Asia Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, which body grants final approval to an entity seeking to use Aadhaar authentication?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
PIB 2098223: applications are examined by UIDAI and MeitY issues the approval based on UIDAI's recommendation.
Consider the following statements about the Aadhaar authentication amendment rules notified on 31 January 2025: 1. They were notified under the Aadhaar Act, 2016. 2. They allow non-government entities to use Aadhaar authentication for public-interest services. 3. Entities apply directly to the Reserve Bank of India for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098223: the rules are under the Aadhaar Act, 2016 and open authentication to non-government entities; applications go to the concerned ministry or department, are examined by UIDAI and approved by MeitY, not the RBI.
The Large Area Additive Manufacturing (LAAM) System demonstrated in January 2025 was developed at the DRDO-Industry-Academia Centre of Excellence in which institute?
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Correct answer: C — IIT Hyderabad
PIB 2098098: the breakthrough was achieved at the DIA-CoE at IIT Hyderabad with DRDO's DRDL, Hyderabad.
Which technology is the DRDO–IIT Hyderabad LAAM System based on?
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Correct answer: D — Laser and blown-powder Directed Energy Deposition
PIB 2098098: the process is based on laser and blown-powder based Direct Energy Deposition technology with dual heads.
Which of the following was NOT among the four wetlands added to India's Ramsar list, as announced on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary
PIB (2 Feb 2025) and TOI (31 Jan 2025): the four new sites were Sakkarakottai and Therthangal (Tamil Nadu), Khecheopalri (Sikkim) and Udhwa Lake (Jharkhand). Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary was already on the list (MoEFCC list, as on 30.01.2025), so Nanjarayan is NOT one of the four.
After the four additions announced on 31 January 2025, which State had the maximum number of Ramsar sites in India?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
PIB (2 Feb 2025): Tamil Nadu continues to have the maximum number of Ramsar sites (20), followed by Uttar Pradesh (10).
Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention: 1. The Convention on Wetlands of International Importance was signed in 1971. 2. India has been a party to the Convention since 1982. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (2 Feb 2025): World Wetlands Day commemorates the signing of the Ramsar Convention in 1971, and India is a party to the Convention since 1982, so both statements are correct.
What is the name of the Indian Railways SuperApp introduced for beta testing on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — SwaRail
PIB 2098305: the Ministry of Railways introduced the SuperApp 'SwaRail' for beta testing.
Which organisation developed the SwaRail SuperApp of Indian Railways?
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Correct answer: C — Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS)
PIB 2098305: the SuperApp was developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS).
Which new administrative department did the Assam Cabinet approve on 31 January 2025 to support startups?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Innovation, Incubation and Startup
Economic Times and Assam Tribune: the Cabinet approved creation of a new administrative department, the 'Department of Innovation, Incubation and Startup'.
Consider the following policies approved by the Assam Cabinet on 31 January 2025: 1. Assam Startup and Innovation Policy 2025 2. Assam Aerospace and Defence Manufacturing Policy 2025 3. Assam Action Plan on BioE3 Policy Which of the above were approved?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
Economic Times and Assam Tribune: the Cabinet approved all three, the Startup and Innovation Policy 2025, the Aerospace and Defence Manufacturing Policy 2025 and the BioE3 Action Plan.
Where were the 9th Asian Winter Games held in February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Harbin, China
PIB 2097997: the 9th Asian Winter Games were scheduled from 7 to 14 February 2025 in Harbin, China.
Under which scheme did the Government extend full financial support, for the first time, to Indian athletes at the 2025 Asian Winter Games?
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Correct answer: C — Assistance to National Sports Federations Scheme
PIB 2097997: full financial support is being extended for the first time under the Assistance to National Sports Federations (ANSF) Scheme.
On which festival day was the third Amrit Snan of Maha Kumbh 2025 scheduled (3 February 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — Basant Panchami
PIB 2098281: medical facilities were strengthened for the third Amrit Snan on Basant Panchami (3 February 2025), with 23 hospitals and 360 beds.
On which platform did the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation launch a new version of the SBM Academy in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — WhatsApp
PIB 2097805: DDWS launched the WhatsApp version of the SBM Academy at its meeting with 22 States and UTs.
What is the combined weight of the eight core industries in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: B — 40.27%
PIB 2098037: the eight core industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
Which of the eight core industries recorded a decline in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Natural gas
PIB 2098037: all core sectors except natural gas, which declined 1.8%, recorded positive growth in December 2024.
What was the Ground Level Agriculture Credit target set for FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — ₹27.5 lakh crore
PIB 2098065: the GLC target for FY 2024-25 is ₹27.5 lakh crore; ₹19.28 lakh crore was disbursed by 31.12.2024 and ₹25.48 lakh crore was the FY24 disbursement.
What sub-target for allied activities was included in the FY 2024-25 Ground Level Agriculture Credit target?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4.20 lakh crore
PIB 2098065: a dedicated sub-target of ₹4.20 lakh crore was set for allied activities such as dairy, poultry and fisheries.
On which virtual digital asset service provider did FIU-IND impose a ₹9.27 crore penalty in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Bybit Fintech Limited
PIB 2098153: FIU-IND imposed a penalty of ₹9,27,00,000 on Bybit Fintech Limited, a VDA service provider.
Under which law did FIU-IND impose the January 2025 penalty on Bybit?
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Correct answer: C — Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
PIB 2098153: the penalty was imposed under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 for violating Section 12(1) and the PML Rules.
What is the theme of the BRICS Youth Council Entrepreneurship Working Group Meeting hosted by India in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Youth Entrepreneurship for Sustainable Growth
PIB 2097834: the theme of the meeting (3–7 March 2025) is 'Youth Entrepreneurship for Sustainable Growth'.
What was the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India in 2023-24, as per HCES 2023-24 (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,122
PIB 2097601: average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹4,122 (rural) and ₹6,996 (urban) without imputed values; with imputation ₹4,247 and ₹7,078.
Among major states, which state had the lowest urban–rural gap in average MPCE in 2023-24 according to HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Kerala
PIB 2097601: the lowest urban–rural gap in 2023-24 was in Kerala (about 18%) and the highest in Jharkhand (around 83%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The urban–rural gap in MPCE declined to 70% in 2023-24. 2. The Gini coefficient of consumption in rural areas declined to 0.237. 3. The Gini coefficient in urban areas rose compared to 2022-23. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097601: the urban–rural gap fell to 70% and rural Gini fell to 0.237; urban Gini also fell, from 0.314 to 0.284, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Indian Navy sailboat crossed Point Nemo on 30 January 2025 during Navika Sagar Parikrama II?
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Correct answer: D — INSV Tarini
PIB 2098252: INSV Tarini, sailed by Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A, crossed Point Nemo at 0030 hrs IST on 30 January 2025.
Point Nemo, crossed by INSV Tarini in January 2025, is known as:
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Correct answer: A — The Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility
PIB 2098252: Point Nemo is the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility, about 2,688 km from the nearest landmass.
Consider the following statements about Navika Sagar Parikrama II: 1. INSV Tarini was flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024. 2. Point Nemo was crossed during the leg from Lyttelton to Port Stanley. 3. Water samples from Point Nemo are to be analysed by ISRO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098252: the crew were flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024 and crossed Point Nemo on the Lyttelton–Port Stanley leg; the samples will be analysed by the National Institute of Oceanography, not ISRO.
In how many Indian languages does the Sahitya Akademi give its main annual award, for which books were invited directly for the first time in 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 24
PIB 2097806: books in 24 Indian languages recognised by the Akademi were invited directly for the main award for 2025.
Books published in which period were eligible for the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 under the new submission system?
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Correct answer: B — 2019 to 2023
PIB 2097806: books published between 1 January 2019 and 31 December 2023 could be sent by 28 February 2025.
The Pla Tangka Cooperative Society, approved by a state cabinet on 30 January 2025, is for women SHGs of which state?
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Correct answer: D — Meghalaya
The Hindu and The Shillong Times: the Meghalaya Cabinet approved the Pla Tangka Cooperative Society on 30 January 2025.
Meghalaya's Pla Tangka Cooperative Society model is inspired by which state's scheme?
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Correct answer: B — Stree Nidhi of Telangana
The Shillong Times and The Hindu: Meghalaya is the fourth state after Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana; the model is inspired by Telangana's Stree Nidhi.
Which State/UT's tableau was judged the best at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097650: Uttar Pradesh's 'Mahakumbh 2025 – Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas' was first, Tripura second and Andhra Pradesh third; Gujarat topped the popular-choice poll.
Which contingent was judged the best marching contingent among the Services at Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent
PIB 2097650: the Jammu & Kashmir Rifles contingent was judged best among Services; the Signals contingent won the popular-choice poll.
Tripura's tableau, placed second at Republic Day Parade 2025, was based on which festival?
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Correct answer: A — Kharchi Puja
PIB 2097650: Tripura's tableau was 'Eternal Reverence: The worship of 14 Deities in Tripura – Kharchi Puja'.
About how many GPUs did the IndiaAI Mission's common computing facility have, as announced on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 18,693
PIB 2097709: the IndiaAI Mission created a common computing facility of about 18,693 GPUs; computation begins with roughly 10,000 and the remaining 8,693 will be added.
After the government subsidy, what was the stated cost of AI compute per hour under the IndiaAI Mission?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ₹100 per hour
PIB 2097709: compute will cost less than ₹100 per hour after a 40% government subsidy, against 2.5–3 dollars per hour for global models.
'Mana Mitra', launched on 30 January 2025, is a WhatsApp-based governance initiative of which state?
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Correct answer: B — Andhra Pradesh
The Hindu and NDTV: the Andhra Pradesh government launched 'Mana Mitra' WhatsApp Governance, a first in the country.
How many civic services were made available in the first phase of Andhra Pradesh's 'Mana Mitra' WhatsApp Governance?
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Correct answer: B — 161
The Hindu and NDTV: 161 services are available in the first phase.
With which company did the Goa government lay the foundation for Centres of Excellence at government ITIs on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Tata Technologies
The Goan and Live News Goa: CM Pramod Sawant laid the foundation stone for the Centre of Excellence project under Tata Technologies at ITI Altinho, with Tata Technologies contributing ₹165 crore.
Where was Odisha's first Automated Testing Station for vehicle fitness inaugurated in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Cuttack RTO
New Indian Express and OdishaTV: Odisha's first ATS was inaugurated at the Cuttack RTO on Thursday, 30 January 2025.
At how many more RTOs did Odisha plan to set up Automated Testing Stations after the first one at Cuttack?
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Correct answer: C — 21
New Indian Express and OdishaTV: the State plans ATS at 21 more RTOs, plus an additional centre in Cuttack.
Who assumed charge as the Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition of the Indian Navy on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan
PIB 2097791: Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan assumed charge on 30 January 2025 from Vice Admiral B Sivakumar.
Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan, who became Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition in January 2025, served for more than nine years on which aircraft carrier?
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Correct answer: A — INS Viraat
PIB 2097791: he worked onboard INS Viraat for more than nine years; he was also involved in acquiring Vikramaditya as Warship Production Superintendent in Russia.
PM-JANMAN, under which 27 roads were sanctioned for Maharashtra in January 2025, is aimed at which group?
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Correct answer: C — Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
PIB 2097617: the roads give all-weather connectivity to 27 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) habitations under PM-JANMAN.
What was the total length of the 27 PM-JANMAN roads sanctioned for Maharashtra in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 50.13 km
PIB 2097617: 27 roads measuring 50.13 km with an estimated investment of ₹50.35 crore were sanctioned.
Astronomers of which institute devised a method, reported in January 2025, to estimate the radial size of coronal mass ejections from single-point measurements?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Institute of Astrophysics
PIB 2097599: astronomers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, an autonomous institute of DST, devised the method.
How many people in India are threatened by Lymphatic Filariasis, as stated on World NTD Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 404 million
PIB 2097724: LF threatens 404 million people in India.
Which neglected tropical disease did the Health Ministry describe as 'at the cusp of elimination' in India on World NTD Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)
PIB 2097724: VL or Kala-azar is at the cusp of elimination in India.
Which launch vehicle carried out ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — GSLV-F15
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad on 29 January 2025, the 100th launch from Sriharikota.
The NVS-02 satellite launched on 29 January 2025 belongs to which Indian system?
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Correct answer: A — NavIC
ISRO: NVS-02 is a navigation satellite of the NavIC series, India's independent regional navigation satellite system.
Consider the following statements about the GSLV-F15/NVS-02 mission: 1. It lifted off from the Second Launch Pad at Sriharikota. 2. It was the 17th launch of GSLV. 3. NVS-02 was raised to its designated orbital slot within a week of launch. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad and was the 17th GSLV launch; orbit raising could not be carried out because the oxidiser valves did not open.
What is the total outlay of the National Critical Mineral Mission approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹34,300 crore
PIB 2097308: ₹16,300 crore government expenditure plus ₹18,000 crore expected investment by PSUs etc. makes ₹34,300 crore over seven years.
Over what period will the National Critical Mineral Mission's ₹34,300 crore outlay be spread?
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Correct answer: C — Seven years
PIB 2097308: the outlay of ₹34,300 crore is over seven years.
Consider the following statements about the National Critical Mineral Mission: 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25. 2. It proposes a national stockpile of critical minerals. 3. It excludes offshore exploration of critical minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097308: the mission was announced in the Budget on 23 July 2024 and proposes a stockpile; it will intensify exploration within the country and in its offshore areas.
On which occasion did the stampede in the Sangam area of the Maha Kumbh at Prayagraj occur on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mauni Amavasya
NDTV and Indian Express: the pre-dawn stampede occurred as pilgrims gathered for the holy dip on Mauni Amavasya, 29 January 2025.
Who heads the judicial commission set up by the Uttar Pradesh government to probe the Maha Kumbh stampede of 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Justice Harsh Kumar
NDTV and Indian Express: the three-member commission is headed by retired Allahabad High Court judge Justice Harsh Kumar.
What guarantee coverage does the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, approved in January 2025, provide to lenders?
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Correct answer: B — 60%
PIB 2097455: NCGTC provides 60% guarantee coverage to member lending institutions for credit up to ₹100 crore.
Consider the following statements about MCGS-MSME: 1. Loans up to ₹100 crore are eligible for guarantee cover. 2. Equipment or machinery must be at least 75% of the project cost. 3. The guarantee is provided by SIDBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097455: loans up to ₹100 crore are covered and equipment must be at least 75% of project cost; the guarantee is given by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), not SIDBI.
According to ASUSE 2023-24, which state had the highest number of unincorporated sector establishments?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097316: Uttar Pradesh had the highest number of establishments, followed by West Bengal and Maharashtra.
By how much did the number of establishments in the unincorporated sector grow in ASUSE 2023-24 over 2022-23?
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Correct answer: B — 12.84%
PIB 2097316: establishments grew 12.84% (6.50 crore to 7.34 crore); workers grew 10.01% and GVA 16.52%.
Which state topped Gross Value Added in the unincorporated sector as per ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB 2097316: the top three states in GVA were Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat.