Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under the revised ComSec fee structure effective 1 August 2025, what is the security test evaluation fee for Group A telecom equipment?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
Fees for Group A equipment dropped to ₹10,000 from ₹2,00,000 under the revised ComSec structure.
Consider the following statements about the DoT's ComSec changes announced in August 2025: 1. Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are under mandatory security testing. 2. Government R&D institutes such as C-DOT and CDAC are fully exempted from security test evaluation fees for applications until 31 March 2028. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are subject to voluntary security certification. Statement 2 is correct: C-DOT, CDAC and other government R&D institutes are fully exempted for applications until 31 March 2028.
By up to what percentage did the Department of Telecommunications cut security test evaluation fees under the ComSec scheme, as announced on 4 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 95%
95%; fees that earlier ranged from ₹2,00,000 to ₹3,50,000 now range from ₹10,000 to ₹50,000.
On 4 August 2025, the Law Ministry notified the appointment of five judicial officers as Judges of which High Court?
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Correct answer: A — Allahabad High Court
The President, after consulting the Chief Justice of India, appointed the five judicial officers as Judges of the Allahabad High Court.
On 3 August 2025, the Delhi Legislative Assembly became the first legislature in India to run entirely on solar power after commissioning a rooftop plant of what capacity?
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Correct answer: C — 500 kW
500 kW, inaugurated by Union Minister of State Arjun Ram Meghwal.
The paperless legislative platform launched at the Delhi Legislative Assembly on 3 August 2025 under the 'One Nation, One Application' initiative is called NeVA. What does NeVA stand for?
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Correct answer: B — National e-Vidhan Application
National e-Vidhan Application.
After the Election Commission's decision of 2 August 2025, what is the annual remuneration of a Booth Level Officer (BLO)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,000
The Commission doubled the annual remuneration of BLOs from ₹6,000 to ₹12,000.
Consider the following statements about the Election Commission's remuneration decision of August 2025: 1. Electoral Registration Officers and Assistant Electoral Registration Officers were given an honorarium for the first time. 2. The previous revision of BLO remuneration was done in 2019. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: honorariums of ₹30,000 for EROs and ₹25,000 for AEROs were provided for the first time. Statement 2 is incorrect: the last such revision was done in 2015.
What honorarium did the Election Commission provide for Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹30,000
EROs were given an honorarium of ₹30,000, and AEROs ₹25,000, for the first time.
The definitive list of Category A 'Ayurveda Aahara' products released by FSSAI in August 2025 follows regulations introduced in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2022
The list follows the Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations introduced in 2022.
On which date is the poll, if necessary, for the 17th Vice-Presidential Election scheduled, as announced on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 9 September 2025
The poll, if necessary, and the counting are both scheduled for 9 September 2025 at Parliament House.
According to the Election Commission, what is the total strength of the Electoral College for the 2025 Vice-Presidential Election?
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Correct answer: B — 788
The Electoral College comprises a total of 788 members of both Houses of Parliament: 233 elected and 12 nominated Rajya Sabha members and 543 elected Lok Sabha members.
Consider the following statements about the 2025 Vice-Presidential Election: 1. The security deposit for a candidate is ₹15,000. 2. A nomination paper must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and at least 20 other electors as seconders. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The security deposit is ₹15,000, and each nomination needs at least 20 proposers and 20 seconders from among the electors.
Who has been appointed Returning Officer for the 2025 Vice-Presidential Election?
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Correct answer: D — Secretary General, Rajya Sabha
The Election Commission, in consultation with the Central Government, appointed the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha as the Returning Officer.
During which period can claims and objections be filed on Bihar's draft electoral roll published on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 August to 1 September 2025
Claims and objections can be filed before the Electoral Registration Officer from 1 August to 1 September 2025.
Booth-wise draft lists for how many polling booths in Bihar were shared with political parties on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 90,712
Booth-wise draft lists of all 90,712 polling booths across 243 Assembly Constituencies were shared with all political parties by the 38 DEOs.
Which form should an eligible elector in Bihar whose name is missing from the draft roll submit, along with the Declaration Form?
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Correct answer: D — Form 6
Eligible electors whose names are missing from the draft list should submit Form 6 along with the Declaration Form.
As per Article 66(1), cited by the ECI on 31 July 2025, the Electoral College for the Vice-Presidential election consists of:
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Correct answer: A — Elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha
The ECI release quotes Article 66(1): elected members of the Rajya Sabha, nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission mandated to conduct the election to the office of Vice-President, as stated by the ECI on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Article 324
The ECI release says it is mandated under Article 324 to conduct the Vice-Presidential election.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election: 1. Rule 40 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974 requires the ECI to prepare and maintain an updated list of members of the Electoral College. 2. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are excluded from the Electoral College. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 66(1) includes nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
Which court delivered the verdict acquitting all accused in the 2008 Malegaon blast case on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Special NIA court, Mumbai
Special Judge A. K. Lahoti of the special NIA court in Mumbai delivered the verdict.
How many accused were acquitted in the 2008 Malegaon blast case on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Seven
All seven accused, including Pragya Singh Thakur and Lt Col Prasad Purohit, were acquitted.
Apart from IPC offences, the accused in the 2008 Malegaon blast case were acquitted on 31 July 2025 of charges under which anti-terror law?
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Correct answer: A — Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
The accused were cleared of charges including offences under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
How many mobile handsets had been recovered through the Sanchar Saathi portal, as stated in the Lok Sabha on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 5 lakh
The Minister said over 5 lakh mobile handsets had been recovered through Sanchar Saathi.
As per the Communications Minister's statement of 30 July 2025, what is BSNL's subscriber base?
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Correct answer: C — 9.1 crore
The Minister said BSNL's subscriber base had grown to 9.1 crore.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, whose key provisions took effect on 1 August 2025, the threshold for 'substantial interest' was raised from ₹5 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2 crore
PIB (30 July 2025): the 'substantial interest' threshold was redefined from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore, a limit unchanged since 1968.
The maximum tenure of directors (other than the chairperson and whole-time director) in cooperative banks was raised from 8 years to 10 years to align with which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 97th Amendment
PIB: the change aligns director tenures in cooperative banks with the 97th Constitutional Amendment.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations. 2. It was notified in the Gazette on 15 April 2025. 3. All its provisions came into force on the date of its notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: 19 amendments across five laws; notified 15 April 2025. Provisions come into force on dates appointed by the Centre; S.O. 3494(E) appointed 1 August 2025 for specific sections, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the amended law, public sector banks may transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to which fund, in line with companies under the Companies Act?
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Correct answer: D — Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)
PIB: PSBs can now transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF), bringing them in line with companies.
Gouse Meera Mohiuddin was appointed on 29 July 2025 as an Additional Judge of which High Court?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana High Court
PIB press note (29 July 2025): Gouse Meera Mohiuddin, Advocate, was appointed Additional Judge of the Telangana High Court.
Anjan Moni Kalita and Rajesh Mazumdar, advocates, were appointed on 29 July 2025 as Additional Judges of:
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Correct answer: B — Gauhati High Court
PIB press note: Anjan Moni Kalita, Rajesh Mazumdar, Pranjal Das and Sanjeev Kumar Sharma were appointed Additional Judges of the Gauhati High Court.
Under Article 224 of the Constitution, an additional Judge of a High Court is appointed for a period:
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Correct answer: A — Not exceeding two years
Supreme Court (Lok Prahari v. Union of India, 20 April 2021): Article 224 provides for appointing additional judges to meet a temporary increase in business or arrears, for a period not exceeding two years.
As per ECI's findings of the Bihar SIR enumeration phase, how many electors were on the rolls as on 24 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 7.89 crore
ECI/PIB (27 July 2025): out of 7.89 crore electors as on 24.06.2025, over 7.24 crore submitted enumeration forms.
During which period can genuine electors be added back to the Bihar electoral rolls through claims and objections after the SIR enumeration phase?
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Correct answer: D — 1 August to 1 September 2025
ECI: genuine electors can still be added back during the claims and objection period from 1 August to 1 September 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar SIR enumeration phase: 1. It ran from 24 June to 25 July 2025. 2. BLOs were deployed at 77,895 polling booths. 3. Around 1.60 lakh Booth Level Agents were appointed by 12 major political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
ECI: enumeration phase 24 June-25 July 2025; BLOs at 77,895 polling booths; about 1.60 lakh BLAs of 12 major parties. All correct.
Under the Bihar SIR, young persons attaining 18 years of age on 1 July 2025 or on or before 1 October 2025 are encouraged to apply in which form, along with the prescribed declaration?
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Correct answer: C — Form 6
ECI: young electors who have attained 18 on 1 July 2025, or will attain 18 on or before 1 October 2025, are encouraged to apply in Form 6 with the prescribed Declaration Form.
For the Bihar SIR, special urban camps were set up in all wards of urban local bodies. How many wards and ULBs were covered?
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Correct answer: B — 5,683 wards of 261 ULBs
ECI: special urban camps were set up in all 5,683 wards of all 261 urban local bodies of Bihar.
What ex gratia did Uttarakhand CM Pushkar Singh Dhami announce after the Mansa Devi temple stampede in Haridwar on 27 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2 lakh for the families of the dead and ₹50,000 for the injured
The Indian Express and IANS (27 July 2025): CM Dhami announced ₹2 lakh for the families of the dead and ₹50,000 for the injured.
Consider the following statements about the Mansa Devi temple stampede of 27 July 2025: 1. It was triggered by a rumour that an electric wire had snapped and current was passing through the area. 2. The Haridwar District Magistrate was ordered to conduct a magisterial inquiry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Hindu and The Indian Express: the stampede followed a rumour of a snapped electric line/current; IE: the Haridwar DM was ordered to conduct a magisterial inquiry. Both correct.
As mentioned in Mann Ki Baat (27 July 2025), UNESCO recognised 12 Maratha forts as World Heritage Sites. How are they distributed?
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Correct answer: B — 11 in Maharashtra and 1 in Tamil Nadu
PIB (Mann Ki Baat, 27 July 2025): UNESCO has recognised 12 Maratha forts as World Heritage Sites, eleven in Maharashtra and one in Tamil Nadu.
As per Mann Ki Baat (27 July 2025), Indian students at the International Mathematical Olympiad held in Australia won:
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Correct answer: A — 3 gold, 2 silver and 1 bronze
PIB: in the International Mathematical Olympiad held in Australia, Indian students won 3 gold, 2 silver and 1 bronze medal.
The 'Gyan Bharatam Mission', highlighted in the 124th Mann Ki Baat, aims to:
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Correct answer: D — Digitise ancient manuscripts
PIB: under the Gyan Bharatam Mission, announced in this year's Budget, ancient manuscripts will be digitised.
Which edition of the National Security Strategies Conference did Amit Shah address in New Delhi on 26 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Eighth
PIB (26 July 2025): Amit Shah addressed the eighth National Security Strategies Conference in New Delhi.
In how many Indian languages did the official Rashtrapati Bhavan websites become available on 25 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 22
PIB (25 July 2025): the official websites of Rashtrapati Bhavan are now available in 22 Indian languages.
By when is Rashtrapati Bhavan targeted to become Net Zero, as per initiatives launched on 25 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — March 2027
PIB: commencement of initiatives to make Rashtrapati Bhavan Net Zero by March 2027.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 56 of the Constitution of India: 1. The President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. 2. The President may resign by writing addressed to the Vice-President. 3. The President must vacate office on expiry of the term even if a successor has not entered office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Article 56(1): five-year term from entering office; proviso (a): resignation addressed to the Vice-President; proviso (c): the President continues in office, notwithstanding expiry of term, until the successor enters office. So 3 is wrong.
The Keezhadi archaeological site, discussed in a Rajya Sabha reply on 24 July 2025, lies in which river basin?
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Correct answer: A — Vaigai
PIB (24 July 2025): ASI identified the archaeological potential of Keezhadi after a survey in the Vaigai river basin.
As per the Government's reply of 24 July 2025, who is currently conducting the Keezhadi excavation?
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Correct answer: D — State Archaeology Department of Tamil Nadu
PIB: currently, the Keezhadi excavation is being conducted by the State Archaeology Department of Tamil Nadu; ASI excavated it in 2014-15 to 2016-17.
A Centre of Excellence on PESA is being set up under an MoU signed on 24 July 2025 at which university?
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Correct answer: A — Indira Gandhi National Tribal University, Amarkantak
PIB (24 July 2025): MoPR, the Government of Madhya Pradesh and IGNTU, Amarkantak, signed an MoU in Bhopal to establish a Centre of Excellence on PESA at IGNTU.
PESA, for which a Centre of Excellence was announced in July 2025, refers to which Act?
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Correct answer: D — Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
PIB (24 July 2025): PESA is the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996.
At the meeting on 24 July 2025, Jal Shakti Minister C.R. Patil called for evaluating the impact of the Environmental Flow Notification of which year for the Ganga?
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Correct answer: A — 2018
PIB (24 July 2025): C.R. Patil highlighted the need to evaluate the impact of the 2018 Environmental Flow Notification.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India mandated to conduct the election to the office of the Vice President?
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Correct answer: B — Article 324
PIB (ECI, 23 July 2025): the Election Commission of India, under Article 324, is mandated to conduct the election to the office of the Vice President of India.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025 (as per ECI, 23 July 2025): 1. The Electoral College consists of elected as well as nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. 2. The election is governed by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952. 3. Members of State Legislative Assemblies are part of the Electoral College. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (ECI): the Electoral College consists of elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, and the election is governed by the 1952 Act and 1974 Rules. State MLAs are not part of it, so 3 is wrong.
Which Ministry notified the resignation of Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar through Gazette Notification S.O. 3354(E) dated 22 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Home Affairs
PIB (ECI, 23 July 2025): the MHA vide its Gazette Notification S.O.3354(E) dated July 22, 2025 notified the resignation of Shri Jagdeep Dhankhar.
Along with the 1952 Act, which rules govern the election to the office of the Vice President?
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Correct answer: C — Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974
PIB (ECI): the election is governed by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952 and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974.
Aadi Karmayogi, whose second Regional Process Lab began in Bhopal on 22 July 2025, is a mission of which Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Tribal Affairs
PIB (22 July 2025): the Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched the 2nd RPL of Aadi Karmayogi - National Mission for Responsive Governance in Bhopal.
The Aadi Karmayogi mission aims to build a cadre of how many grassroots functionaries and change leaders?
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Correct answer: B — 2 million
PIB: the initiative aims to build a dynamic cadre of 2 million grassroots functionaries and village-level change leaders.
Preparations for Census 2027 began with a gazette notification expressing the Government's intent to conduct the Population Census. That notification is dated:
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Correct answer: D — 16 June 2025
PIB (MHA, 22 July 2025): the preparation for Census 2027 started with the publication of the gazette notification dated 16.06.2025.
Which portal will be used for management and monitoring of Census 2027 activities, as discussed at the July 2025 conference?
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Correct answer: C — CMMS (Census Management and Monitoring System)
PIB: the conference discussed management and monitoring of census activities through the Census Management and Monitoring System (CMMS) portal.
Who is the NHRC Chairperson who led the Odisha Open Hearing in Bhubaneswar in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Justice V. Ramasubramanian
PIB (22 July 2025): NHRC Chairperson Justice V. Ramasubramanian and Members heard the cases in Bhubaneswar.
How many cases did NHRC hear at its two-day Odisha Open Hearing and Camp Sitting concluded on 22 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 144
PIB: NHRC heard 144 cases and recommended about ₹28 lakh as relief; 25 was the number of victim compensation cases.
The Monsoon Session 2025 of Parliament, which began on 21 July 2025, was scheduled to provide how many sittings?
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Correct answer: D — 21 sittings over 32 days
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs, all-party meeting of 20 July 2025): the session would provide a total of 21 sittings spread over 32 days, from 21 July to 21 August 2025.
In his statement at the start of the Monsoon Session 2025, the Prime Minister said that under Operation Sindoor, India's forces neutralised high-value targets in how many minutes?
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Correct answer: A — 22 minutes
PIB 2146316: the PM said that in just 22 minutes, under Operation Sindoor, India's forces neutralised high-value targets at their own bases.
Consider the following statements about the Monsoon Session 2025: 1. Both Houses were to adjourn on 12 August 2025 and reassemble on 18 August 2025. 2. In his opening statement, the Prime Minister said reservoir levels this year had tripled compared with the past ten years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB 2146260: both Houses would adjourn on 12 August and reassemble on 18 August to facilitate Independence Day celebrations, so 1 is correct. PIB 2146316: the PM said water reservoir levels this year have tripled compared to the past ten years, so 2 is correct.
Under which provision of the Constitution did Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar resign on 21 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Article 67(a)
Gazette notification S.O. 3354(E): the resignation letter states he resigns 'in accordance with Article 67(a) of the Constitution'. Article 67(a) lets a Vice-President resign by writing addressed to the President.
Which ministry published Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar's resignation in the Gazette of India through notification S.O. 3354(E) dated 22 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Home Affairs
The Gazette notification S.O. 3354(E) of 22 July 2025 was issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs; the Rajya Sabha was told that 'the Ministry of Home Affairs, vide notification dated July 22, 2025' had conveyed the resignation.
Consider the following statements about the Vice President's resignation of July 2025: 1. The resignation letter was addressed to the President of India. 2. The resignation was to take effect from 22 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The letter (published in Gazette S.O. 3354(E)) was addressed to the President, as Article 67(a) requires, so 1 is correct. The resignation was 'effective immediately', so 2 is wrong.
Under Article 67(b) of the Constitution, a resolution for removing the Vice-President can be moved only after at least how many days' notice of the intention to move it?
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Correct answer: A — 14 days
Article 67(b): the Vice-President may be removed by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all its then members and agreed to by the House of the People; no such resolution can be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given.
Under the Bihar SIR order of 24 June 2025, the ceiling of electors per polling station was revised to what number?
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Correct answer: B — 1,200
PIB (ECI): as per the Bihar SIR order dated 24 June 2025, the earlier ceiling of 1,500 electors per polling station was revised to 1,200.
How many new polling stations were added in Bihar to bring every polling station under 1,200 electors (ECI, 21 July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 12,817
PIB (ECI): 12,817 new polling stations were added, taking Bihar's total from 77,895 to 90,712.
The Bills of Lading Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament in July 2025, replaces a colonial-era law of which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1856
PIB (MoPSW): once enacted, the bill will replace the 169-year-old colonial-era Act of 1856.
Who tabled the Bills of Lading Bill, 2025, in the Rajya Sabha on 21 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sarbananda Sonowal
PIB: Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways Sarbananda Sonowal tabled the bill in the Rajya Sabha; the Lok Sabha had passed it in March 2025.
The 'Meri Panchayat' app won the WSIS Prizes 2025 Champion Award at the WSIS+20 High-Level Event 2025, organised by which body?
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Correct answer: C — International Telecommunication Union
PIB (Panchayati Raj): the honour was conferred during the WSIS+20 High-Level Event 2025, organised by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
How many leaders and political parties attended the Government's all-party meeting held on 20 July 2025 ahead of the Monsoon Session?
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Correct answer: B — 54 leaders from 40 parties
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): the meeting was attended by 54 leaders from 40 political parties, including ministers.
Who chaired the all-party meeting of 20 July 2025 ahead of the Monsoon Session of Parliament?
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Correct answer: D — Jagat Prakash Nadda
PIB: the meeting was held under the chairmanship of Jagat Prakash Nadda, Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha; it was called and conducted by Parliamentary Affairs Minister Kiren Rijiju.
Consider the following statements about the all-party meeting of 20 July 2025: 1. The meeting was chaired by the Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha. 2. Leaders were told that both Houses would adjourn on 12 August 2025 and reassemble on 18 August 2025 for Independence Day celebrations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB 2146260: the meeting was chaired by Jagat Prakash Nadda, Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha, so 1 is correct; Kiren Rijiju informed leaders that both Houses would adjourn on 12 August and reassemble on 18 August 2025 to facilitate Independence Day celebrations, so 2 is correct.