Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many new establishments were registered under the ESI Scheme in January 2025, as per ESIC's payroll data released on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 27,805
27,805 new establishments were registered in January 2025, along with 18.19 lakh new employees.
From which date did the Centre withdraw the 20% export duty on onions, as notified on 22 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2025
The notification issued on 22 March 2025 made the onion export duty nil with effect from 1 April 2025.
Since when had the 20% export duty on onions, withdrawn in March 2025, been in force?
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Correct answer: C — 13 September 2024
The 20% duty had been in place from 13 September 2024. Exports were prohibited earlier, from 8 December 2023 to 3 May 2024.
What was the estimated rabi onion production for 2025, cited when the onion export duty was withdrawn in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 227 lakh tonnes
Rabi production was estimated at 227 lakh metric tonnes, over 18% higher than 192 LMT the previous year.
Consider the following statements about the withdrawal of the onion export duty in March 2025: 1. It was done through a notification issued under Section 25(1) of the Customs Act, 1962. 2. The notification was issued by the Department of Commerce. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Notification No. 19/2025-Customs was issued by the Department of Revenue (Ministry of Finance) under Section 25(1) of the Customs Act, 1962, on the communication of the Department of Consumer Affairs.
How many websites/URLs of offshore online money gaming entities had DGGI blocked, as stated on 22 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 357
DGGI said 357 websites/URLs of illegal or non-compliant offshore online money gaming entities had been blocked; about 700 entities were under its scanner.
Under which provision were offshore online money gaming websites blocked in coordination with MeitY, as reported by DGGI in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000
The 357 websites/URLs were blocked in coordination with MeitY under Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000.
According to the India Bioeconomy Report 2025, released on 21 March 2025, what was the size of India's bioeconomy in 2024?
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Correct answer: B — $165.7 billion
IBER 2025 put India's bioeconomy at $165.7 billion in 2024, up from $10 billion in 2014.
What share of India's GDP did the bioeconomy contribute, as per the India Bioeconomy Report 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 4.25%
IBER 2025 says the bioeconomy contributes 4.25% to India's GDP.
What is 'BioSaarthi', launched by Dr Jitendra Singh on 21 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A global mentorship initiative for biotech startups
BioSaarthi is a six-month cohort-based global mentorship initiative for biotech startups, engaging overseas experts, especially from the Indian diaspora.
How many biotech startups does India have, as cited at the release of the India Bioeconomy Report 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 10,075
The Minister said biotech startups have grown from about 50 a decade ago to over 10,075.
Consider the following statements about the India Bioeconomy Report 2025: 1. India's bioeconomy surpassed the target of $150 billion set for 2025. 2. The bioeconomy grew at a CAGR of 17.9% over the past four years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
IBER 2025 says the bioeconomy reached $165.7 billion in 2024, surpassing the $150 billion target for 2025, with a CAGR of 17.9% over the past four years.
About how many standards had the Bureau of Indian Standards developed, as stated in March 2025 ahead of its Annual Programme for Standardisation 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Over 23,000
BIS said it has developed more than 23,000 standards.
On which date did India's coal production cross one billion tonnes in the financial year 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 20 March 2025
The Ministry of Coal said production crossed 1 BT on 20 March 2025.
What was India's total coal production in FY 2023-24, which was surpassed in March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 997.83 MT
The 1 BT milestone came 11 days ahead of the previous fiscal's production of 997.83 million tonnes.
According to the Ministry of Coal in March 2025, about what share of India's electricity is generated by coal-based plants?
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Correct answer: D — About 74%
Around 74% of India's electricity is generated by coal-based power plants; coal is about 55% of the energy mix.
Consider the following statements made by the Ministry of Coal when coal output crossed 1 billion tonnes in March 2025: 1. Coal accounts for about 55% of India's energy mix. 2. India's coal imports rose during April–December 2024 compared with the previous year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The ministry said coal is about 55% of the energy mix, and that coal imports declined by 8.4% in April–December 2024, saving about $5.43 billion.
How many net members did EPFO add in January 2025, as per payroll data released on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 17.89 lakh
EPFO added 17.89 lakh net members in January 2025; 8.23 lakh were new subscribers.
What share of EPFO's new subscribers in January 2025 were aged 18–25?
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Correct answer: A — About 57%
4.70 lakh new subscribers, or 57.07% of the total, were in the 18–25 age group.
Which ministry organised the 'Udyam Utsav' at Rashtrapati Bhavan from 20 to 30 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of MSME
The Ministry of MSME organised the Udyam Utsav at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
From which date did the PFRDA regulations operationalising the Unified Pension Scheme, notified in March 2025, come into effect?
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Correct answer: C — 1 April 2025
The PFRDA regulations, notified by gazette dated 19 March 2025, came into effect on 1 April 2025.
Under the Unified Pension Scheme, the full assured payout is what share of the average basic pay of the last 12 months before superannuation?
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Correct answer: B — 50%
The full assured payout is 50% of the 12-month average basic pay immediately before superannuation, payable after at least 25 years of qualifying service.
What is the minimum guaranteed monthly payout under the Unified Pension Scheme for a subscriber who superannuates after at least 10 years of qualifying service?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
A minimum guaranteed payout of ₹10,000 a month applies when superannuation is after 10 or more years of qualifying service.
Consider the following statements about the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS): 1. Besides 10% to the employee's individual corpus, the government contributes an additional 8.5% to a pool corpus. 2. The family payout under UPS is 60% of the subscriber's payout. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PFRDA's comparison gives UPS contributions as 10% (employee) + 10% (Government) + 8.5% (pool corpus), and family benefits as 60% of the subscriber's payout. Both statements are correct.
The Dugda Coal Washery, which became the first coal washery in India to be monetised (March 2025), is located in which district?
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Correct answer: B — Bokaro
BCCL monetised the 2 MTPA Dugda Coal Washery located in Bokaro, Jharkhand.
Which Coal India subsidiary monetised the Dugda Coal Washery in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Coking Coal Limited
Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL), a CIL subsidiary, monetised the 2 MTPA Dugda Coal Washery.
Under SEBI's DigiLocker circular of 19 March 2025, what are the persons called whom a DigiLocker user can appoint to get read-only access to the account after the user's death?
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Correct answer: B — Data Access Nominees
Users can appoint Data Access Nominees, who get read-only access to the DigiLocker account after the user's demise.
Under SEBI's March 2025 framework for DigiLocker, which entities serve as the primary source for verifying a user's death and triggering notifications to the nominees?
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Correct answer: D — KYC Registration Agencies (KRAs)
SEBI-regulated KYC Registration Agencies will be the primary source for verifying and triggering notifications to Data Access Nominees.
Up to what transaction value are UPI person-to-merchant payments of small merchants covered under the incentive scheme approved by the Cabinet on 19 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,000
Only UPI P2M transactions of up to ₹2,000 for small merchants are covered under the scheme.
At what rate is the incentive paid on eligible low-value BHIM-UPI person-to-merchant transactions under the 2024-25 scheme?
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Correct answer: B — 0.15% of transaction value
The incentive is 0.15% of transaction value for small-merchant transactions up to ₹2,000. 0.30% is the MDR cap NPCI sets for UPI P2M, and 0.90% is RBI's debit card MDR cap.
Consider the following statements about the BHIM-UPI P2M incentive scheme approved in March 2025: 1. 80% of a bank's admitted claim for each quarter is paid without any condition. 2. 10% of the claim is paid only if the acquiring bank's system uptime is above 99.5%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
80% of the admitted claim is disbursed unconditionally; of the remaining 20%, 10% depends on technical decline below 0.75% and 10% on system uptime above 99.5%. Both statements are correct.
Which partner holds the largest equity share in the joint venture for the Namrup-IV ammonia-urea complex approved by the Cabinet on 19 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Government of Assam
The Government of Assam holds 40%, followed by NFL and OIL (18% each), HURL (13%) and BVFCL (11%).
What is the estimated total project cost of the Namrup-IV ammonia-urea complex approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,601.40 crore
The estimated total project cost is ₹10,601.40 crore, with a 70:30 debt-equity ratio.
Consider the following statements about the Namrup-IV project approved in March 2025: 1. Oil India Limited holds 18% equity in the joint venture. 2. Brahmaputra Valley Fertilizer Corporation Limited contributes its 11% equity in cash. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
OIL holds 18% equity. BVFCL's 11% equity is in lieu of tangible assets, not cash, so statement 2 is wrong.
Which organisation is the implementation partner for C-DOT's 'Samarth' incubation programme launched on 19 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)
C-DOT selected Software Technology Parks of India (STPI), under MeitY, as the implementation partner for Samarth.
Up to how much grant can each startup selected under C-DOT's 'Samarth' incubation programme (March 2025) receive?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5 lakh
Selected startups can get a grant of up to ₹5 lakh each.
The IndiaAI Hackathon on Mineral Targeting, launched with the Geological Survey of India in March 2025, covers a pre-defined area in which two states?
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Correct answer: B — Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Participants are to identify new exploration areas within a pre-defined 39,000 sq km area in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
What gross merchandise value (GMV) milestone for FY 2024-25 did the Government e Marketplace (GeM) cross, as announced on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹5 lakh crore
GeM crossed ₹5 lakh crore GMV for FY 2024-25 more than 18 days before the financial year ended.
GeM's ₹5 lakh crore GMV milestone (March 2025) came less than 50 days after it crossed ₹4 lakh crore. On which date was the ₹4 lakh crore mark crossed?
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Correct answer: B — 23 January 2025
GeM crossed ₹4 lakh crore GMV on 23 January 2025 and ₹5 lakh crore less than 50 days later.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for February 2025, released on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2.38%
Annual WPI inflation for February 2025 was 2.38% (provisional) over February 2024.
In India's Wholesale Price Index (base 2011-12), which major group carries the largest weight, as listed in the February 2025 release?
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Correct answer: B — Manufactured Products (64.23%)
Manufactured Products carry the largest weight at 64.23%, followed by Primary Articles (22.62%) and Fuel & Power (13.15%); together these three major groups make up 100%.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services) during April–February 2024-25, as released on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — $750.53 billion
Total exports in April–February 2024-25 were estimated at $750.53 billion, up 6.24% from $706.43 billion a year earlier.
By what percentage did India's exports of electronic goods grow in February 2025 over February 2024, as per the Commerce Ministry data of 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 26.46%
Electronic goods exports increased by 26.46%, from $3 billion in February 2024 to $3.79 billion in February 2025.
Which new department did Haryana CM Nayab Singh Saini propose in the State budget for 2025-26 presented on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Department of the Future
Saini proposed a new 'Department of the Future' to anticipate emerging technologies and risks and make Haryana 'future-capable'.
Under the Haryana AI Mission announced in the 2025-26 budget, AI hubs are to be set up in which two cities?
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Correct answer: D — Gurugram and Panchkula
The budget speech said one hub each will be established in Gurugram and Panchkula, to train over 50,000 youth.
Consider the following statements about Haryana's budget for 2025-26: 1. The World Bank has given an initial assurance of ₹474 crore for the Haryana AI Mission. 2. The budget outlay is lower than the revised estimates for 2024-25. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct per the budget speech. Statement 2 is wrong: the outlay of ₹2,05,017.29 crore is 13.7% higher than the revised estimates of 2024-25.
The launch of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations on 16 March 2025 was marked by a meeting between Piyush Goyal and which New Zealand minister?
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Correct answer: B — Todd McClay
The launch was marked by a meeting between Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal and New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment Todd McClay in New Delhi.
India and New Zealand's earlier trade negotiations, which stalled in 2015 after nine rounds, were for which agreement?
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Correct answer: D — Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA)
India and New Zealand began negotiating a Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) in April 2010; the talks stalled in 2015 after nine rounds.
According to India's Commerce Ministry, the India–New Zealand FTA negotiations launched in March 2025 aim mainly to:
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Correct answer: B — Enhance supply chain integration and improve market access
The ministry said the negotiations aim to achieve balanced outcomes that enhance supply chain integration and improve market access.
Which RBI digital initiatives were recognised with the Digital Transformation Award 2025 by Central Banking, London?
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Correct answer: B — Pravaah and Sarthi
The RBI was honoured for its in-house digital initiatives Pravaah and Sarthi.
The Digital Transformation Award 2025 won by the Reserve Bank of India (March 2025) was conferred by:
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Correct answer: C — Central Banking, London
The award was conferred by Central Banking, London, UK.
Who was the Chairperson of the Competition Commission of India when it held the 10th National Conference on Economics of Competition Law on 16 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ravneet Kaur
CCI Chairperson Ravneet Kaur delivered the special address at the conference.
What was the theme of World Consumer Rights Day 2025, observed on 15 March?
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Correct answer: C — A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles
The Department of Consumer Affairs held its webinar on the theme 'A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles'.
On World Consumer Rights Day 2025, Union Minister Pralhad Joshi cited a strengthened regulatory framework against which practice, in which products are falsely marketed as environment-friendly?
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Correct answer: D — Greenwashing
Joshi mentioned strengthening the regulatory framework against greenwashing — misleading claims that a product is environment-friendly.
Who presented the Tamil Nadu Budget 2025-26 in the State Assembly on 14 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Thangam Thennarasu
Finance Minister Thangam Thennarasu presented the Tamil Nadu Budget 2025-26 on 14 March 2025.
What fiscal deficit, as a share of GSDP, did the Tamil Nadu Budget 2025-26 estimate?
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Correct answer: B — 3%
The fiscal deficit for 2025-26 is estimated at ₹1,06,963 crore, or 3% of GSDP; 3.26% is the 2024-25 figure.
Which place did the Tamil Nadu Budget 2025-26 propose to notify as a Greater Flamingo Sanctuary?
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Correct answer: A — Dhanushkodi
The Budget announced plans to notify Dhanushkodi as a Greater Flamingo Sanctuary.
Where will 'Agaram', the language museum announced in the Tamil Nadu Budget 2025-26, be built?
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Correct answer: D — Madurai
The Budget announced 'Agaram', a language museum in Madurai showing the plurality of Indian languages.
Consider the following statements about the Tamil Nadu Budget 2025-26: 1. Its logo replaced the ₹ symbol with the Tamil letter 'ரூ' (Roo). 2. It announced a Tamil Nadu Semiconductor Mission 2030 with an estimated allocation of ₹500 crore over five years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Budget logo used 'ரூ' for 'Roobai', and the Finance Minister announced the ₹500-crore Tamil Nadu Semiconductor Mission 2030.
On 14 March 2025, gold crossed which price level per ounce for the first time?
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Correct answer: C — $3,000
Spot gold crossed $3,000 an ounce for the first time on 14 March 2025, touching $3,004.86.
By how much had gold prices risen in 2024, before crossing $3,000 an ounce in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — About 27%
Reuters reported gold rose 27% in 2024 and about 14% more in 2025 before crossing $3,000.
The sharp $15.27 billion rise in India's forex reserves in the week ended 7 March 2025 was attributed mainly to what?
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Correct answer: A — An RBI $10 billion dollar-rupee buy-sell swap
The rise was attributed mainly to the RBI's $10 billion buy-sell forex swap of 28 February 2025, in which it bought dollars against rupees to inject liquidity.
In which state was India's first-ever auction of Exploration Licences launched on 13 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Goa
The first Exploration Licence auction was launched at Dona Paula, Goa, by G. Kishan Reddy and CM Pramod Sawant.
How many blocks were offered in India's first Exploration Licence auction launched in March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 13
The first EL auction covered 13 blocks for minerals such as REE, zinc, diamond, copper and PGE.
How many critical and deep-seated minerals listed in the Seventh Schedule of the MMDR Act can be explored under an Exploration Licence?
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Correct answer: C — 29
Exploration Licences cover reconnaissance and prospecting for 29 critical and deep-seated minerals listed in the new Seventh Schedule.
Consider the following statements about Exploration Licences (ELs) in India: 1. An EL permits reconnaissance and prospecting operations, not mining. 2. The Centre used its powers under Section 20A of the MMDR Act to issue an order in October 2024 for conducting EL auctions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: ELs allow reconnaissance and prospecting for Seventh Schedule minerals, and the Centre issued a Section 20A order on 21 October 2024 to run the auctions.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation for February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3.61%
MoSPI put February 2025 retail inflation at 3.61% (provisional), the lowest since July 2024.
Which item recorded the highest year-on-year inflation at the all-India level in February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Coconut oil
Coconut oil had the highest inflation at 54.48%, followed by coconut (41.61%), gold (35.56%), silver (30.89%) and onion (30.42%).
Consider the following statements about CPI data for February 2025: 1. Food inflation fell to its lowest level since May 2023. 2. Urban headline inflation was higher than rural headline inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: food inflation was 3.75%, the lowest since May 2023. Statement 2 is wrong: urban inflation (3.32%) was lower than rural (3.79%).
What was India's IIP growth rate for January 2025 as per the Quick Estimates?
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Correct answer: C — 5.0%
IIP grew 5.0% in January 2025; 3.2% was December 2024, 4.4% mining and 5.5% manufacturing.
Which use-based category contracted in the IIP for January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Consumer non-durables
Consumer non-durables fell 0.2% in January 2025, while capital goods grew 7.8% and consumer durables 7.2%.
By how much did India's coal imports fall in April–December 2024 compared with the same period of 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — 8.4%
Coal imports fell 8.4% to 183.42 MT from 200.19 MT, saving about $5.43 billion in foreign exchange.