fix accountability of DSP-level officers for filing chargesheets within 60 and 90 days. 2. The review meeting was held in Raipur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The meeting was held in New Delhi.
At his review of the new criminal laws in Chhattisgarh in April 2025, Amit Shah said every police station and DSP-level officer should regularly use which system in serious crime investigations?
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Correct answer: D — NATGRID
NATGRID: Shah said police stations and DSP-level officers should regularly use NATGRID in serious crime investigations.
How many women officers are there in the 2023 IAS batch of 180, described as the largest women representation in the service's history?
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Correct answer: D — 74
74 women, about 41% of the batch of 180.
Consider the following about the Assistant Secretary programme for IAS officer trainees: 1. It began in 2015. 2. In 2025, the trainees are attached to 46 Central Ministries for eight weeks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the DoPT release.
Which panchayat in Sukma district became the first Naxal-free panchayat after 11 Naxalites surrendered there, as announced on 18 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Badesetti
Badesetti: 11 Naxalites surrendered in Badesetti Panchayat, making it the first Naxal-free panchayat.
Consider the following about the anti-Naxal developments in Chhattisgarh announced on 18 April 2025: 1. CoBRA commandos and Chhattisgarh Police arrested 22 Naxalites in Bijapur district. 2. 33 Naxalites surrendered in Sukma district. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the MHA release.
From when will the rules mandating verification and stamping of radar-based vehicle speed-measurement equipment come into force?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2025
1 July 2025, as per the Department of Consumer Affairs.
The rules for radar speed-measurement equipment notified in April 2025 were drafted using which international standard?
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Correct answer: A — OIML R 91
OIML R 91: the drafting committee used technical inputs based on this international standard.
The Directorate General of Mines Safety (DGMS), whose functioning Mansukh Mandaviya reviewed in April 2025, is headquartered in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Dhanbad
Dhanbad: the Minister visited the DGMS headquarters in Dhanbad, Jharkhand.
When were the Guidelines for the Prevention of Misleading Advertisements in the Coaching Sector, 2024 issued?
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Correct answer: D — 13 November 2024
13 November 2024, as stated by the CCPA.
Consider the following statements about the CCPA's April 2025 advisory to coaching centres: 1. Disclaimers must be displayed in the same font size as other important information. 2. Advertisements must disclose a student's rank, course type and whether the course was paid. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The CCPA listed both disclosure requirements.
The MoU signed between FIU-IND and the RBI on 17 April 2025 is aimed at effective compliance with which law?
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Correct answer: B — Prevention of Money Laundering Act
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act and the Rules framed under it.
Consider the following statements about the FIU-IND–RBI MoU of April 2025: 1. The two sides will hold quarterly meetings on issues of mutual interest. 2. The MoU was signed on behalf of the RBI by the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The RBI signatory was R.L.K. Rao, Executive Director, Department of Regulation, not the Governor.
How many individuals were insured through the Government e Marketplace (GeM) in 2024-25?
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Correct answer: D — Over 1.3 crore
Over 1.3 crore: more than 1.3 crore individuals under health, life and personal accident policies.
When was the Insurance Services category introduced on GeM?
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Correct answer: C — January 2022
January 2022; only IRDAI-approved providers are onboarded.
The CCI's April 2025 order against UFO Moviez and Qube Cinema found a contravention of which provision of the Competition Act, 2002?
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Correct answer: B — Section 3(4)
Section 3(4), through tie-in arrangements, exclusive supply agreements and refusal to deal; sanctions were imposed under Section 27.
Consider the following statements about the CCI order of 16 April 2025: 1. It related to the lease of DCI-compliant digital cinema equipment to cinema theatre owners. 2. A penalty of ₹165.8 lakh was imposed on Qube Cinema Technologies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. UFO Moviez (with Scrabble Digital) was fined ₹104.03 lakh and Qube ₹165.8 lakh.
Booth Level Agents from which state took part in the Election Commission's first-ever BLA training in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bihar
Bihar: about 280 BLAs from Bihar of 10 recognised political parties took part.
Where was the Election Commission's first training programme for Booth Level Agents held in April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — IIIDEM, New Delhi
At the India International Institute for Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
How many judicial officers were appointed Judges of the Allahabad High Court by the notification dated 16 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Six
Six judicial officers, appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
Under the SC sub-categorisation ordinance approved by the Andhra Pradesh Cabinet in April 2025, the state's Scheduled Castes are divided into:
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Correct answer: D — 59 castes in three groups
59 Scheduled Castes in three groups: Group I (12 castes, 1%), Group II (18 castes, 6.5%) and Group III (29 castes, 7.5%).
Which roster system will Andhra Pradesh follow for implementing SC sub-categorisation, as per the April 2025 Cabinet decision?
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Correct answer: B — 200-point roster
A 200-point roster, in all 26 districts.
Which state, on 14 April 2025, became the first to implement sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes through a gazette notification?
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Correct answer: A — Telangana
Telangana published its Scheduled Castes (Rationalisation of Reservation) Act, 2025 in the gazette on 14 April 2025.
Under Telangana's SC sub-categorisation, what share of the 15% SC reservation goes to Group I, made up of 15 communities?
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Correct answer: D — 1%
1% goes to Group I; Group II gets 9% and Group III gets 5%.
Consider the following statements about Telangana's SC sub-categorisation notified on 14 April 2025: 1. The 59 SC communities are divided into three groups. 2. Group III, with 26 communities, gets 9% reservation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The groups have 15, 18 and 26 communities (59 in all); Group III gets 5%, while Group II gets 9%.
Ambedkar Jayanti on 14 April 2025 marked which birth anniversary of Dr B.R. Ambedkar?
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Correct answer: C — 135th
135th birth anniversary, as stated by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
The Dr. Ambedkar Foundation, which organised the 2025 Ambedkar Jayanti tributes at Prerna Sthal, was established as an autonomous body in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1992
1992. It was established on 24 March 1992; the Centenary Celebration Committee that decided to set it up was formed in 1991.
Consider the following statements about the Dr. Ambedkar Foundation (DAF): 1. It was established in 1991 by the Centenary Celebration Committee of Dr Ambedkar. 2. The Union Minister of Social Justice & Empowerment is its Chairman. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The committee was constituted in 1991, but the DAF itself was established on 24 March 1992; Dr Virendra Kumar, Union Minister of Social Justice & Empowerment, is its Chairman.
What was the theme of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes' Ambedkar Jayanti 2025 event in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: D — A Journey of 75 years of Constitution of India
A Journey of 75 years of Constitution of India was the primary theme of the NCSC event.
What was the theme of the All India Forensic Science Summit 2025 organised by NFSU in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: A — Role of Forensic Science in Effective Implementation of New Criminal Laws and Combating Terrorism
Role of Forensic Science in Effective Implementation of New Criminal Laws and Combating Terrorism was the theme of the summit.
According to the Home Minister at the April 2025 summit, how many campuses of the National Forensic Sciences University have been built across the country?
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Correct answer: B — 7
7 campuses have been built, with 9 more to be built in another six months.
The Lucknow bench of the Central Administrative Tribunal, which got its own building in Gomti Nagar in April 2025, was established in:
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Correct answer: C — 1987
1987; it got its own office building after 38 years.
In April 2025, the Department of Consumer Affairs framed draft rules mandating testing, verification and stamping of gas meters under which framework?
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Correct answer: D — Legal Metrology (General) Rules, 2011
Legal Metrology (General) Rules, 2011; the draft rules cover domestic, commercial and industrial gas meters.
Justice Arun Palli, appointed Chief Justice of the High Court of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh in April 2025, was earlier a judge of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Punjab and Haryana High Court
Punjab and Haryana High Court, according to the Law Ministry's press communiqué.
From which country was Tahawwur Hussain Rana, an accused in the 26/11 Mumbai attacks case, extradited to India in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — United States
United States: the US Marshals Service surrendered him to Indian authorities on 9 April 2025.
Which Indian agency formally arrested Tahawwur Rana on his arrival in New Delhi on 10 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Investigation Agency
National Investigation Agency (NIA); NIA and NSG teams escorted him from Los Angeles.
Consider the following statements about Tahawwur Rana's extradition: 1. A US magistrate judge certified his extradition to India on 16 May 2023. 2. He is an Indian citizen. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. His extradition was certified on 16 May 2023 in the Central District of California; he is a Canadian citizen of Pakistani origin.
Tahawwur Rana's extradition to India in April 2025 followed proceedings initiated under which instrument?
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Correct answer: A — India-US Extradition Treaty
India-US Extradition Treaty: the NIA said he was held in US judicial custody pursuant to proceedings initiated under it.
In the first Panchayat Advancement Index (2022-23), which state had the highest number of Front Runner Gram Panchayats?
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Correct answer: C — Gujarat
Gujarat, with 346 Front Runners, followed by Telangana with 270.
The Panchayat Advancement Index measures Gram Panchayats' performance across how many themes of Localised SDGs?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
Nine themes of Localised SDGs, using 435 local indicators.
Consider the following statements about the PAI 2022-23 baseline report: 1. Of about 2.16 lakh validated Gram Panchayats, 699 were Front Runners. 2. Aspirants formed the largest category of Gram Panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. There were 699 Front Runners, and Aspirants (61.2%) outnumbered Performers (35.8%).
Through which mobile app did EPFO enable UAN generation and activation using Aadhaar Face Authentication Technology in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — UMANG
UMANG; earlier UANs were largely generated by employers and activated separately through Aadhaar OTP.
From which date did the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 come into force?
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Correct answer: B — 8 April 2025
8 April 2025, as notified by the Ministry of Minority Affairs under section 1(2); the Act received assent on 5 April 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It received the President's assent on 8 April 2025. 2. It changes the short title of the Waqf Act, 1995 by substituting the words 'Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development' for 'Waqf'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Act received assent on 5 April 2025; 8 April 2025 is the date it came into force.
From which date did the Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Act, 2025 come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 9 April 2025
9 April 2025, under notification S.O. 1676(E) of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, a day after the Waqf (Amendment) Act took effect.
Which bench of the Supreme Court delivered the judgment in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu on 8 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan
Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan; the judgment was authored by Justice Pardiwala.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the Supreme Court declare the ten Tamil Nadu Bills deemed to have received assent?
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Correct answer: B — Article 142
Article 142, which empowers the Court to pass orders necessary for doing complete justice.
Consider the following statements about the timelines prescribed in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025): 1. If the Governor withholds assent contrary to the advice of the State Council of Ministers, the Bill must be returned with a message within a maximum of three months. 2. The President is required to decide on Bills reserved under Article 201 within three months, recording reasons for any delay. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Court set a three-month limit for returning a Bill with a message when assent is withheld against advice, and a three-month period for the President under Article 201.
How many re-passed Bills did the Supreme Court declare deemed to have been assented to in its 8 April 2025 judgment?
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Correct answer: D — Ten
Ten; the Assembly had re-passed them on 18 November 2023 and the Governor reserved them for the President on 28 November 2023.
In which city was the 150th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union held in April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Tashkent
Tashkent, Uzbekistan; Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla led the Indian Parliamentary Delegation.
The Inter-Parliamentary Union Assembly attended by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla in Tashkent in April 2025 was its:
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Correct answer: B — 150th Assembly
150th Assembly; on its sidelines, Om Birla met Uzbekistan President Shavkat Mirziyoyev on 7 April 2025.
During the 150th IPU Assembly in Tashkent, the Indian delegation led by Om Birla paid floral tributes at the bust of which former Prime Minister?
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Correct answer: D — Lal Bahadur Shastri
Lal Bahadur Shastri, whose bust stands in Tashkent.
Under the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, which cleared Parliament on 4 April 2025, the Waqf Act, 1995 is renamed as the:
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Correct answer: A — Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development Act, 2025
PIB (Ministry of Minority Affairs): the Bill renames the Act the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development Act, 2025.
The Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament along with the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, repeals the Mussalman Wakf Act of which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1923
PIB (Ministry of Minority Affairs): the Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Bill, 2025 seeks to remove the outdated Mussalman Wakf Act, 1923.
Consider the following about the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. It removes 'waqf by user' and allows waqf formation only through declaration or endowment. 2. It requires donors to be practising Muslims for at least ten years. 3. It empowers Collectors to conduct surveys of waqf property. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Ministry of Minority Affairs): the Bill removes waqf by user, allows formation only through declaration or endowment, and empowers Collectors to conduct surveys. Donors must be practising Muslims for at least five years, not ten, so statement 2 is wrong.
The Protection of Interest in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament in April 2025, builds on which international convention?
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Correct answer: A — Cape Town Convention, 2001
PIB (Civil Aviation): the Bill builds on the framework of the Cape Town Convention of 2001, which aimed to simplify and standardise international leasing agreements.
In which year did India formally adopt the Cape Town Convention, according to the Civil Aviation Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — 2008
PIB (Civil Aviation): India formally adopted the Cape Town Convention in 2008, but gaps in legal enforcement led to higher leasing costs.
According to the Civil Aviation Ministry, gaps in enforcing the Cape Town Convention made aircraft leasing for Indian carriers typically how much costlier than in other nations?
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Correct answer: C — 8 to 10 percent
PIB (Civil Aviation): India adopted the Cape Town Convention in 2008, but gaps in legal enforcement led to leasing costs typically 8 to 10 percent higher than other nations.
The NITI NCAER States Economic Forum portal, launched on 1 April 2025, mainly provides data and analysis on:
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Correct answer: B — State finances
PIB (NITI Aayog): the portal is a comprehensive repository of data on social, economic and fiscal parameters, research reports, papers and expert commentary on State Finances.
The NITI NCAER States Economic Forum portal covers state finance data for which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1990-91 to 2022-23
PIB (NITI Aayog): the portal covers a period of about 30 years, i.e. 1990-91 to 2022-23.
On which date did the Rajya Sabha pass the Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2025
PIB (Cooperation): the Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 1 April 2025 after the MoS replied to the discussion; the Lok Sabha had passed it on 26 March 2025.
During the Rajya Sabha debate on the Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, how many trained youth did the government say the cooperative sector will need in the next five years?
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Correct answer: A — About 17 lakh
PIB (Cooperation): the MoS said the cooperative sector will need about 17 lakh trained youth in the next five years, which is why the university is being set up.