Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
At what cost was the new Forensic Science Laboratory building in Kolkata, inaugurated by Amit Shah on 1 June 2025, built?
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Correct answer: B — ₹88 crore
Amit Shah said the Forensic Science Laboratory in Kolkata was built at a cost of ₹88 crore.
According to Amit Shah on 1 June 2025, in nearly what share of cases are charge sheets now being filed within 60 days under the new criminal laws?
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Correct answer: C — 60%
Amit Shah said that after the introduction of the new laws, charge sheets have started being filed within 60 days in nearly 60% of the cases.
Which state's Right to Services Commission will implement DARPG's CPGRAMS-RTS linkage pilot project?
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Correct answer: A — Haryana
DARPG said the Haryana RTS Commission will implement the pilot project.
How many e-services are states currently providing under the NeSDA framework, as per DARPG?
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Correct answer: C — 20,000+
DARPG said states are providing more than 20,000 e-services under NeSDA; 2,04,000 is the number of grievances mapped.
How many public grievances relating to land, labour, environment and banking did DARPG map for RTS Commissioners at the 30 May 2025 meeting?
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Correct answer: A — 2,04,000
DARPG presented a mapping of 2,04,000 such public grievances received on states' CPGRAMS portals.
Which department released the DHRUVA policy document for a Digital Address DPI on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Posts
The Ministry of Communications said the Department of Posts released DHRUVA.
What concept lies at the core of the DHRUVA digital addressing policy?
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Correct answer: D — Address-as-a-Service (AaaS)
The release says Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) is at the core of DHRUVA.
As per the MHA, the Shri Amarnath Ji Yatra 2025 was scheduled for which period?
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Correct answer: C — 3 July – 9 August
The MHA said the Yatra was scheduled from 3 July to 9 August 2025.
Where did the Union Home Minister chair the high-level review of Amarnath Yatra 2025 preparations on 29 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jammu
The review meeting was held in Jammu.
Under the MHA decision of May 2025, which personnel of CAPFs and Assam Rifles will get an honorary rank one level higher on retirement?
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Correct answer: A — Constable to Sub-Inspector
The decision covers personnel below officer rank, from Constable to Sub-Inspector.
Consider the following statements about the honorary rank decision of May 2025: 1. It applies to the Assam Rifles as well as the CAPFs. 2. The honorary rank comes with additional pension benefits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct: the decision covers CAPFs and Assam Rifles, but the honorary rank carries no financial or pension benefits.
How many parts does UPSC's new Online Application Portal, announced on 28 May 2025, have?
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Correct answer: B — Four
UPSC said the portal has four parts arranged in four cards: Account Creation, Universal Registration, Common Application Form and Examination.
Consider the following statements about UPSC's new Online Application Portal: 1. The old One Time Registration (OTR) module will not be applicable. 2. Examination-specific details must be filled in only during the period allowed in the examination notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the OTR module no longer applies, and only exam-specific information is filled in during the notified period.
At the PRAGATI meeting of 28 May 2025, the PM reviewed three infrastructure projects with a cumulative cost of:
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Correct answer: D — Over ₹62,000 crore
The PMO said three projects with a cumulative cost of over ₹62,000 crore were reviewed.
At the May 2025 PRAGATI meeting, the PM asked state governments to ensure mandatory registration of eligible real estate projects under:
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Correct answer: A — RERA
He asked states to ensure mandatory registration of all eligible real estate projects under RERA.
Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi launch Urban Development Year 2025 on 27 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Gandhinagar
The PM launched Urban Development Year 2025 at the celebrations of 20 years of Gujarat's Urban Growth Story in Gandhinagar.
Urban Development Year 2025, launched in Gujarat in May 2025, marks 20 years of which earlier initiative?
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Correct answer: C — Urban Development Year 2005
Urban Development Year 2025 marks 20 years of Urban Development Year 2005.
On which date was polling fixed for the Rajya Sabha biennial elections from Assam and Tamil Nadu announced in May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 19 June 2025
Polling and counting were fixed for 19 June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha biennial elections announced on 26 May 2025: 1. Eight seats in total were to be filled. 2. Assam accounted for six of the seats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Tamil Nadu had six seats and Assam two.
Which ministry launched the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 portal in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Panchayati Raj
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj launched the PAI 2.0 portal at a national writeshop for FY 2023-24.
The Nilambur Assembly constituency, where a bye-election was announced in May 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
35-Nilambur is in Kerala.
The bye-elections announced by the ECI on 25 May 2025 covered how many Assembly constituencies in how many states?
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Correct answer: A — Five constituencies in four states
Five constituencies: Kadi (SC) and Visavadar in Gujarat, Nilambur in Kerala, Ludhiana West in Punjab and Kaliganj in West Bengal.
Consider the following statements about voter enrolment as noted by the ECI in May 2025: 1. Section 14 of the Representation of the People Act 1950 was amended by the Election Laws (Amendment) Act 2021. 2. After the amendment, there are four qualifying dates in a year to enrol as a voter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the ECI release.
Katejhari village, where a bus arrived for the first time as mentioned in Mann Ki Baat in May 2025, is in which district?
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Correct answer: A — Gadchiroli
Katejhari is in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.
The 'sugar boards' installed in schools to make children aware of their sugar intake, praised in Mann Ki Baat in May 2025, are an initiative of which body?
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Correct answer: D — CBSE
The PM described sugar boards as a unique initiative of CBSE.
According to the Prime Minister in Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), India's annual honey production has risen to about how much?
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Correct answer: B — 1.25 lakh metric tonnes
Honey production rose from about 70–75 thousand metric tonnes 10–11 years ago to about 1.25 lakh metric tonnes.
In Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), the PM mentioned women spraying pesticides with drones in Sangareddy district. In which state is Sangareddy?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana
Sangareddy district is in Telangana.
According to the PM in Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), how many records were set at the Khelo India Youth Games hosted in Bihar?
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Correct answer: A — 26
The PM said 26 records were made; 36 is the number of medals Bihar won.
What was the theme of the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog held in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047
The theme was 'Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047'.
How many States and Union Territories were represented at the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog?
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Correct answer: D — 24 States and 7 UTs
Chief Ministers and Lt Governors of 24 States and 7 UTs attended.
At the 10th Governing Council meeting, the Prime Minister asked NITI Aayog to prepare which document for attracting investments?
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Correct answer: A — An Investment-friendly Charter
The PM asked NITI Aayog to prepare an 'Investment-friendly Charter'.
Consider the following statements about the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog: 1. It was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. 2. The PM urged each State to develop at least one global-standard tourist destination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the NITI Aayog release.
Where was the ECI's National Conference of Counsels held on 24 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIIDEM, New Delhi
The conference was held at the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
Who inaugurated the National Conference of Counsels representing the Election Commission of India in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar
CEC Gyanesh Kumar inaugurated it in the presence of Election Commissioners Dr Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Dr Vivek Joshi.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's National Conference of Counsels in May 2025: 1. Senior advocates from the Supreme Court and 28 High Courts took part. 2. Chief Electoral Officers of all 36 States/UTs participated. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the ECI release.
Rule 49M of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, mentioned in ECI's May 2025 instructions on mobile deposit facility, relates to:
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Correct answer: D — Secrecy of voting within the polling station
ECI said Rule 49M, which ensures secrecy of voting within the polling station, will continue to be strictly enforced.
Consider the following statements about ECI's instructions of 23 May 2025: 1. Voters may carry mobile phones inside the polling station if the phones are switched off. 2. Booths set up by candidates for issuing unofficial identity slips can now be set up just beyond 100 metres of a polling station. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: phones are allowed within 100 m only switched off and must be deposited; they cannot be carried inside. Statement 2 is correct.
Under ECI's May 2025 mobile deposit instructions, who can exempt certain polling stations from the provision based on adverse local circumstances?
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Correct answer: C — Returning Officer
The Returning Officer can exempt certain polling stations based on adverse local circumstances.
The iGOT Karmayogi platform, which crossed 1 crore registered users in May 2025, is operated and managed by:
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Correct answer: A — Karmayogi Bharat
iGOT Karmayogi is operated and managed by Karmayogi Bharat.
Consider the following statements about iGOT Karmayogi (May 2025): 1. The platform had about 3 lakh users onboarded up to January 2023. 2. A majority of its registered users are from central government ministries and departments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: over 60% of registered users are from States and UTs.
Under the e-Zero FIR pilot introduced by I4C in Delhi (May 2025), cyber financial crime complaints above what amount are initially auto-converted into FIRs?
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Correct answer: C — ₹10 lakh
The system initially covers complaints above the threshold of ₹10 lakh.
Consider the following statements about the e-Zero FIR initiative (May 2025): 1. It has been launched as a pilot project for Delhi. 2. It automatically converts complaints filed on the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal or the 1930 helpline into FIRs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The I4C system was launched as a pilot for Delhi and auto-converts NCRP/1930 complaints into FIRs.
First and second appeals against final electoral rolls are provided under which sections of the Representation of the People Act, 1950?
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Correct answer: A — Sections 24(a) and 24(b)
Sections 24(a) and 24(b) of the RP Act, 1950 provide for first and second appeals against final electoral rolls.
As recalled by ECI in May 2025, the second appeal against the final electoral roll lies with whom?
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Correct answer: D — Chief Electoral Officer of the State/UT
The first appeal lies with the DM/District Collector/Executive Magistrate and the second appeal with the Chief Electoral Officer of the State/UT.
The e-Civil List 2025 of IAS officers launched in May 2025 is which edition of the Civil List?
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Correct answer: C — 70th
It is the 70th edition of the Civil List and the fifth in fully digital format.
Consider the following statements about the e-Civil List 2025: 1. It shows a total authorised IAS cadre strength of 6,877 officers. 2. It is the first Civil List to be brought out in fully digital format. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The 2025 edition is the fifth in fully digital format; what is new is that officers' photographs are included for the first time.
The revamped Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) portal launched in May 2025 serves over how many existing OCI cardholders?
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Correct answer: B — 5 million
The new portal serves over 5 million existing OCI cardholders and new users.
The revamped Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) portal launched in May 2025 was developed by which ministry?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Home Affairs
The revamped OCI portal was developed by the Ministry of Home Affairs and launched by Union Home Minister Amit Shah.
How many candidates did UPSC recommend for appointment in the final result of the Indian Forest Service Examination, 2024 (declared May 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 143
UPSC recommended 143 candidates against 150 vacancies reported by the Government.
The 'AI for Good Governance' workshop held at Pragna Bhawan, Agartala on 16 May 2025 was organised by Tripura's Directorate of IT in collaboration with:
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Correct answer: A — National e-Governance Division (NeGD), MeitY
The workshop was organised by DIT Tripura with the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) under MeitY.
Consider the following statements about the 'AI for Good Governance' workshop in Tripura (May 2025): 1. It was held at Pragna Bhawan, Agartala. 2. Over 150 officers from various departments took part. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PIB Agartala release.
Who took oath as Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission on 15 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dr Ajay Kumar
Dr Ajay Kumar, former Defence Secretary, took oath as UPSC Chairman. Lt Gen Raj Shukla (Retd), the senior-most Member, administered the oath.
Consider the following statements about the new UPSC Chairman (May 2025): 1. He is a 1990-batch IAS officer. 2. The oath of office was administered to him by the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Dr Ajay Kumar is a 1985-batch IAS officer of the Kerala cadre, and the oath was administered by Lt Gen Raj Shukla (Retd), the senior-most Member of the Commission.
Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai, sworn in on 14 May 2025, is which Chief Justice of India?
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Correct answer: C — 52nd
Justice B.R. Gavai is the 52nd Chief Justice of India; he succeeded Justice Sanjiv Khanna.
Consider the following statements about Chief Justice B.R. Gavai: 1. He succeeded Justice Sanjiv Khanna as Chief Justice of India. 2. He is the second Chief Justice of India from the Scheduled Caste community, after Justice K.G. Balakrishnan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Where was Justice B.R. Gavai sworn in as Chief Justice of India on 14 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan
The ceremony was held in the Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan, where he took the oath before the President.
How many field-level electoral officials took part in the ECI training programme inaugurated at IIIDEM on 14 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 371
371 officials took part: 306 BLOs from Bihar, 30 from Haryana and 35 from Delhi. Over 2,600 is the number trained in two months.
Consider the following statements about the ECI training programme of 14 May 2025: 1. It was inaugurated by Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar at IIIDEM, New Delhi. 2. The 306 Booth Level Officers in the batch were from Haryana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The 306 BLOs were from Bihar.
During the review of new criminal laws in Puducherry on 13 May 2025, the Home Minister said FIRs in the UT should be registered in:
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Correct answer: D — Tamil
He said FIRs in Puducherry should be registered in Tamil, with copies in other languages for those who need them.
Consider the following statements about the review of new criminal laws in Puducherry (13 May 2025): 1. FIRs in the UT are to be registered only in English. 2. The review meeting was held in Puducherry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. FIRs are to be registered in Tamil, and the meeting was held in New Delhi.
After the road accident in Raipur, Chhattisgarh on 12 May 2025, the PM announced PMNRF ex-gratia for each deceased's next of kin and for each injured person of:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2 lakh and ₹50,000
The PM announced ₹2 lakh for the next of kin of each deceased and ₹50,000 for the injured from PMNRF.
Consider the following statements about the high-level meeting of 10 May 2025: 1. It was held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. 2. It was chaired by the Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the meeting was chaired by PM Narendra Modi at 7, Lok Kalyan Marg; the Defence Minister attended.
Who attended the 10 May 2025 high-level meeting as Chief of Defence Staff?
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Correct answer: B — General Anil Chauhan
CDS General Anil Chauhan attended; Ajit Doval is the NSA and Rajnath Singh the Defence Minister.
Consider the following statements about the training of 10 May 2025: 1. It was organised by DARPG in collaboration with the Capacity Building Commission. 2. The programme comprised four modules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Which of the following was one of the modules of the 'Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Program' training held on 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Who is a Rashtriya Karmayogi?
The four modules were: Who is a Rashtriya Karmayogi?; Expanding Our Vision of Success and Fulfillment; Creating a Karmayogi; Rashtriya Karmayogi as a Nation-Builder.
How many notices did the CCPA issue to e-commerce platforms over the sale of walkie-talkies on 9 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 13
The CCPA issued thirteen notices to digital marketplaces.
Equipment Type Approval (ETA), whose absence the CCPA flagged in walkie-talkie listings, is issued by:
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Correct answer: B — Wireless Planning and Coordination (WPC) Wing
Listings lacked valid Equipment Type Approval from the Wireless Planning and Coordination (WPC) Wing.