Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2.05%
2.05% (provisional), down from 2.38% in February 2025.
Consider the following statements about the WPI for March 2025: 1. Inflation in manufactured products was 3.07%. 2. Fuel & power has the largest weight among the three major groups of the WPI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Manufactured products have the largest weight (64.23%); fuel & power has 13.15%.
What was IREDA's profit after tax for 2024-25, its highest ever?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,699 crore
₹1,699 crore, up 36%. ₹2,104 crore was the profit before tax and ₹6,742 crore the revenue from operations.
IREDA became the first PSU to publish its audited financial results for 2024-25 within how many days?
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Correct answer: C — 15 days
15 days, making it the first company in the NBFC and banking sector and the first PSU to do so.
How many exploration blocks were awarded under Round-IX of the Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP), as stated in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 28
28 blocks across eight sedimentary basins, covering 1.36 lakh sq km.
According to the Petroleum Minister in April 2025, India relies on imports for about what share of its natural gas needs?
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Correct answer: A — 50%
50% of natural gas; for crude oil the figure is 88%.
Under its April 2025 MoU with the Labour Ministry, Swiggy aims to mobilise how many job opportunities through the NCS portal in the next 2–3 years?
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Correct answer: D — Over 12 lakh
Over 12 lakh job opportunities in the next 2–3 years.
The Labour Ministry–Swiggy MoU of April 2025 links gig and logistics jobs to which government platform?
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Correct answer: A — National Career Service (NCS) portal
The National Career Service (NCS) portal, which had over 1.25 crore active job seekers as of 31 January 2025.
In April 2025, the Department of Consumer Affairs framed draft rules mandating testing, verification and stamping of gas meters under which framework?
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Correct answer: D — Legal Metrology (General) Rules, 2011
Legal Metrology (General) Rules, 2011; the draft rules cover domestic, commercial and industrial gas meters.
Near which city did the DRI seize 52.67 kg of methamphetamine tablets, as announced on 13 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Aizawl
Aizawl: the truck was intercepted on the outskirts of Aizawl, Mizoram.
The truck carrying methamphetamine seized by DRI near Aizawl had come from which border town?
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Correct answer: B — Zokhawthar
Zokhawthar, on the Indo-Myanmar border; the truck was bound for Tripura.
On 12 April 2025, ₹515.31 crore was handed over for restitution to investors of which Ponzi scheme?
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Correct answer: B — Rose Valley
Rose Valley: the amount was handed to the Asset Disposal Committee headed by Justice D.K. Seth (Retd.).
Who chairs the Asset Disposal Committee that received ₹515.31 crore for Rose Valley investors?
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Correct answer: A — Justice D.K. Seth (Retd.)
Justice D.K. Seth (Retd.) is the Chairman; Rahul Navin, the ED Director, attended the handover.
Consider the following statements about the Rose Valley restitution of April 2025: 1. The amount was attached by the Enforcement Directorate between 2015 and 2017. 2. It is expected to benefit about 31 lakh victims. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ED attached the amount in 2015–17; about 7.5 lakh victims are expected to benefit out of 31 lakh claims received.
Where did APEDA and the Government of Arunachal Pradesh host an International Conclave cum Buyer-Seller Meet in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tawang
Tawang, at the Kalawangpo Convention Hall.
Which GI-tagged rice of Arunachal Pradesh was highlighted by Chief Minister Pema Khandu at the APEDA conclave in Tawang?
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Correct answer: B — Khaw Tai (Khamti) rice
Khaw Tai (Khamti) rice, along with produce such as kiwi and yak cheese (Churpi).
Consider the following statements about the APEDA International Conclave cum Buyer-Seller Meet at Tawang: 1. It brought together 11 international buyers from 3 countries. 2. It was held at the Kalawangpo Convention Hall. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The meet had 11 buyers from 3 countries, 17 exporters from 7 States/UTs and over 350 farmers, at the Kalawangpo Convention Hall, Tawang.
Which body operates the 'Global Tariff and Trade Helpdesk' launched in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT): the helpdesk is on the DGFT website under Services > DGFT Helpdesk Service.
What was India's IIP growth in February 2025 according to the quick estimate released on 11 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2.9%
2.9%; 5.0% was January's growth, and 1.6% and 3.6% were the mining and electricity growth rates for February.
Which sector recorded the highest growth in the IIP for February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Electricity
Electricity grew 3.6%, ahead of manufacturing (2.9%) and mining (1.6%).
Consider the following statements about the Index of Industrial Production (IIP): 1. Its current base year is 2004-05. 2. Quick estimates are released with a lag of six weeks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The IIP's current base year is 2011-12, not 2004-05; MoSPI releases quick estimates on the 12th of every month with a six-week lag.
NITI Aayog's April 2025 automotive report sets what target for India's auto component production by 2030?
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Correct answer: C — US$145 billion
US$145 billion by 2030, along with raising India's GVC share from 3% to 8%.
According to NITI Aayog's April 2025 report, what is India's rank among the world's vehicle producers?
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Correct answer: C — Fourth
Fourth: India produces about 6 million vehicles out of about 94 million globally.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's report 'Automotive Industry: Powering India's Participation in Global Value Chains': 1. It was launched by NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Suman Bery. 2. It aims to raise India's share in global auto component value chain trade from 3% to 8%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Suman Bery launched the report, which targets an increase in India's GVC share from 3% to 8%.
The ASEAN co-chair of the 8th AITIGA Joint Committee meeting held in New Delhi in April 2025 was from which country?
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Correct answer: D — Malaysia
Malaysia: Dr Sugumari S. Shanmugam co-chaired with India's Additional Secretary Rajesh Agrawal.
In the acronym AITIGA, what does 'TIG' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Trade in Goods
Trade in Goods: AITIGA is the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement.
India and Italy are pursuing cooperation under a Joint Strategic Action Plan covering which period?
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Correct answer: C — 2025-2029
2025-2029: the plan was agreed by the two Prime Ministers in November 2024.
To what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee reduce the policy repo rate in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6.00 per cent
6.00 per cent, after a 25 basis point cut; 5.75 per cent became the SDF rate and 6.25 per cent the MSF rate and Bank Rate.
Consider the following statements about the RBI MPC meeting of 7-9 April 2025: 1. The MPC changed its policy stance from neutral to accommodative. 2. The repo rate decision was taken by a 4-2 majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The MPC changed its stance from neutral to accommodative, and the repo rate cut was unanimous, not a split vote.
What CPI inflation rate did the RBI project for 2025-26 in its April 2025 policy?
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Correct answer: D — 4.0 per cent
4.0 per cent; 3.6 per cent and 4.4 per cent are the Q1 and Q4 projections, and 6.5 per cent is the GDP growth projection.
The MPC meeting held from 7 to 9 April 2025 was its:
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Correct answer: C — 54th meeting
54th meeting, the first of financial year 2025-26, chaired by Governor Sanjay Malhotra.
According to PLFS 2024, what was the all-India unemployment rate in Current Weekly Status (CWS)?
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Correct answer: C — 4.9%
4.9%, down from 5.0% in 2023; 6.7% is the urban rate and 3.2% the PS+SS rate.
Consider the following statements about PLFS 2024: 1. In CWS, urban female unemployment declined from 8.9% to 8.2%. 2. In Principal and Subsidiary Status (PS+SS), the all-India unemployment rate declined in 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Urban female unemployment (CWS) fell to 8.2%, but the PS+SS unemployment rate rose from 3.1% to 3.2%.
When did the National Statistics Office launch the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)?
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Correct answer: B — April 2017
April 2017, to make labour force data available at more frequent intervals.
The India-UK Economic and Financial Dialogue held on 9 April 2025 was which edition, and where was it held?
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Correct answer: B — 13th, London
13th, London; it ended with the adoption of a Joint Statement.
Who led the UK delegation at the 13th India-UK Economic and Financial Dialogue?
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Correct answer: A — Rachel Reeves
Rachel Reeves, Chancellor of the Exchequer; the Indian side was led by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
Which Indian company signed a contract with Airbus in April 2025 to manufacture the H130 helicopter fuselage?
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Correct answer: B — Mahindra Aerostructures
Mahindra Aerostructures Pvt. Ltd., at a ceremony chaired by Civil Aviation Minister Ram Mohan Naidu.
When was the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 8 April 2015
8 April 2015; the scheme completed 10 years on 8 April 2025.
What is the current maximum loan limit under PMMY after the increase announced in the Union Budget 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 lakh
₹20 lakh, raised from ₹10 lakh with effect from 24 October 2024 through the new Tarun Plus category.
Consider the following statements about PMMY: 1. According to the Finance Minister, nearly 68% of MUDRA loan accounts have been sanctioned to women. 2. The Tarun Plus category is open to any first-time borrower. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Tarun Plus (₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh) is only for borrowers who have availed and successfully repaid loans under the Tarun category.
Under PMMY, the Shishu category covers loans up to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹50,000
₹50,000; Kishor covers loans above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh.
How many Regional Rural Banks were amalgamated in the fourth phase notified on 8 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 26
26 RRBs in 10 states and 1 UT; the total number of RRBs falls from 43 to 28.
After the fourth phase of amalgamation, how many RRBs will function in the country?
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Correct answer: D — 28
28, in 26 states and 2 UTs, with more than 22,000 branches.
Consider the following statements about RRB amalgamation: 1. The fourth phase follows the principle of 'One State One RRB'. 2. In Phase-I (FY 2006 to FY 2010), the number of RRBs was reduced from 196 to 82. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The fourth phase is based on 'One State One RRB', and Phase-I cut RRBs from 196 to 82.
Which state recorded the highest cotton procurement under MSP operations in the 2024-25 season (up to 31 March 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Telangana
Telangana, with 40 lakh bales, followed by Maharashtra (30 lakh) and Gujarat (14 lakh).
Which is the Ministry of Textiles' nodal agency for cotton procurement under MSP?
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Correct answer: A — Cotton Corporation of India
Cotton Corporation of India (CCI), which procured 100 lakh bales in 2024-25 up to 31 March 2025.
The Marwatola-II and Namchik West coal mines, for which CMDPAs were signed in April 2025, were auctioned in which round of commercial coal mining?
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Correct answer: D — 11th round
11th round; with these, CMDPAs have been signed for 120 commercial coal mines.
The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) signed an MoA in April 2025 to launch Phase 2 of 'Niveshak Didi' with:
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Correct answer: D — India Post Payments Bank
India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), under the Department of Posts.
The Digital Threat Report 2024 launched on 7 April 2025 by CERT-In, CSIRT-Fin and SISA focuses on which sector?
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Correct answer: D — Banking, Financial Services and Insurance (BFSI)
Banking, Financial Services and Insurance (BFSI); it aims to strengthen cybersecurity resilience in the sector.
Consider the following statements about the Digital Threat Report 2024 for the BFSI sector: 1. It was prepared by CERT-In alone, without any private-sector partner. 2. It was launched by the Secretaries of the Department of Financial Services and the Ministry of Electronics and IT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The report was a collaboration of CERT-In, CSIRT-Fin and the cybersecurity company SISA; it was launched by M. Nagaraju (DFS) and S. Krishnan (MeitY).
Who was the Director General of CERT-In at the launch of the Digital Threat Report 2024 in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dr Sanjay Bahl
Dr Sanjay Bahl; S. Krishnan is Secretary, MeitY, M. Nagaraju is Secretary, DFS, and Dharshan Shanthamurthy is Founder and CEO of SISA.
The 'Women and Men in India 2024: Selected Indicators and Data' publication released by MoSPI in April 2025 is its:
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Correct answer: D — 26th edition
26th edition, released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
According to 'Women and Men in India 2024', what share of all bank accounts in India is owned by women?
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Correct answer: C — 39.2%
39.2%; women contribute 39.7% of total deposits, and make up 42.2% of account holders in rural areas.
Consider the following statements based on 'Women and Men in India 2024': 1. Female voter turnout surpassed male voter turnout in 2024. 2. The number of DPIIT-recognised startups with at least one woman director declined between 2017 and 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Startups with at least one woman director rose from 1,943 in 2017 to 17,405 in 2024.
In which year was the Stand-Up India Scheme launched?
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Correct answer: B — 2016
PIB (Finance Ministry): the Stand-Up India Scheme was launched on 5 April 2016.
According to the Finance Ministry, what was the total amount sanctioned under Stand-Up India since launch, as of 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Rs 61,020.41 crore
PIB (Finance Ministry): the total amount sanctioned rose from Rs 14,431.14 crore (31 October 2018) to Rs 61,020.41 crore by 17 March 2025.
Consider the following about the Stand-Up India Scheme: 1. It provides bank loans to SC, ST and women entrepreneurs to start new businesses. 2. Women entrepreneurs' accounts under it exceeded 1.9 lakh by November 2024. 3. Total sanctions under it crossed Rs 1 lakh crore by March 2025. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Finance Ministry): the scheme gives bank loans to SC, ST and women entrepreneurs for new businesses, and women's accounts reached 1,90,844 by November 2024. Total sanctions were Rs 61,020.41 crore by 17 March 2025, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many wagons did Indian Railways produce in FY 2024-25, an all-time high?
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Correct answer: D — 41,929
PIB (Railways): Indian Railways produced an all-time high of 41,929 wagons in FY 2024-25.
According to the Railways Ministry, what was the total wagon production of Indian Railways over the three years 2022-23 to 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 1,02,369
PIB (Railways): 22,790 (2022-23) + 37,650 (2023-24) + 41,929 (2024-25) = 1,02,369 wagons in the last three years.
Which coach factory rolled out a record 3,007 coaches in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — Integral Coach Factory, Chennai
PIB (Railways): the Integral Coach Factory (ICF), Chennai, rolled out 3,007 coaches in 2024-25; RCF Kapurthala made 2,102 and MCF Rae Bareli 2,025.
How many coaches did Indian Railways manufacture in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 7,134
PIB (Railways): Indian Railways manufactured 7,134 coaches in 2024-25, a 9% increase over 6,541 in the previous year.
Which coach manufacturing unit recorded the largest increase in output (+341 coaches) in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: D — Modern Coach Factory, Rae Bareli
PIB (Railways): MCF Rae Bareli rose from 1,684 to 2,025 coaches (+341), RCF Kapurthala by 201 and ICF Chennai by 178.
Under US Executive Order 14257 of 2 April 2025, from which date did the 10% baseline tariff on imports from all trading partners apply?
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Correct answer: B — 5 April 2025
White House (EO 14257): the additional 10% ad valorem duty applies to goods entered on or after 12:01 a.m. EDT on 5 April 2025; country-specific Annex I rates apply from 9 April 2025.
Under which US law did the President declare a national emergency in the reciprocal-tariff Executive Order of 2 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — International Emergency Economic Powers Act
White House (EO 14257): the order invokes the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) and the National Emergencies Act, and declares a national emergency with respect to the trade-deficit threat.
'Mission 500', recalled in India's official response to the US reciprocal tariffs, aims to raise India-US bilateral trade to US$ 500 billion by:
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Correct answer: C — 2030
PIB (Commerce): the leaders announced 'Mission 500' on 13 February 2025, aiming to more than double bilateral trade to US$ 500 billion by 2030.
Under US Executive Order 14257 of 2 April 2025, the higher country-specific reciprocal tariff rates listed in Annex I were to apply from:
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Correct answer: D — 12:01 a.m. EDT, 9 April 2025
Executive Order 14257 (White House): the 10% baseline applied from 12:01 a.m. EDT on 5 April 2025, and the country-specific Annex I rates from 12:01 a.m. EDT on 9 April 2025.
Consider the following goods with respect to the reciprocal tariffs under US Executive Order 14257: 1. Steel and aluminium articles already subject to Section 232 duties 2. Copper, pharmaceuticals and semiconductors listed in Annex II 3. All agricultural products Which of the above are exempted from the reciprocal tariffs by the order?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Executive Order 14257: exempted goods include steel and aluminium articles and automobiles subject to Section 232 duties of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962, and Annex II products such as copper, pharmaceuticals, semiconductors, lumber, certain critical minerals and energy. The order has no blanket exemption for agricultural products.
How many locomotives did Indian Railways produce in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — 1,681
PIB (Railways): Indian Railways produced a record 1,681 locomotives in FY 2024-25, up from 1,472 in FY 2023-24.
Which unit produced the most locomotives (700) in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — Chittaranjan Locomotive Works
PIB (Railways): Chittaranjan Locomotive Works manufactured 700 locomotives, Banaras 477, Patiala 304, and Madhepura and Marhowrah 100 each.
Which locomotive class accounted for the largest number (1,047) of the 1,681 locomotives produced by Indian Railways in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — WAG-9/9H
PIB (Railways): of the 1,681 locomotives, 1,047 were WAG-9/9H freight locomotives, followed by 272 WAP-7 and 148 WAG-9 Twin.
MOIL, which reported record output in FY 2024-25, is mainly a producer of which ore?
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Correct answer: D — Manganese ore
PIB (Steel): MOIL recorded its best-ever performance with record manganese ore production of 18.02 lakh tonnes and record manganese ore sales.
What was MOIL's manganese ore production in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 18.02 lakh tonnes
PIB (Steel): MOIL's manganese ore production was a record 18.02 lakh tonnes, 2.7% higher year on year; 15.87 lakh tonnes was the sales figure.
Besides manganese ore, MOIL reported record production of which product in FY 2024-25, at 12,000 MT?
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Correct answer: D — Ferro manganese
PIB (Steel): MOIL recorded ferro manganese production of 12,000 MT in FY'25, 18% higher year-on-year.