Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The draft Pesticides Management Bill, 2025 is intended to replace which law?
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Correct answer: B — Insecticides Act, 1968
PIB (Agriculture): the draft Bill will replace the Insecticides Act, 1968 and the Insecticides Rules, 1971.
By what date could stakeholders submit suggestions on the draft Pesticides Management Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 4 February 2026
PIB (Agriculture): stakeholders can submit suggestions by 4 February 2026.
Consider the following statements about the draft Pesticides Management Bill, 2025: 1. It provides for compounding of offences, with penalties to be defined by state-level authorities. 2. It seeks to decriminalise petty offences. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Agriculture): both are correct — the Bill aims to decriminalise petty offences and allows compounding with penalties defined by state-level authorities.
From which date have the four Labour Codes been in force, as stated by the Labour Ministry in January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 21 November 2025
PIB (Labour): the Codes have been implemented with effect from 21 November 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Labour Ministry's regional conference in Goa (January 2026): 1. It was the first in a series of six regional conferences. 2. Labour Minister Mansukh Mandaviya inaugurated it in person in Goa. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Labour): statement 1 is correct; Mandaviya inaugurated the conference virtually, through video conference.
Besides the four Labour Codes, which of the following was on the agenda of the Labour Ministry's regional conferences announced in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ESIC, EPFO and PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
PIB (Labour): the conferences deliberate on issues concerning ESIC, EPFO and the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PMVBRY).
Where is the headquarters of the Directorate General of Mines Safety (DGMS), which marked its 125th Foundation Day in January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Dhanbad
PIB (Labour): DGMS celebrated its 125th Foundation Day at its headquarters in Dhanbad, Jharkhand.
In which year was the Directorate General of Mines Safety (DGMS) established?
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Correct answer: B — 1902
PIB (Labour): DGMS was established in 1902.
SAMPANN, whose pension documents were made available on DigiLocker in January 2026, is the pension management system of which department?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Telecommunications
PIB (Ministry of Communications): SAMPANN is an integrated online pension management system for Department of Telecommunications pensioners.
In the pension context, what does the acronym SAMPANN stand for?
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Correct answer: A — System for Accounting and Management of Pension
PIB (Ministry of Communications): SAMPANN stands for System for Accounting and Management of Pension.
In which city did Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurate an exhibition on the three new criminal laws on 3 January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Sri Vijaya Puram
PIB (MHA): Amit Shah inaugurated an exhibition based on the three new laws in Sri Vijaya Puram, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
What was the total value of the development projects inaugurated or whose foundation stones were laid by Amit Shah in Andaman and Nicobar on 3 January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹373 crore
PIB (MHA): nine projects were inaugurated and two foundation stones laid, worth ₹373 crore.
Consider the following statements based on Amit Shah's visit to Andaman and Nicobar on 3 January 2026: 1. Nine projects were inaugurated and foundation stones were laid for two. 2. The Sri Vijaya Puram Municipal Council collects waste from 98% of houses. 3. Amit Shah said the islands named Shaheed and Swaraj honour Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MHA): nine projects inaugurated and two foundation stones laid; 98% household waste collection; and Shah said PM Modi named the islands Shaheed and Swaraj in honour of Netaji. All three are correct.
According to ECI (January 2026), within how much time after the close of polls does the ECINet app enable publication of Index Cards?
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Correct answer: D — 72 hours
PIB (ECI): the trial versions of ECINet enable publication of Index Cards within 72 hours of the close of polls.
Consider the following statements about ECINet as described by the Election Commission in January 2026: 1. It was tried out during the Bihar Assembly Elections 2025. 2. Citizens could submit suggestions through the app until 10 January 2026. 3. It had already been officially launched in 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (ECI): ECINet was tried in the Bihar Assembly Elections 2025 and suggestions were invited till 10 January 2026; the official launch was planned for January 2026, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the Cabinet Secretary's briefing on 2 January 2026, which was the single biggest cause of issues raised under PRAGATI?
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Correct answer: D — Land acquisition
Indian Express and The Hindu: land acquisition accounted for 35% of issues, forest/wildlife/environment 20% and right of use/way 18%.
What does the acronym PRAGATI, the project-review mechanism chaired by the Prime Minister, stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation
PIB (Cabinet Secretariat): PRAGATI stands for Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation, chaired by the Prime Minister.
Consider the following statements based on the Cabinet Secretary's PRAGATI briefing of 2 January 2026: 1. PRAGATI has reviewed over 3,300 projects worth more than ₹85 lakh crore. 2. Of 7,735 issues raised, 7,156 have been resolved. 3. The government announced plans to amend the land acquisition law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Indian Express and The Hindu: over 3,300 projects worth ₹85 lakh crore reviewed; 7,156 of 7,735 issues resolved. The Cabinet Secretary said there was no plan to change the land acquisition law, so statement 3 is wrong.
PRAGATI, whose 50th meeting PM Modi chaired on 31 December 2025, was built on the experience of which platform he launched as Gujarat Chief Minister?
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Correct answer: C — SWAGAT
PIB (PMO): the PM recalled that as Gujarat Chief Minister he launched the SWAGAT platform (State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology), which he later expanded nationally through PRAGATI.
In the 50th PRAGATI meeting on 31 December 2025, the PM reviewed five infrastructure projects with a cumulative cost of more than:
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Correct answer: A — ₹40,000 crore
PIB (PMO): the PM reviewed five critical infrastructure projects spanning five states with a cumulative cost of more than ₹40,000 crore.
Consider the following statements about the 50th PRAGATI meeting (31 December 2025): 1. The PM's mantra for the next phase was 'Reform to Simplify, Perform to Deliver, Transform to Impact'. 2. Around 94% of issues identified in projects reviewed under PRAGATI since 2014 have been resolved. 3. The PM asked states to set up PRAGATI-like mechanisms, especially for the social sector, at the Chief Secretary level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (PMO): the mantra was 'Reform to Simplify, Perform to Deliver, Transform to Impact'; 2,958 of 3,162 issues (about 94%) were resolved; and the PM encouraged states to institutionalise PRAGATI-like mechanisms for the social sector at Chief Secretary level. All three are correct.
From which date did select provisions of the National Sports Governance Act, 2025 come into force, as notified on 31 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 January 2026
PIB (Sports): the Central Government appointed 1 January 2026 as the date for select provisions; the Act itself was notified in the Gazette on 18 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Governance Act, 2025: 1. It was notified in the Official Gazette on 18 August 2025. 2. Its section 1(2) allows different dates to be appointed for different provisions. 3. The provisions brought into force from 1 January 2026 include the constitution of the National Sports Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Sports): the Act was gazetted on 18 August 2025; section 1(2) permits different dates for different provisions; and the provisions in force from 1 January 2026 include the constitution of the National Sports Board. All three are correct.
Which ministry releases the XV Finance Commission grants for rural local bodies after recommendation by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Finance
PIB (Panchayati Raj): MoPR and DDWS recommend release of XV-FC grants to states for rural local bodies, which are then released by the Ministry of Finance.
The ₹224.58 crore XV Finance Commission grant released to Chhattisgarh in December 2025 is meant for how many eligible Gram Panchayats?
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Correct answer: C — 11,279
PIB (Panchayati Raj): the funds are for 11,279 eligible Gram Panchayats, 138 Block Panchayats and 26 District Panchayats.
In his video-conference with MGNREGA functionaries on 30 December 2025 about the VB-G RAM G Act, Shivraj Singh Chouhan interacted with roughly how many functionaries?
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Correct answer: D — Over 2 lakh
PIB (Rural Development): more than 2 lakh MGNREGA functionaries joined from about 45,000 locations.
The Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB-G RAM G) Act, 2025 replaces which law?
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Correct answer: B — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
PIB (assent release, 21 December 2025): the Act replaces the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005.
Consider the following statements about the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It guarantees not less than 125 days of wage employment per rural household in each financial year. 2. States may notify a pause period aggregating sixty days in a financial year to free labour for peak sowing and harvesting. 3. Its cost is shared 75:25 between the Centre and all States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (assent release): Section 5(1) guarantees at least 125 days and Section 6 allows a 60-day aggregate pause. Cost-sharing is 60:40, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States and 100% central for UTs without legislatures, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, what is the Centre–State cost-sharing ratio for North Eastern and Himalayan States?
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Correct answer: C — 90:10
PIB (assent release): the cost-sharing pattern is 60:40 between Centre and States, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States, and 100% central funding for UTs without legislatures.
Bhagirathpura, where a contaminated-water outbreak was reported in December 2025, is a locality in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Indore
The Hindu, The Indian Express and ETV Bharat: the outbreak was in the Bhagirathpura area of Indore, Madhya Pradesh.
Consider the following statements about the Madhya Pradesh government's response to the Bhagirathpura (Indore) water contamination: 1. The Chief Minister announced ₹2 lakh each for the families of the deceased. 2. The state said it would bear the full cost of the patients' treatment. 3. The probe committee is headed by a retired High Court judge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
The Hindu, The Indian Express and ETV Bharat: CM Mohan Yadav announced ₹2 lakh per bereaved family and free treatment. The three-member probe committee is headed by an IAS officer, not a judge.
According to the Indore Municipal Commissioner, what was the likely source of contamination in Bhagirathpura's drinking water in December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — A leak in the main supply line at a point where a toilet had been built over it
The Hindu and ETV Bharat: the municipal commissioner said a leakage was found in the main water supply line in Bhagirathpura at a point over which a toilet had been constructed.
India Post's discontinuation of outward small packet and surface letter mail services from 1 January 2026 is in line with decisions of which international body?
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Correct answer: D — Universal Postal Union
PIB (Communications): the Department of Posts said the rationalisation follows global best practices and decisions taken by the Universal Postal Union (UPU).
What was the overarching theme of the 5th National Conference of Chief Secretaries held at Pusa, Delhi, from 26 to 28 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Human Capital for Viksit Bharat
PIB (PMO): the conference discussed the overarching theme 'Human Capital for Viksit Bharat'.
At the 5th National Conference of Chief Secretaries, the PM urged the Centre and States to jointly identify how many products for domestic manufacturing to reduce import dependence?
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Correct answer: B — 100
PIB (PMO): the PM urged the Centre and States to jointly identify 100 products for domestic manufacturing.
Consider the following statements about the National Conference of Chief Secretaries held in December 2025: 1. It was held at Pusa, Delhi, from 26 to 28 December 2025. 2. It was the fifth such national conference. 3. The PM said about half of India's population is in the working-age group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): the 5th conference was held at Pusa, Delhi, from 26 to 28 December 2025. The PM said nearly 70% of the population is of working age, not about half.
In the 129th Mann Ki Baat (28 December 2025), the PM cited an ICMR report warning that:
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Correct answer: C — Antibiotics are proving ineffective against diseases like pneumonia and UTI
PIB (PMO): the PM said a recent ICMR report states antibiotics are proving ineffective against many diseases like pneumonia and UTI, largely due to indiscriminate use.
According to the PM in Mann Ki Baat (28 December 2025), the Kutch Rann Utsav 2025-26 runs during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 23 November to 20 February
PIB (PMO): the Kutch Ranotsav began on 23 November and will continue until 20 February.
The Viksit Bharat Young Leaders Dialogue mentioned in the 129th Mann Ki Baat is held on National Youth Day, which falls on:
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Correct answer: A — 12 January
PIB (PMO): National Youth Day is celebrated on the 12th of January, Swami Vivekananda's birth anniversary, and the Young Leaders Dialogue will be held that day.
Consider the following statements about the Smart India Hackathon (SIH), as described in the 129th Mann Ki Baat: 1. In SIH 2025, students worked on more than 270 problems from more than 80 government departments. 2. Over 13 lakh students and over 6,000 institutes have participated in SIH in the last 7 to 8 years. 3. SIH 2025 was organised by ISRO for space-sector problems only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): SIH 2025 covered 270+ problems of 80+ government departments, and 13 lakh+ students and 6,000+ institutes have taken part over 7–8 years. The problems spanned traffic, financial fraud, cyber security and agriculture, not only space, so statement 3 is wrong.
Untied Grants released to Panchayati Raj Institutions under the Fifteenth Finance Commission can be used for the subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Eleventh Schedule
PIB 2208817: Untied Grants are used for location-specific needs under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs. (The Twelfth Schedule lists municipal subjects.)
Consider the following statements about Fifteenth Finance Commission grants to rural local bodies: 1. Tied Grants can be used for sanitation, including maintaining ODF status, and for drinking water supply. 2. Untied Grants can be used to pay salaries of panchayat staff. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB 2208817: Tied Grants are for sanitation/ODF and drinking water; Untied Grants cannot be used for salaries and other establishment costs.
In which script is the Santhali version of the Constitution of India, released on 25 December 2025, written?
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Correct answer: A — Ol Chiki
PIB 2208453: the President said the Constitution is now available in the Santhali language, written in the Ol Chiki script.
Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
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Correct answer: C — 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
PIB 2208453 and 2208484: Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
Consider the following statements about the Santhali Constitution released in December 2025: 1. The Ol Chiki script was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925. 2. The translation was published by the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice. 3. It was released at a joint sitting in Parliament House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208484: Ol Chiki was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 and the translation was published by the Legislative Department. It was released at Rashtrapati Bhavan, so statement 3 is wrong.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Vision IAS in December 2025 for misleading UPSC result advertisements?
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Correct answer: A — ₹11 lakh
PIB 2208482: the CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹11 lakh on Vision IAS (AjayVision Education Private Limited).
'Misleading advertisement' is defined under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, as cited by the CCPA in its December 2025 order against a coaching institute?
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Correct answer: C — Section 2(28)
PIB 2208482: concealment of material information constituted a misleading advertisement under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Good Governance Day, observed on 25 December, marks the birth anniversary of:
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Correct answer: B — Atal Bihari Vajpayee
PIB 2208924: the Good Governance Day workshop commemorated the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. (Malaviya was also born on 25 December, but the Day honours Vajpayee.)
According to DARPG, how many public grievances were redressed during Good Governance Week 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Over 45 lakh
PIB 2208924: Good Governance Week saw over 57,000 camps, disposal of over 3 crore service delivery applications and redressal of over 45 lakh public grievances.
How many Good Governance Awards did Haryana present at its state-level Good Governance Day event on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 9
The Tribune and Chandigarh City News: CM Nayab Singh Saini presented nine awards, four for flagship schemes and five state-level awards.
The Security of Service portal launched by Haryana on 25 December 2025 serves which group?
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Correct answer: B — Contractual employees
ETV Bharat: the portal links contractual employees to service security under the Haryana Contractual Employees (Security of Service) Act of 2024; The Tribune reports the contractual employees' portal going live on Good Governance Day, 25 December 2025.
What is the name of the unified WhatsApp chatbot for government services launched by Odisha on 25 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ama Sathi
The New Indian Express and Pragativadi: CM Mohan Charan Majhi launched the 'Ama Sathi Unified WhatsApp Chatbot'.
Odisha's 'Ama Sathi' chatbot, launched in December 2025, gives access to how many government services?
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Correct answer: D — Over 150
The New Indian Express and Pragativadi: the chatbot provides access to over 150 essential government services.
Where was the two-day PESA Mahotsav held on 23–24 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Visakhapatnam
PIB 2208189: the two-day PESA Mahotsav (23–24 December 2025) was held at Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
How many states are listed as PESA States by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj?
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Correct answer: D — Ten
PIB 2208189: participants came from all ten PESA States — Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana.
Which of the following states is NOT a PESA State, as per the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (December 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB 2208189: the ten PESA States are Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana; Karnataka is not among them.
In December 2025, which state's Cabinet approved in principle a permanent, photo-embedded nativity card to replace the nativity certificate?
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Correct answer: C — Kerala
The Hindu and ABP Live (PTI): the Kerala Cabinet gave in-principle approval on 24 December 2025 for a permanent nativity card with a photo.
Which Kerala department was asked to draft the law giving legal validity to the proposed nativity card?
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Correct answer: B — Revenue Department
The Hindu and ABP Live (PTI): the Revenue Department was tasked with preparing a draft law, in consultation with the Law Department.
In how many Scheduled districts of Jharkhand will the PESA rules approved by the state Cabinet on 23 December 2025 apply?
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Correct answer: C — 15
UNI and IANS: the PESA rules clear the way for the law to become operational across 15 Scheduled districts of Jharkhand.
The PESA Act, whose implementation rules Jharkhand approved in December 2025, was enacted in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1996
PIB 2208189 and UNI: the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act dates from 1996.
Under the Colliery Control (Amendment) Rules, 2025, who now approves the opening of a coal mine or seam by a coal company?
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Correct answer: C — Board of the concerned coal company
PIB 2208844: the authority to approve mine/seam opening has been vested with the board of the concerned coal company; prior CCO permission is dispensed with.
Consider the following statements about the Colliery Control (Amendment) Rules, 2025: 1. They amend Rule 9 of the Colliery Control Rules, 2004. 2. Entities other than companies no longer need any approval to open a mine. 3. The company must submit information about mine opening to the Coal Controller's Organisation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208844: Rule 9 of the 2004 Rules was amended and companies must inform the CCO. For entities other than companies, approval continues to be through the CCO, so statement 2 is wrong.
Which of the following districts is NOT part of the Kashi-Vindhya Region approved by the Uttar Pradesh Cabinet in December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Prayagraj
Amar Ujala and TOI: the region comprises Varanasi, Jaunpur, Chandauli, Ghazipur, Mirzapur, Bhadohi and Sonbhadra; Prayagraj is not included.
How many districts make up the Kashi-Vindhya Region approved by the Uttar Pradesh Cabinet in December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Seven
Amar Ujala and TOI: seven districts of the Varanasi and Vindhyachal divisions form the Kashi-Vindhya Region.
TiNAI, launched by Tamil Nadu in December 2025, is a:
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Correct answer: B — Land Use Information System (geospatial portal)
BusinessLine and TN State Planning Commission: TiNAI is the Tamil Nadu Land Use Information System, a web-based geospatial platform.
Who launched Tamil Nadu's TNCSR portal and TiNAI on 22 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Udhayanidhi Stalin
BusinessLine and TN State Planning Commission: Deputy Chief Minister and Ex-officio Vice Chairman of the State Planning Commission Udhayanidhi Stalin launched both portals.
Under the definition accepted by the Supreme Court in November 2025, a landform in the Aravalli districts is an 'Aravalli Hill' if it rises how high above local relief?
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Correct answer: B — 100 metres or more
PIB 2207176: any landform in the Aravalli districts with an elevation of 100 metres or more from the local relief is an Aravalli Hill. 500 m is the proximity used to define a range.
Which state was the only one with a formally established definition of the Aravallis for regulating mining, in force since 9 January 2006?
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Correct answer: A — Rajasthan
PIB 2207176: only Rajasthan had a formal definition, based on its 2002 committee report using the Richard Murphy landform classification, followed since 9 January 2006.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 20 November 2025 judgment on the Aravallis: 1. Two or more Aravalli Hills within 500 metres of each other form an Aravalli Range. 2. MoEFCC was directed to prepare a Management Plan for Sustainable Mining through ICFRE for the entire Aravallis. 3. New mining leases were allowed to continue while the plan is prepared. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207176: the range definition uses 500 m proximity and the Court directed an MPSM through ICFRE. It imposed an interim moratorium on new leases until the MPSM is prepared, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many days of wage employment per rural household per financial year does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025 guarantee?
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Correct answer: B — 125
PIB 2207187 and the Act's Section 5(1): not less than 125 days, up from the earlier 100-day entitlement under MGNREGA.
Which law does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025, which received Presidential assent in December 2025, replace?
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Correct answer: D — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
PIB 2207187: the Act replaces MGNREGA, 2005. The Gazette text says MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre.
Consider the following statements about the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. Centre–State cost sharing is 60:40, and 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States. 2. States may notify a pause aggregating to sixty days in a financial year during peak sowing and harvesting seasons. 3. The ceiling on administrative expenditure has been reduced from 9% to 6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207187: cost sharing is 60:40 (90:10 for NE and Himalayan States) and States may notify a 60-day aggregate pause. The administrative ceiling was raised from 6% to 9%, so statement 3 is wrong.
Consider the following statements about the Gazette text of the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It is Act No. 36 of 2025. 2. MGNREGA, 2005 stood repealed on the date of the President's assent. 3. The cost of the material component of works shall not exceed 40% at the district level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Gazette (PRS copy): Act No. 36 of 2025, and the material component is capped at 40% at district level. MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre, not on the date of assent, so statement 2 is wrong.
How did the Rajya Sabha pass the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 after midnight on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — By voice vote
The Hindu and Scroll: the Rajya Sabha passed the Bill by voice vote after midnight amid Opposition protests.
During the December 2025 debate on the VB-G RAM G Bill, the Rural Development Minister said Mahatma Gandhi's name was added to the 2005 rural employment guarantee law in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2009
The Hindu and The Times of India: Shivraj Singh Chouhan said Gandhi's name was not in the original 2005 law and was added in 2009.
Consider the following statements about the passage of the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025: 1. The Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 18 December 2025. 2. The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill after midnight, on 19 December 2025. 3. The Bill was referred to a parliamentary committee before it was passed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
The Hindu, Scroll and TOI: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on Thursday, 18 December, and the Rajya Sabha after midnight on Friday, 19 December. The demand to refer it to a committee was rejected, so statement 3 is wrong.