India Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Ministry of Mines' October 2025 amendment introducing intermediate timelines for auctioned mineral blocks was made to which rules?
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Correct answer: A — Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015
PIB: the Ministry of Mines notified an amendment to the Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015, introducing intermediary timelines from LoI to execution of the mining lease.
Under the amended mineral auction rules (October 2025), what penalty applies for delay beyond a prescribed intermediate timeline?
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Correct answer: B — Appropriation of 1% of the bank guarantee per month of delay
PIB: delay beyond the prescribed timelines attracts appropriation of the bidder's bank guarantee to the extent of 1% for each month or part of a month.
Consider the following statements about mineral block auctions as described by the Ministry of Mines in October 2025: 1. All 585 major mineral blocks auctioned since 2015 are critical mineral blocks. 2. For a mining lease auction, the total penalty-free timeline from LoI to lease execution is 7 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: of 585 major mineral blocks auctioned, 34 are critical mineral blocks auctioned by the Centre; the penalty-free timeline is 3 years for a mining lease and 7 years for a composite licence.
Of the ₹1,950.80 crore SDRF advance approved in October 2025, which state received the larger share?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB: Maharashtra was approved ₹1,566.40 crore and Karnataka ₹384.40 crore out of ₹1,950.80 crore.
As of 19 October 2025, how much had the Centre released to states under SDRF during 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states
PIB: the Centre released ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states under SDRF; the other figures relate to NDRF (₹2,189.28 crore), SDMF (₹4,571.30 crore) and NDMF (₹372.09 crore).
Consider the following statements about disaster response funding and deployment in 2025: 1. The advance release to Karnataka and Maharashtra was the second instalment of the Central share of SDRF for 2025-26. 2. During the 2025 monsoon, NDRF teams were deployed in only 15 States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the ₹1,950.80 crore was the 2nd instalment of the Central share of SDRF; up to 199 NDRF teams were deployed in 30 States/UTs (15 is the number of states that received NDRF funds).
Under which Article of the Constitution does the Election Commission exercise the plenary powers used to appoint Central Observers?
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Correct answer: C — Article 324
PIB: the Commission appoints Central Observers under the plenary powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951.
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the appointment of observers by the Election Commission?
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Correct answer: A — Section 20B
PIB: Central Observers are appointed under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements about observers for the Bihar elections 2025: 1. 121 General Observers were deployed for Phase 2. 2. 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the bye-elections in 8 Assembly constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: Phase 1 had 121 General Observers and Phase 2 had 122; 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the 8 bye-elections.
Which phrase did PM Modi use on 19 October 2025 while urging citizens to buy Indian products during the festive season?
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Correct answer: A — Garv Se Kaho Yeh Swadeshi Hai
PIB: the PM said, 'Let's buy Indian products and say — Garv Se Kaho Yeh Swadeshi Hai!' and asked people to share their purchases on social media.
In October 2025, the Army Chief reviewed high-altitude formations in the central sector in which district of Uttarakhand?
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Correct answer: B — Pithoragarh
PIB: the COAS reviewed formations deployed in high-altitude areas of Pithoragarh and adjacent forward posts.
Tent-based homestays reviewed by the Army Chief under the Vibrant Village Programme in October 2025 are located at which places?
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Correct answer: C — Garbyang and Kalapani
PIB: the COAS reviewed initiatives under Operation Sadbhavna and the Vibrant Village Programme, including tent-based homestays in Garbyang and Kalapani.
Consider the following statements about the Army Chief's visit of October 2025: 1. He described the Kumaon region as a gateway to border areas with Bhutan and China. 2. The visit was to forward areas in the western sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: he called Kumaon a gateway to border areas with Nepal and China (not Bhutan), and the visit was to the central sector.
According to the Ayush Ministry's World Osteoporosis Day 2025 note, Ayurveda associates osteoporosis primarily with the vitiation of which dosha?
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Correct answer: D — Vata
PIB: according to Ayurveda, osteoporosis is primarily associated with the vitiation of Vata dosha, which weakens bone strength and density.
Which classical Ayurvedic concept did the CCRAS Director General say aligns closely with the modern understanding of bone fragility (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — Asthi Saushirya
PIB: Prof. Rabinarayan Acharya, DG, CCRAS, said the classical concept of Asthi Saushirya aligns closely with the modern understanding of bone fragility.
Under the Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025, the maximum number of notaries in which state was raised from 2,900 to 6,000?
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Correct answer: B — Gujarat
PIB: for Gujarat the figure 2,900 was replaced by 6,000; Tamil Nadu went from 2,500 to 3,500 and Rajasthan from 2,000 to 3,000.
The Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025 were made under which provision?
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Correct answer: D — Section 15 of the Notaries Act, 1952
PIB: the rules were notified in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 15 of the Notaries Act, 1952, amending the Notaries Rules, 1956.
Consider the following statements about the Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025: 1. The maximum number of notaries in Nagaland was doubled. 2. Tamil Nadu's limit was raised by 1,000. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Nagaland went from 200 to 400 (doubled) and Tamil Nadu from 2,500 to 3,500 (an increase of 1,000).
How many Anganwadi Centres have been made functional in PVTG areas under PM-JANMAN, according to the WCD Ministry (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — More than 2,000
PIB: more than 2000 Anganwadi Centres have been made functional in Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) areas under PM JANMAN.
At which event did the WCD Ministry receive its award for PM-JANMAN implementation in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — National Conclave on Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan
PIB: the felicitation took place during the National Conclave on 'Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan' at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, organised by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
In the Operation Fire Trail case at Tuticorin port (October 2025), the Chinese firecrackers had been mis-declared as:
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Correct answer: A — Engineering goods
PIB: the two containers at Tuticorin held 83,520 Chinese firecrackers mis-declared as engineering goods. (The Nhava Sheva case reported on 20 October involved goods declared as leggings.)
At which port did the DRI seize 83,520 pieces of Chinese firecrackers worth ₹5.01 crore, as reported on 19 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Tuticorin
PIB: DRI intercepted two forty-foot containers at Tuticorin Port containing 83,520 pieces of Chinese firecrackers valued at ₹5.01 crore.
The BrahMos Integration and Testing Facility Centre, from which the first batch of missiles was flagged off on 18 October 2025, is located in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Lucknow
PIB: the first batch was manufactured at the BrahMos Integration and Testing Facility Centre in Lucknow, a key part of the UP Defence Industrial Corridor.
According to the Raksha Mantri, approximately how many missile systems will the Lucknow BrahMos facility produce every year?
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Correct answer: A — 100
PIB: 'In terms of output, approximately 100 missile systems will be produced in the facility every year.'
Consider the following statements about the BrahMos Integration and Testing Facility Centre, Lucknow: 1. It was virtually inaugurated by the Raksha Mantri on 11 May 2025. 2. It is spread over 200 acres and was built at a total cost of Rs 1,000 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the facility was virtually inaugurated on 11 May 2025; it is spread over 200 acres but cost Rs 380 crore. Rs 1,000 crore was the investment in PTC Industries' Strategic Materials Technology Complex, also in Lucknow.
Which is described by the Government as India's first indigenously discovered antibiotic, developed by the Department of Biotechnology with Wockhardt?
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Correct answer: A — Nafithromycin
PIB: Dr Jitendra Singh said India has developed its first indigenously discovered antibiotic 'Nafithromycin', developed by DBT in collaboration with Wockhardt.
India's first successful indigenous clinical trial of gene therapy for haemophilia, announced in October 2025, was carried out at which institution?
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Correct answer: C — Christian Medical College, Vellore
PIB: the trial, supported by DBT, was done in a non-government hospital, Christian Medical College Vellore.
Consider the following statements made by Dr Jitendra Singh on 18 October 2025: 1. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has an outlay of ₹50,000 crore over five years, of which ₹36,000 crore will come from non-government sources. 2. The findings of the indigenous haemophilia gene therapy trial were published in The Lancet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: ANRF has a total outlay of ₹50,000 crore over five years, ₹36,000 crore from non-government sources; the gene therapy findings were published in the New England Journal of Medicine.
Which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 entitles employed voters to a paid holiday on polling day?
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Correct answer: B — Section 135B
PIB (ECI): as per Section 135B of the RP Act, 1951, every employed person entitled to vote in a Lok Sabha or State/UT Assembly election shall be granted a paid holiday on the day of poll.
Consider the following statements about the paid holiday on polling day for the Bihar elections, 2025, as clarified by the ECI: 1. Daily wage and casual workers are also entitled to a paid holiday. 2. Voters employed outside their constituency are not entitled to the paid holiday even if registered in a constituency going to the polls. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): daily wage and casual workers are entitled; electors working outside their constituency but registered in a constituency going to the polls are also entitled to the paid holiday.
The Titanium and Superalloy Materials Plant dedicated to the nation by the Raksha Mantri on 18 October 2025 belongs to which company?
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Correct answer: C — PTC Industries
PIB: the plant is at PTC Industries' Strategic Materials Technology Complex in Lucknow.
PTC Industries signed an MoU on 18 October 2025 to form a joint venture for propulsion systems, guided bombs and small aeroengines with which defence PSU?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Dynamics Limited
PIB: an MoU was signed between PTC Industries Limited and Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) to form a joint venture for propulsion systems, guided bombs and small aeroengines for missiles, UAVs and loitering munitions.
Consider the following statements about PTC Industries' Strategic Materials Technology Complex, Lucknow: 1. It has a production capacity of over 6,000 tonnes per annum of aviation-grade titanium and superalloys from domestic and recycled sources. 2. PTC Industries received a Letter of Technical Acceptance from CEMILAC for a Titanium Rear Fin Root Casting for the AMCA programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the plant's capacity is over 6,000 tonnes per annum from domestic and recycled sources; CEMILAC (DRDO) issued a LoTA for the Titanium Rear Fin Root Casting for the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft.
How many products did the Finance Ministry closely monitor to check that Next-Gen GST rate cuts reached consumers, as stated on 18 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 54
PIB: the Finance Minister said prices of 54 products were closely monitored and the benefits had been fully passed on across all 54 items.
According to Ashwini Vaishnaw on 18 October 2025, production had commenced at which two semiconductor manufacturing facilities?
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Correct answer: D — CG Semi and Kaynes
PIB: Shri Vaishnaw announced that production has commenced at two semiconductor manufacturing facilities — CG Semi and Kaynes.
Consider the following statements about the Next-Gen GST reforms, as described at the 18 October 2025 press conference: 1. They came into effect on 22 September 2025, the first day of Navratri. 2. They reduced the number of GST slabs from four to three. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Next-Gen GST reforms came into effect on 22 September, the first day of Navratri, and brought the number of slabs down from four to two.
Which instrument on the Chandrayaan-2 orbiter made the first-ever observation of a solar CME's effect on the lunar exosphere, as announced by ISRO on 18 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — CHACE-2
ISRO (18 Oct 2025): the observation was made by Chandra's Atmospheric Composition Explorer-2 (CHACE-2) on board the Chandrayaan-2 orbiter.
On which date did the series of coronal mass ejections occur whose impact on the Moon was observed by Chandrayaan-2's CHACE-2?
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Correct answer: B — 10 May 2024
ISRO (18 Oct 2025): the opportunity came in a rare occurrence on 10 May 2024, when a series of CMEs were hurled by the Sun.
Consider the following statements, as stated by ISRO in October 2025: 1. The Moon's exosphere falls under the category of a 'surface boundary exosphere'. 2. Coronal mass ejections comprise mostly helium and hydrogen ions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ISRO (18 Oct 2025): the Moon's exosphere is a 'surface boundary exosphere', and CMEs comprise mostly helium and hydrogen ions, so both statements are correct.
What are the fee and validity of the FASTag Annual Pass?
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Correct answer: D — Rs 3,000; one year or 200 crossings
PIB (MoRTH): the annual pass requires a one-time fee of Rs 3,000 for one year's validity or 200 toll plaza crossings.
Consider the following statements about the FASTag Annual Pass: 1. It was launched on 15 August 2025. 2. It is applicable to commercial as well as non-commercial vehicles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (MoRTH): the pass was launched on 15 August 2025 and is applicable to all non-commercial vehicles with a valid FASTag.
What is the base year of the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers released for September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2019=100
PIB: the Labour Bureau releases CPI-AL and CPI-RL with the base year 2019=100.
Which body compiles and releases the Consumer Price Index numbers for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers?
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Correct answer: B — Labour Bureau
PIB: the Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour & Employment, releases CPI-AL and CPI-RL.
Consider the following statements about CPI-AL and CPI-RL for September 2025: 1. Year-on-year inflation was -0.07% for agricultural labourers and 0.31% for rural labourers. 2. The indices are based on data collected from 787 sample villages across 34 States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: YoY inflation stood at -0.07% (AL) and 0.31% (RL) in September 2025; the indices use data from 787 sample villages across 34 States/UTs.
Who took over as Director General of Medical Services (Army) in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Lt Gen CG Muralidharan
PIB: Lt Gen CG Muralidharan took over as DGMS (Army) from Lt Gen Sadhna S Nair, who superannuated on 30 September 2025.
What is the motto of the Army Medical Corps, as cited in the PIB release on the new DGMS (Army)?
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Correct answer: D — Sarve Santu Niramayah
PIB: the Army Medical Corps upholds its motto 'Sarve Santu Niramayah' — health and wellbeing for all.
The IndiaAI Mission has partnered with which organisation to prepare a casebook on real-world AI applications in health systems for the Global South?
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Correct answer: D — World Health Organization
PIB: the IndiaAI Mission, MeitY, in collaboration with the World Health Organization, announced a global call for abstracts for the casebook.
Consider the following statements about the IndiaAI–WHO casebook on AI in health: 1. Abstracts of up to 250 words were to be submitted by 31 October 2025. 2. Selected entries are to feature at the India–AI Impact Summit 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: abstracts (maximum 250 words) were due by 31 October 2025, and selected entries will feature at the India–AI Impact Summit 2026.
BY 528 (Magdala), an Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft launched on 18 October 2025, was built at which shipyard?
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Correct answer: B — Cochin Shipyard Limited, Kochi
PIB: Magdala was launched at Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi, and is indigenously designed and built by CSL.
Consider the following statements about Magdala (BY 528): 1. It is the sixth vessel in a series of eight ASW Shallow Water Crafts. 2. It is propelled by gas turbines driving conventional propellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Magdala is the sixth of eight ASW SWCs; these ships are propelled by three diesel-engine-powered waterjets.
At the Gram Chaupal in Gorakhpur on 18 October 2025, Shivraj Singh Chouhan said GST on agricultural machinery had been reduced from 12% and 18% to what rate?
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Correct answer: D — 5%
PIB: the GST rates on agricultural machinery have been reduced from 12% and 18% to 5%.
Kalmyk State University, which signed a Memorandum of Cooperation with Nalanda University in October 2025, is located in which city?
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Correct answer: C — Elista
PIB: the university is 'Kalmyk State University named after B. B. Gorodovikov, Elista', the capital of the Republic of Kalmykia.
Consider the following statements about the Kalmyk State University–Nalanda University Memorandum of Cooperation (October 2025): 1. Nalanda University's Vice-Chancellor attended the signing in person in Elista. 2. The planned initiatives include a 'Concise Encyclopedia of the Buddhist Written Heritage of Russia and India'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: Vice-Chancellor Prof. Sachin Chaturvedi joined the meeting via video link; the planned initiatives include preparing the Concise Encyclopedia of the Buddhist Written Heritage of Russia and India.
The third production line of LCA Tejas Mk1A, inaugurated on 17 October 2025, is located at which HAL facility?
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Correct answer: C — Nashik
PIB: the Raksha Mantri inaugurated the third LCA Mk1A production line and the second HTT-40 line at HAL's Nashik facility.
With the third LCA Mk1A line operational, what is HAL's total production capacity for the aircraft per year?
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Correct answer: B — 24
PIB: the new line can produce eight aircraft per annum, and with it HAL achieves a total production capacity of 24 aircraft per year.
Consider the following statements: 1. HAL's Nashik division was established in 1964 for the licence manufacture of the MiG-21. 2. The HTT-40 production line inaugurated at Nashik on 17 October 2025 is HAL's first production line for the trainer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Nashik division was established in 1964 for licence manufacture of MiG-21; the line inaugurated at Nashik is the second HTT-40 production line.
The 8th session of the Codex Committee on Spices and Culinary Herbs (CCSCH8), concluded in October 2025, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Guwahati
PIB: CCSCH8 concluded successfully in Guwahati.
CCSCH8 finalised new Codex standards for which three spices?
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Correct answer: D — Large cardamom, vanilla and coriander
PIB: a key highlight was the finalisation of three new standards for large cardamom, vanilla and coriander, recommended for adoption by the Codex Alimentarius Commission.
Consider the following statements about the Codex Committee on Spices and Culinary Herbs (CCSCH): 1. It was established in 2013 at India's behest under the Codex Alimentarius Commission, a joint body of the FAO and WHO. 2. Its Secretariat is the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: CCSCH was established in 2013 at India's behest under the Codex Alimentarius Commission (FAO/WHO); India, represented by the Spices Board under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, serves as its Secretariat.
The Haldia Multi-Modal Terminal on National Waterway-1 was handed over by IWAI in October 2025 to which PPP operator?
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Correct answer: B — IRC Natural Resources
PIB: IWAI handed over the Haldia MMT to IRC Natural Resources, which emerged as the highest bidder.
Under which PPP model has IWAI given the Haldia Multi-Modal Terminal to a private operator?
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Correct answer: A — Equip, Operate and Transfer (EOT)
PIB: IWAI adopted a Public-Private Partnership model on an Equip, Operate and Transfer (EOT) basis for operation and maintenance over 10 years, extendable by 5.
Consider the following statements about the Haldia Multi-Modal Terminal: 1. It was built by IWAI with financial and technical assistance from the World Bank and has a capacity of 3.08 million tonnes per annum. 2. The concession for its operation and maintenance is for 10 years, extendable by another 5 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the terminal was built with World Bank assistance, has a capacity of 3.08 MMTPA, and the O&M concession is for 10 years, extendable by 5.
Jaipur Metro Phase 2, evaluated at the 100th NPG meeting under PM GatiShakti, is a north–south corridor between which two points?
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Correct answer: D — Prahladpura and Todi Mod
PIB: MoHUA proposed Jaipur Metro Phase 2, a 42.8 km north–south corridor from Prahladpura to Todi Mod with 36 stations.
The Gondia–Jabalpur railway doubling project evaluated at the 100th NPG meeting covers about how many kilometres, across which states?
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Correct answer: A — 230.5 km; Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
PIB: the Ministry of Railways proposed doubling of the Gondia–Jabalpur line, covering 230.5 km across Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. The 65 km project is Hosapete–Ballari in Karnataka.
Consider the following statements about the 100th meeting of the Network Planning Group (October 2025): 1. It evaluated five projects, including one metro rail project of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. 2. The Mahwa–Mandawar section evaluated at the meeting is part of NH-921 in Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the NPG evaluated 5 projects — 2 MoRTH road, 2 rail and 1 MoHUA metro project; the Mahwa–Mandawar stretch is on National Highway 921 in Rajasthan.
The Ammunition cum Torpedo cum Missile (ACTCM) Barges for the Indian Navy, the 11th of which was inducted in October 2025, were built by which MSME shipyard?
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Correct answer: D — Suryadipta Projects Pvt Ltd, Thane
PIB: the contract for eleven ACTCM barges was concluded with M/s Suryadipta Projects Pvt Ltd, Thane, an MSME shipyard, on 5 March 2021.
Where was the induction ceremony of LSAM 25 (Yard 135), the 11th ACTCM Barge, held on 17 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Naval Dockyard, Mumbai
PIB: the induction ceremony of the 11th ACTCM Barge, LSAM 25 (Yard 135), was held on 17 October 2025 at Naval Dockyard, Mumbai.
According to NCRB's Prison Statistics India 2022, cited at the NHRC conference, what was the occupancy rate of Indian prisons in 2022?
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Correct answer: B — 131.4%
PIB: the occupancy rate rose to 131.4% of the actual capacity of 1,330 prisons in 2022, from 118% in 2020.
Consider the following statements in the context of the NHRC conference on prison inmates (October 2025): 1. The Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act was prepared by the Union Government in 2023. 2. Justice V. Ramasubramanian is the Chairperson of the NHRC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Justice Ramasubramanian, NHRC Chairperson, cited the 'Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act' prepared by the Union Government in 2023.
Where is the India International Science Festival (IISF) 2025 to be held from 6 to 9 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Panjab University, Chandigarh
PIB: IISF 2025 is scheduled from December 6 to 9, 2025, at Panjab University, Chandigarh.
What is the theme of the India International Science Festival 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Vigyan Se Samriddhi – For Atmanirbhar Bharat
PIB: IISF 2025 will focus on 'Vigyan Se Samriddhi – For Atmanirbhar Bharat' (Science to Prosperity).
Under the recent GST reforms, GST on cement was reduced from 28% to what rate, as noted in PIB's Chhattisgarh backgrounder?
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Correct answer: C — 18%
PIB: the reduction of GST on cement from 28% to 18% makes cement more affordable and lowers construction costs.
According to PIB's October 2025 backgrounder, the handloom sector in Chhattisgarh provides livelihood to nearly how many weavers?
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Correct answer: D — 1.5 lakh
PIB: the handloom sector provides a vital livelihood for nearly 1.5 lakh weavers, many of whom are women.