Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
India's defence exports in the financial year 2024-25 reached a record of about:
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Correct answer: B — ₹23,622 crore
PIB (Defence): defence exports surged to a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25, up from ₹21,083 crore in FY 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports in FY 2024-25: 1. The private sector contributed more than the Defence PSUs. 2. Defence PSU exports grew by more than 40%. 3. Exports went to more than 100 countries. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): the private sector contributed ₹15,233 crore and DPSUs ₹8,389 crore, with DPSU exports up 42.85%. Statement 3 is incorrect: items were exported to around 80 countries.
By 2029, India aims to raise its annual defence exports to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹50,000 crore
PIB (Defence): the Raksha Mantri said India is marching towards achieving the target of increasing defence exports to ₹50,000 crore by 2029.
According to the Coal Ministry, India's provisional coal production in FY 2024-25 was about:
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Correct answer: D — 1,047.57 million tonnes
PIB (Coal): cumulative coal production in FY 2024-25 reached 1,047.57 MT (provisional), compared to 997.83 MT in FY 2023-24. 1,024.99 MT was the dispatch figure.
By how much did India's coal production grow in FY 2024-25 over FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: B — 4.99%
PIB (Coal): production grew 4.99%, from 997.83 MT to 1,047.57 MT. The 5.34% figure was the growth in dispatch.
The NITI NCAER States Economic Forum portal, launched on 1 April 2025, mainly provides data and analysis on:
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Correct answer: B — State finances
PIB (NITI Aayog): the portal is a comprehensive repository of data on social, economic and fiscal parameters, research reports, papers and expert commentary on State Finances.
The NITI NCAER States Economic Forum portal covers state finance data for which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1990-91 to 2022-23
PIB (NITI Aayog): the portal covers a period of about 30 years, i.e. 1990-91 to 2022-23.
After empanelling 15 more banks on 1 April 2025, how many banks can collect EPFO contributions?
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Correct answer: B — 32
PIB (Labour): EPFO had already empanelled 17 banks; the 15 newly empanelled banks take the total to 32.
How many claims did EPFO settle in FY 2024-25, according to the Labour Minister?
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Correct answer: A — Over 6 crore
PIB (Labour): EPFO settled a record of over 6 crore claims in FY 2024-25, a 35% increase over the 4.45 crore settled in 2023-24; 2.34 crore were auto-settled.
From 1 April 2025, the price of APM natural gas from old nomination fields was raised to what level?
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Correct answer: D — $6.75 per mmBtu
PPAC notified a rise from $6.50 to $6.75 per mmBtu effective 1 April 2025.
Which body of the Petroleum Ministry notified the APM gas price revision on 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell
The notification came from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC).
Under the April 2023 pricing formula, domestic APM gas is priced at what share of the monthly average import price of crude oil?
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Correct answer: B — 10%
The formula prices domestic gas at 10% of the monthly average crude import price, subject to a floor and ceiling.
Consider the following statements about APM gas pricing: 1. The April 2023 formula, which followed the Kirit Parikh committee review, set a floor of $4 and a ceiling of $6.50 per mmBtu. 2. PPAC's formula price for April 2025 was below the new ceiling of $6.75 per mmBtu. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The April 2023 formula had a $4 floor and a $6.50 ceiling. PPAC said the formula price for April 2025 was $7.26, above the ceiling, so the $6.75 cap applied.
According to provisional figures released on 31 March 2025, IREDA's loan sanctions for FY 2024-25 stood at about how much?
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Correct answer: D — ₹47,453 crore
Sanctions rose 27% to ₹47,453 crore; ₹30,168 crore was disbursements and ₹76,250 crore the loan book.
Who was the Chairman and Managing Director of IREDA when it announced its FY 2024-25 provisional results on 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Pradip Kumar Das
The PIB release quotes CMD Pradip Kumar Das.
Where was the first edition of WAVES Bazaar, announced on 31 March 2025, scheduled to be held on 1–4 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Jio World Convention Centre, Mumbai
WAVES Bazaar was to be held at the Jio World Convention Centre, Mumbai, as part of WAVES 2025.
WAVES Bazaar's Buyer and Seller Meetings segment, announced on 31 March 2025, was organised in collaboration with which body?
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Correct answer: C — FICCI Frames Content Marketplace
The Buyer and Seller segment was organised in collaboration with FICCI Frames Content Marketplace.
According to the Ministry of Mines on 30 March 2025, which mineral recorded the highest growth (12.8%) in April–February of FY 2024-25 among those listed?
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Correct answer: B — Manganese ore
Manganese ore rose 12.8% to 3.4 MMT; iron ore rose 4.4%, bauxite 3.6% and lead concentrate 3.5%.
According to the Ministry of Mines, what is India's global rank in primary aluminium production?
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Correct answer: D — Second
The ministry said India is the 2nd largest aluminium producer and the 4th largest iron ore producer.
In Patna on 30 March 2025, Amit Shah said the Centre would restart how many closed sugar mills in Bihar?
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Correct answer: C — 30
Shah said the government would restart 30 closed sugar mills in Bihar.
What was the total value of projects Amit Shah inaugurated and laid foundation stones for in Patna on 30 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Over ₹800 crore
The projects were worth over ₹800 crore.
By when did India and the US aim to finalise the first tranche of their Bilateral Trade Agreement, according to the Commerce Ministry on 29 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — By fall 2025
The two sides aimed to finalise the first tranche of the BTA by fall 2025.
Under the India–US Joint Statement of 13 February 2025, bilateral trade was to be expanded to what level by 2030?
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Correct answer: B — $500 billion
The two sides agreed to expand bilateral trade to $500 billion by 2030.
The India–US trade talks that concluded in New Delhi on 29 March 2025 lasted how many days?
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Correct answer: C — Four
The talks were held from 26 to 29 March 2025, four days of discussions.
Consider the following statements about the India–US trade talks of March 2025: 1. On the US side, the talks were held with the Office of the US Trade Representative. 2. Sectoral expert-level engagements under the BTA were to begin in person in New Delhi immediately after the talks. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
India's Department of Commerce met the Office of the USTR. Sectoral expert-level engagements were to start virtually in the coming weeks, paving the way for an in-person round later.
According to 'Energy Statistics India 2025', released on 29 March 2025, India's Total Primary Energy Supply grew by how much in FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — 7.8%
TPES grew 7.8% in FY 2023-24 to 9,03,158 KToE.
According to 'Energy Statistics India 2025', which source accounts for the largest share (about 55%) of India's renewable energy potential?
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Correct answer: B — Wind
Wind power has 11,63,856 MW of the 21,09,655 MW potential, about 55%; solar is second.
Consider the following statements about 'Energy Statistics India 2025': 1. It includes a new chapter on Energy Accounts following the System of Environmental Economic Accounting (SEEA) 2012 framework. 2. Rajasthan has the largest share of India's renewable energy potential. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The publication adds an Energy Accounts chapter under SEEA 2012, and Rajasthan holds the largest share (20.3%) of RE potential.
Where is the 5.4 GW solar cell gigafactory of Waaree Energies, inaugurated by Pralhad Joshi on 29 March 2025, located?
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Correct answer: A — Chikhli
The facility is at Chikhli in Gujarat.
At the inauguration on 29 March 2025, Pralhad Joshi said India's solar power capacity had grown from 2.82 GW in 2014 to about how much?
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Correct answer: C — 104 GW
Joshi said solar capacity rose from 2.82 GW in 2014 to 104 GW.
On which date did the Union Cabinet approve the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS)?
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Correct answer: B — 28 March 2025
The Union Cabinet approved ECMS on 28 March 2025 with an outlay of ₹22,919 crore.
What production target was set for the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme when it was approved on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,56,500 crore
The scheme targets production of ₹4,56,500 crore; ₹59,350 crore is the investment target.
Consider the following statements about the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme approved on 28 March 2025: 1. Display module and camera module sub-assemblies are covered under a turnover-linked incentive. 2. Li-ion cells for storage and mobility applications are among the bare components covered. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Display and camera module sub-assemblies get a turnover-linked incentive. The Li-ion cell category covers digital applications and excludes storage and mobility.
Where was the 113th meeting of the EPFO Executive Committee held on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Srinagar
The 113th EC meeting of the Central Board of Trustees, EPF, was held in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
At its 113th meeting on 28 March 2025, the EPFO Executive Committee welcomed a proposal to raise the auto-claim settlement limit to:
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Correct answer: D — ₹5 lakh
The EC welcomed the proposal to raise the auto-claim limit to ₹5 lakh.
After the hike approved on 28 March 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees from 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 55%
DA was raised by 2% from 53% to 55% of basic pay, effective 1 January 2025.
About how many pensioners benefit from the Dearness Relief increase approved on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 66.55 lakh
About 66.55 lakh pensioners benefit; 48.66 lakh is the number of employees.
The Time Use Survey 2024, whose report was released on 28 March 2025, was which all-India edition of the survey?
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Correct answer: C — Second
It was the second all-India Time Use Survey; the first was conducted in 2019.
According to Time Use in India 2024, what share of women aged 15–59 took part in paid activities?
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Correct answer: B — 24.9%
24.9% of women aged 15–59 took part in paid activities, against 74.5% of men.
Consider the following statements about the Time Use Survey (TUS) 2024: 1. Non-SNA production activities, such as unpaid domestic work, saw participation by 93.9% of women aged 15–59. 2. Time-use surveys capture only work that is counted in the national accounts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
93.9% of women aged 15–59 took part in non-SNA production activities. Time-use surveys are valuable precisely because they also capture work not counted in national accounts, such as unpaid domestic and care work.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries grow in February 2025 (provisional), as released on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2.9%
The index grew 2.9% in February 2025; 4.4% was the April–February cumulative growth and 5.8% the final November 2024 figure.
What was the total value of the six ODA loan agreements India signed with JICA on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — JPY 191.736 billion
The six loan agreements were worth JPY 191.736 billion in total.
Which project received the largest loan among the six Japanese ODA agreements signed on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Delhi MRTS Project (Phase 4 Additional Corridors) (I)
The Delhi MRTS Phase 4 Additional Corridors (I) loan was the largest at JPY 79.726 billion.
Under the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025, an aquaculture promotion and livelihood improvement project is in which State?
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Correct answer: C — Assam
The Assam State Aquaculture Promotion and Livelihood Improvement Project received JPY 3.580 billion.
Consider the following statements about the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025: 1. Two of the six loans are for projects in Tamil Nadu. 2. The Punjab project financed under these loans is an urban transport project. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Tamil Nadu has two: the Chennai desalination plant and the TN Investment Promotion Program. The Punjab project is for biodiversity and natural resources conservation, not urban transport.
How much does the Centre plan to borrow through dated securities in the first half of FY 2025-26, as announced on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹8.00 lakh crore
₹8 lakh crore, or 54% of the ₹14.82 lakh crore budgeted for the year, is to be borrowed in H1.
In the H1 FY 2025-26 borrowing plan, which maturity accounts for the largest share of borrowing?
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Correct answer: B — 10-year
10-year securities have the largest share at 26.2%; 15-year and 40-year papers have 14% each.
Keizai Doyukai, whose delegation met PM Narendra Modi on 27 March 2025, is an association of corporate executives from which country?
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Correct answer: B — Japan
Keizai Doyukai is the Japan Association of Corporate Executives; its delegation was led by Takeshi Niinami.
While meeting the Keizai Doyukai delegation on 27 March 2025, PM Modi highlighted which system developed in India to fast-track Japanese investments?
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Correct answer: C — Japan Plus
The PM highlighted the Japan Plus system, set up to facilitate and fast-track Japanese investment in India.
Which two States received XV Finance Commission untied grants for rural local bodies, as announced on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Karnataka and Tripura
Karnataka received ₹404.97 crore and Tripura ₹31.13 crore as the second instalment of untied grants for 2024-25.
Consider the following statements about XV Finance Commission untied grants to rural local bodies: 1. They can be used for salaries and establishment costs of panchayats. 2. In Tripura, Traditional Local Bodies were among the recipients of the 2024-25 second instalment. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Untied grants cannot be used for salaries and establishment costs. In Tripura, the grant covered Gram, Block and District Panchayats and Traditional Local Bodies.
The third session of the India–Uganda Joint Trade Committee, held in New Delhi on 25–26 March 2025, came after a gap of how many years?
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Correct answer: C — 23
The third JTC session was held after a gap of 23 years.
At the India–Uganda JTC of March 2025, the two sides agreed to explore an MoU on recognition of which Indian standard?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Pharmacopoeia
They agreed to explore MoUs including one on recognition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia.
National Highways Infra Trust (NHIT), which completed a record fund-raising round announced on 26 March 2025, is an InvIT set up by:
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Correct answer: C — NHAI
NHIT is the Infrastructure Investment Trust set up by NHAI in 2020 to support the government's monetisation programme.
What was the approximate enterprise value of NHIT's fourth fund-raising round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹18,380 crore
The fourth round was at an enterprise value of about ₹18,380 crore; ₹46,000 crore is the total across four rounds.
Which of the following highway stretches is among those to be acquired with funds from NHIT's fourth round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gandhidham–Mundra
The stretches include Gandhidham–Mundra (Gujarat) and Raipur–Bilaspur (Chhattisgarh), along with stretches in Andhra Pradesh and UP/Uttarakhand.
Which law's implementation was discussed at the RBI's 8th State Level Coordination Committee meeting in Sikkim on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019
The committee discussed implementation of the BUDS Rules under the Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019.
Which components of the Gold Monetisation Scheme were discontinued with effect from 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposits
The Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposit (MLTGD) components were discontinued; the Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at banks' discretion.
After the March 2025 changes to the Gold Monetisation Scheme, what happens to the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years)?
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Correct answer: D — It continues at the discretion of individual banks based on commercial viability
The Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at the discretion of individual banks, based on their assessment of commercial viability.
What happens to gold already deposited under the Medium and Long Term Government Deposit components of the GMS, after they were discontinued in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — It continues until redemption as per existing guidelines
Existing deposits under MLTGD continue until redemption as per the extant GMS guidelines.
Consider the following statements about the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS): 1. The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce India's reliance on gold imports in the long run. 2. Under the GMS, the Long Term Government Deposit had a tenure of 12–15 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce reliance on gold imports and mobilise household and institutional gold. Its components were the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years), Medium Term Government Deposit (5–7 years) and Long Term Government Deposit (12–15 years).
How many government amendments were included in the Finance Bill, 2025 when the Lok Sabha passed it on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 35
The Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill, 2025 with 35 government amendments.
One of the amendments to the Finance Bill, 2025, passed by the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, abolished which levy?
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Correct answer: D — 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements
An amendment abolished the 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements, popularly called the 'Google tax'.
What total expenditure does the Union Budget 2025-26 envisage, as reported when the Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹50.65 lakh crore
The Union Budget 2025-26 envisages total expenditure of ₹50.65 lakh crore, an increase of 7.4% over the current fiscal.
The Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, repeals a law from which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1923
The Boilers Bill, 2024 repeals the Boilers Act, 1923.
Under the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha in March 2025, how many of the seven offences in the law retain criminal penalties?
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Correct answer: B — Four
Criminal penalties are retained for four major offences that may cause loss of life and property; the other three are decriminalised.
Consider the following statements about the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025: 1. The Bill had already been passed by the Rajya Sabha on 4 December 2024. 2. Its decriminalisation provisions are in line with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 4 December 2024. The review incorporated decriminalised provisions in consonance with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023.
From 1 April 2025, how often must traders, retailers and processors declare their wheat stocks on the government portal, as directed on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Every Friday
Entities must declare wheat stocks on the portal from 1 April 2025 and then every Friday until further orders.
How many coal mines were successfully auctioned in the 11th round of commercial coal mine auctions, as announced on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Twelve
Twelve mines (eight fully explored and four partially explored) were auctioned.
What was the average revenue share achieved in the 11th round of commercial coal mine auctions (results announced March 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — 36.27%
The auctions achieved an average revenue share of 36.27%.
In the 11th round of commercial coal mine auctions, the Banai & Bhalumunda mines, won by Jindal Power, are in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Chhattisgarh
Banai & Bhalumunda in Chhattisgarh, with a peak rated capacity of 12 MTPA, went to Jindal Power at a 48% final offer.
To which country was the first consignment of GI-tagged Dalle Khursani from Sikkim exported, as announced by APEDA on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Solomon Islands
APEDA facilitated the first export of GI-tagged Dalle Khursani from Sikkim to the Solomon Islands, a 200 kg consignment of dried chillies.
Dalle Khursani, the GI-tagged chilli exported from Sikkim in March 2025, is also known by which name?
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Correct answer: B — Fire Ball Chilli
Dalle Khursani is also called Fire Ball Chilli. It is registered on the GI Registry under application no. 636, with its certificate dated 14 September 2021.