WBPSC WBCS Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Who assumed charge as Director General of the Railway Protection Force on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sonali Mishra
Sonali Mishra, a 1993-batch IPS officer of the Madhya Pradesh cadre, assumed charge as Director General of the RPF.
What is the motto of the Railway Protection Force, cited when its new Director General took charge in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Yasho Labhasva
On assuming charge, the new DG reaffirmed the values of vigilance, courage and service that define the RPF's motto “Yasho Labhasva”.
Which of the following was NOT among the Centres of Excellence recognised under the National Critical Mineral Mission in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
IIT Madras is not in the list. The four recognised IITs are those at Bombay, Hyderabad, Roorkee and the ISM campus in Dhanbad, along with CSIR-IMMT, CSIR-NML and NFTDC.
On which model will each Centre of Excellence under the National Critical Mineral Mission operate as a consortium?
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Correct answer: A — Hub & Spoke model
Each CoE will operate as a consortium on a Hub & Spoke model, with the hub institute bringing in industry and R&D or academic partners.
At how many identified stations did the Railways announce permanent holding areas and complete access control in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 73
Permanent waiting areas and complete access control will be introduced at 73 identified stations that periodically face heavy crowds.
Consider the following statements about the Railways' crowd-management plan announced on 1 August 2025: 1. Only passengers with confirmed reserved tickets will get direct access to platforms at the identified stations. 2. Pilot projects for holding areas have started at stations including New Delhi, Varanasi and Ayodhya. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Confirmed reserved ticket holders get direct platform access, and pilots are under way at New Delhi, Anand Vihar, Varanasi, Ayodhya and Ghaziabad.
How many coal blocks were successfully auctioned in the 12th round of commercial coal auctions, as announced on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Seven
Seven coal blocks were successfully auctioned in the forward auctions held from 28 to 31 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the 12th round of commercial coal auctions: 1. The auctioned blocks are located in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. 2. Since commercial coal mining began in 2020, a total of 131 coal blocks have been auctioned. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The seven blocks lie in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, and 131 coal blocks with 277.31 MTPA capacity have been auctioned since 2020.
What was the HSBC India Manufacturing PMI for July 2025, released on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 59.1
The HSBC India Manufacturing PMI stood at 59.1 in July 2025, a 16-month high.
Consider the following statements about India's manufacturing PMI for July 2025: 1. It signalled the strongest improvement in the sector since March 2024. 2. Business confidence rose to its highest level in three years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the July reading was the strongest improvement since March 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: business confidence fell to its lowest level in three years.
Which institute's study, highlighted in August 2025, found toxic metals in clouds over the Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats?
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Correct answer: D — Bose Institute
The study was carried out by Bose Institute, an autonomous institute of DST, with observations over Darjeeling and Mahabaleshwar.
What is the price of BSNL's 'Freedom Plan' launched on 1 August 2025, which offers one month of 4G services?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1
The Freedom Plan is a limited-period ₹1 offer giving one month of BSNL 4G services with unlimited calls, 2 GB data per day, 100 SMS per day and a free SIM.
The Bharat National Cybersecurity Exercise 2025 was organised by the National Security Council Secretariat jointly with which institution?
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Correct answer: B — Rashtriya Raksha University
The exercise was organised jointly by the National Security Council Secretariat and Rashtriya Raksha University, with over 600 participants.
Vice Admiral Sanjay Vatsayan assumed charge on 1 August 2025 as the Navy's
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Correct answer: C — 47th Vice Chief of the Naval Staff
Vice Admiral Sanjay Vatsayan assumed charge as the 47th Vice Chief of the Naval Staff on 1 August 2025.
What total outlay did the Union Cabinet approve on 31 July 2025 for the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana for 2021-22 to 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — ₹6,520 crore
The Cabinet approved a total outlay of ₹6,520 crore, including an additional ₹1,920 crore.
How many multi-product food irradiation units are to be supported under PMKSY as per the Cabinet decision of 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 50
₹1,000 crore will support 50 multi-product food irradiation units and 100 NABL-accredited food testing labs.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY): 1. The food irradiation units will be supported under its Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure (ICCVAI) component. 2. The NABL-accredited food testing labs will be supported under its Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure (FSQAI) component. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release; both components are demand-driven.
What reciprocal tariff rate did the US executive order of 31 July 2025 set for India?
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Correct answer: A — 25%
Annex I of Executive Order 14326 lists India at 25%.
From which date did the 25% US reciprocal tariff on Indian goods under the executive order of 31 July 2025 take effect?
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Correct answer: D — 7 August 2025
The order applies from 12:01 a.m. EDT seven days after 31 July 2025, i.e. 7 August 2025; Business Standard reported it took effect on 7 August.
Consider the following statements about Annex I of US Executive Order 14326 (31 July 2025): 1. Bangladesh is listed at 20%. 2. Japan is listed at 15%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per Annex I of the order.
As per Article 66(1), cited by the ECI on 31 July 2025, the Electoral College for the Vice-Presidential election consists of:
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Correct answer: A — Elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha
The ECI release quotes Article 66(1): elected members of the Rajya Sabha, nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission mandated to conduct the election to the office of Vice-President, as stated by the ECI on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Article 324
The ECI release says it is mandated under Article 324 to conduct the Vice-Presidential election.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election: 1. Rule 40 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974 requires the ECI to prepare and maintain an updated list of members of the Electoral College. 2. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are excluded from the Electoral College. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 66(1) includes nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
Himgiri, delivered to the Indian Navy on 31 July 2025, is which ship of the Nilgiri class (Project 17A)?
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Correct answer: D — Third
Himgiri (Yard 3022) is the third ship of the Nilgiri class and the first built at GRSE.
The Project 17A frigate Himgiri was built and delivered on 31 July 2025 at:
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Correct answer: B — Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers, Kolkata
Himgiri was delivered at GRSE, Kolkata, and is the first P17A ship built there.
Consider the following statements about Project 17A frigates: 1. They use Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion. 2. The earlier INS Himgiri, whose name the new frigate revives, was a Leander-class frigate decommissioned on 6 May 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are in the Defence Ministry release.
The four railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025 will increase the Indian Railways network by about:
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Correct answer: D — 574 km
The projects will add about 574 km to the existing network.
Which of the following was NOT among the four railway projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Wardha–Ballarshah 4th line
The four projects were Itarsi–Nagpur 4th line, Aurangabad–Parbhani doubling, Aluabari Road–New Jalpaiguri 3rd and 4th lines, and Dangoaposi–Jaroli 3rd and 4th lines.
The Central Sector Scheme 'Grant in aid to NCDC' approved by the Cabinet on 31 July 2025 has what outlay and period?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,000 crore over four years, 2025-26 to 2028-29
The scheme has ₹2,000 crore for four years from 2025-26 to 2028-29, at ₹500 crore a year.
On the basis of the ₹2,000-crore grant approved on 31 July 2025, how much will NCDC be able to raise from the open market over four years?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20,000 crore
The Cabinet release says NCDC will be able to raise ₹20,000 crore from the open market.
Where was the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) of the Ramsar Convention, which adopted India's wetlands resolution on 30 July 2025, held?
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Correct answer: C — Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe
Ramsar COP15 was held at Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe.
India's resolution adopted at Ramsar COP15 on 30 July 2025 was titled:
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Correct answer: B — Promoting Sustainable Lifestyles for the Wise Use of Wetlands
The resolution was 'Promoting Sustainable Lifestyles for the Wise Use of Wetlands'.
According to the Environment Ministry, India's resolution at Ramsar COP15 received support from how many Ramsar Contracting Parties?
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Correct answer: A — 172
The release says the resolution received support from the 172 Ramsar Contracting Parties.
How many chip-design projects had been sanctioned under the Design Linked Incentive scheme, as stated by MeitY on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 23
MeitY said 23 chip-design projects had been sanctioned under DLI.
What is the outlay of the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme under the Semicon India Programme?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,000 crore
The DLI scheme has an outlay of ₹1,000 crore within the ₹76,000-crore Semicon India Programme.
Consider the following statements about the Design Linked Incentive scheme: 1. It offers a product design incentive of up to 50% of eligible costs, capped at ₹15 crore per application. 2. Chip designs from academic institutions under the scheme have been fabricated at SCL, Mohali. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the cap is ₹15 crore per application, and 20 designs from 17 institutions were fabricated at SCL, Mohali.
The 13th India–UAE Joint Defence Cooperation Committee meeting held in New Delhi on 30 July 2025 was notable because it was:
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Correct answer: A — Held at Secretary level for the first time
The Defence Ministry said the 13th JDCC was held at Secretary level for the first time.
At the 13th India–UAE JDCC, joint manufacturing models were discussed along the lines of the collaboration between ICOMM (India) and which UAE company for small arms?
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Correct answer: D — CARACAL
The release cites the ICOMM (India)–CARACAL (UAE) collaboration for small arms production.
Which Indian Navy ship arrived in Singapore for SIMBEX-25, as reported on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — INS Satpura
INS Satpura arrived in Singapore to participate in SIMBEX-25.
SIMBEX-25, for which INS Satpura reached Singapore in July 2025, was which edition of the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise?
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Correct answer: A — 32nd
The Defence Ministry release calls SIMBEX-25 the 32nd edition of the exercise.
How many mobile handsets had been recovered through the Sanchar Saathi portal, as stated in the Lok Sabha on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 5 lakh
The Minister said over 5 lakh mobile handsets had been recovered through Sanchar Saathi.
As per the Communications Minister's statement of 30 July 2025, what is BSNL's subscriber base?
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Correct answer: C — 9.1 crore
The Minister said BSNL's subscriber base had grown to 9.1 crore.
At the first convocation of AIIMS Kalyani on 30 July 2025, the President recalled that the foundation stone of the planned city of Kalyani was laid by:
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Correct answer: D — Dr Bidhan Chandra Roy
The President noted that Dr Bidhan Chandra Roy laid the foundation stone of Kalyani.
'Saksham Niveshak', a 100-day campaign running from 28 July to 6 November 2025, was launched by which body?
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Correct answer: C — Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA)
IEPFA under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs launched the campaign.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, whose key provisions took effect on 1 August 2025, the threshold for 'substantial interest' was raised from ₹5 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2 crore
PIB (30 July 2025): the 'substantial interest' threshold was redefined from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore, a limit unchanged since 1968.
The maximum tenure of directors (other than the chairperson and whole-time director) in cooperative banks was raised from 8 years to 10 years to align with which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 97th Amendment
PIB: the change aligns director tenures in cooperative banks with the 97th Constitutional Amendment.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations. 2. It was notified in the Gazette on 15 April 2025. 3. All its provisions came into force on the date of its notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: 19 amendments across five laws; notified 15 April 2025. Provisions come into force on dates appointed by the Centre; S.O. 3494(E) appointed 1 August 2025 for specific sections, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the amended law, public sector banks may transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to which fund, in line with companies under the Companies Act?
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Correct answer: D — Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)
PIB: PSBs can now transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF), bringing them in line with companies.
The Akhil Bharatiya Shiksha Samagam 2025, inaugurated on 29 July 2025, commemorated:
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Correct answer: D — 5 years of the National Education Policy 2020
PIB (29 July 2025): Dharmendra Pradhan inaugurated ABSS 2025 in New Delhi to commemorate 5 years of NEP 2020.
Projects worth how much were unveiled by Dharmendra Pradhan at the Akhil Bharatiya Shiksha Samagam 2025?
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Correct answer: A — More than ₹4,000 crore
PIB: Dharmendra Pradhan unveiled projects worth more than ₹4,000 crore, including new initiatives, campus inaugurations and foundation stones.
Consider the following statements about the National Education Policy 2020: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 July 2020. 2. It replaced the National Policy on Education, 1986. 3. It replaces the 10+2 school structure with a 5+3+3+4 structure covering ages 6-18. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (29 July 2020): the Cabinet approved NEP 2020 that day, replacing the NPE 1986. The 5+3+3+4 structure covers ages 3-18 (3-8, 8-11, 11-14, 14-18), not 6-18, so statement 3 is wrong.
As stated on Global Tiger Day 2025, the number of tiger reserves in India has grown from 46 in 2014 to:
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Correct answer: B — 58
PIB (29 July 2025): tiger reserves increased from 46 in 2014 to 58.
Where were the national Global Tiger Day 2025 celebrations presided over by Bhupender Yadav held?
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Correct answer: D — National Zoological Park, New Delhi
PIB: the celebrations were held at the National Zoological Park, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements made on Global Tiger Day 2025: 1. Over 1 lakh saplings will be planted across all 58 tiger reserves. 2. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) has 24 countries on board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: over 1 lakh saplings across all 58 tiger reserves; 24 countries on board IBCA. Both are correct.
As per telecom subscription data as on 30 June 2025, India's overall tele-density was about:
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Correct answer: D — 86.09%
PIB (29 July 2025): overall tele-density was 86.09% (urban 133.56%, rural 59.43%).
How many broadband subscribers did India have as on 30 June 2025, as per the Ministry of Communications?
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Correct answer: A — 979.71 million
PIB: total broadband subscribers were 979.71 million (935.02 million wireless + 44.69 million wireline). 1,218.36 million is total telephone subscribers.
Which office released the Revised Guidelines for Examination of Computer Related Inventions (CRIs), 2025 on 29 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks
PIB (29 July 2025): the Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDTM) released the revised CRI Guidelines, 2025.
According to the Quick Estimate released on 28 July 2025, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.5%
MoSPI/PIB (28 July 2025): IIP growth for June 2025 was 1.5%, against 1.2% (QE) in May 2025.
In the IIP for June 2025, which sector recorded positive growth?
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Correct answer: D — Manufacturing
PIB: sectoral growth in June 2025 was mining -8.7%, manufacturing 3.9% and electricity -2.6%. Only manufacturing grew.
Under the revised release calendar announced with the June 2025 data, the Quick Estimate of IIP will be released on:
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Correct answer: C — The 28th of every month (or next working day if a holiday)
PIB: as per the revised calendar, the Quick Estimate of IIP will now be released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday.
Consider the following statements about the IIP Quick Estimate for June 2025: 1. It was compiled on base year 2011-12=100. 2. The index stood at 153.3, against 151.0 in June 2024. 3. Mining output contracted by 2.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: base 2011-12=100; index 153.3 against 151.0 in June 2024. Mining contracted 8.7%; the 2.6% fall was in electricity, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Foundation Day of the Ministry of Earth Sciences was marked on 28 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 19th
PIB (28 July 2025): the 19th Foundation Day of the Ministry of Earth Sciences was marked at an event in New Delhi.
As stated at the MoES Foundation Day 2025, the number of Doppler weather radars in India has increased from 15 to:
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Correct answer: D — 41
PIB: Jitendra Singh noted that Doppler weather radars had increased from just 15 to 41.
Consider the following statements about the products launched on the 19th Foundation Day of MoES: 1. 14 products and initiatives were launched, including BharatFS-ERP. 2. They included seismic microzonation studies of four Indian cities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: 14 major products and initiatives were launched, including BharatFS-ERP and seismic microzonation studies of four Indian cities. Both correct.
As of 22 July 2025, how many unorganised workers had registered on the e-Shram portal?
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Correct answer: D — Over 30.95 crore
PIB (28 July 2025): as of 22 July 2025, over 30.95 crore unorganised workers had registered on e-Shram.
Consider the following statements about the e-Shram portal: 1. It was launched on 26 August 2021 to create a National Database of Unorganised Workers seeded with Aadhaar. 2. The e-Shram 'One-Stop-Solution' was launched on 21 October 2024 and 14 Central schemes have been integrated with it so far. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: e-Shram was launched on 26 August 2021 for an Aadhaar-seeded NDUW; the One-Stop-Solution was launched on 21 October 2024 and 14 schemes have been integrated. Both correct.