UPTET / Super TET Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
As per Article 66(1), cited by the ECI on 31 July 2025, the Electoral College for the Vice-Presidential election consists of:
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Correct answer: A — Elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha
The ECI release quotes Article 66(1): elected members of the Rajya Sabha, nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission mandated to conduct the election to the office of Vice-President, as stated by the ECI on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Article 324
The ECI release says it is mandated under Article 324 to conduct the Vice-Presidential election.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election: 1. Rule 40 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974 requires the ECI to prepare and maintain an updated list of members of the Electoral College. 2. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are excluded from the Electoral College. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 66(1) includes nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
The four railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025 will increase the Indian Railways network by about:
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Correct answer: D — 574 km
The projects will add about 574 km to the existing network.
Which of the following was NOT among the four railway projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Wardha–Ballarshah 4th line
The four projects were Itarsi–Nagpur 4th line, Aurangabad–Parbhani doubling, Aluabari Road–New Jalpaiguri 3rd and 4th lines, and Dangoaposi–Jaroli 3rd and 4th lines.
The Central Sector Scheme 'Grant in aid to NCDC' approved by the Cabinet on 31 July 2025 has what outlay and period?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,000 crore over four years, 2025-26 to 2028-29
The scheme has ₹2,000 crore for four years from 2025-26 to 2028-29, at ₹500 crore a year.
On the basis of the ₹2,000-crore grant approved on 31 July 2025, how much will NCDC be able to raise from the open market over four years?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20,000 crore
The Cabinet release says NCDC will be able to raise ₹20,000 crore from the open market.
The sacred Piprahwa relics of Lord Buddha, whose return to India was announced on 30 July 2025, were discovered at Piprahwa in which State?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
The relics were discovered in 1898 at Piprahwa, Uttar Pradesh.
Where were the Piprahwa relics slated to be auctioned in May 2025 before the Culture Ministry intervened?
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Correct answer: D — Hong Kong
The relics were originally slated for auction in Hong Kong in May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Piprahwa relics: 1. They were discovered in 1898 by British civil engineer William Claxton Peppé. 2. Their repatriation in 2025 was made possible through a partnership between the Government of India and the Godrej Industries Group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are in the Culture Ministry release.
Where was the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) of the Ramsar Convention, which adopted India's wetlands resolution on 30 July 2025, held?
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Correct answer: C — Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe
Ramsar COP15 was held at Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe.
India's resolution adopted at Ramsar COP15 on 30 July 2025 was titled:
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Correct answer: B — Promoting Sustainable Lifestyles for the Wise Use of Wetlands
The resolution was 'Promoting Sustainable Lifestyles for the Wise Use of Wetlands'.
According to the Environment Ministry, India's resolution at Ramsar COP15 received support from how many Ramsar Contracting Parties?
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Correct answer: A — 172
The release says the resolution received support from the 172 Ramsar Contracting Parties.
How many chip-design projects had been sanctioned under the Design Linked Incentive scheme, as stated by MeitY on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 23
MeitY said 23 chip-design projects had been sanctioned under DLI.
What is the outlay of the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme under the Semicon India Programme?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,000 crore
The DLI scheme has an outlay of ₹1,000 crore within the ₹76,000-crore Semicon India Programme.
Consider the following statements about the Design Linked Incentive scheme: 1. It offers a product design incentive of up to 50% of eligible costs, capped at ₹15 crore per application. 2. Chip designs from academic institutions under the scheme have been fabricated at SCL, Mohali. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the cap is ₹15 crore per application, and 20 designs from 17 institutions were fabricated at SCL, Mohali.
The 13th India–UAE Joint Defence Cooperation Committee meeting held in New Delhi on 30 July 2025 was notable because it was:
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Correct answer: A — Held at Secretary level for the first time
The Defence Ministry said the 13th JDCC was held at Secretary level for the first time.
At the 13th India–UAE JDCC, joint manufacturing models were discussed along the lines of the collaboration between ICOMM (India) and which UAE company for small arms?
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Correct answer: D — CARACAL
The release cites the ICOMM (India)–CARACAL (UAE) collaboration for small arms production.
Which Indian Navy ship arrived in Singapore for SIMBEX-25, as reported on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — INS Satpura
INS Satpura arrived in Singapore to participate in SIMBEX-25.
SIMBEX-25, for which INS Satpura reached Singapore in July 2025, was which edition of the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise?
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Correct answer: A — 32nd
The Defence Ministry release calls SIMBEX-25 the 32nd edition of the exercise.
How many mobile handsets had been recovered through the Sanchar Saathi portal, as stated in the Lok Sabha on 30 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 5 lakh
The Minister said over 5 lakh mobile handsets had been recovered through Sanchar Saathi.
As per the Communications Minister's statement of 30 July 2025, what is BSNL's subscriber base?
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Correct answer: C — 9.1 crore
The Minister said BSNL's subscriber base had grown to 9.1 crore.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, whose key provisions took effect on 1 August 2025, the threshold for 'substantial interest' was raised from ₹5 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2 crore
PIB (30 July 2025): the 'substantial interest' threshold was redefined from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore, a limit unchanged since 1968.
The maximum tenure of directors (other than the chairperson and whole-time director) in cooperative banks was raised from 8 years to 10 years to align with which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 97th Amendment
PIB: the change aligns director tenures in cooperative banks with the 97th Constitutional Amendment.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations. 2. It was notified in the Gazette on 15 April 2025. 3. All its provisions came into force on the date of its notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: 19 amendments across five laws; notified 15 April 2025. Provisions come into force on dates appointed by the Centre; S.O. 3494(E) appointed 1 August 2025 for specific sections, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the amended law, public sector banks may transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to which fund, in line with companies under the Companies Act?
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Correct answer: D — Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)
PIB: PSBs can now transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF), bringing them in line with companies.
The Akhil Bharatiya Shiksha Samagam 2025, inaugurated on 29 July 2025, commemorated:
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Correct answer: D — 5 years of the National Education Policy 2020
PIB (29 July 2025): Dharmendra Pradhan inaugurated ABSS 2025 in New Delhi to commemorate 5 years of NEP 2020.
Projects worth how much were unveiled by Dharmendra Pradhan at the Akhil Bharatiya Shiksha Samagam 2025?
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Correct answer: A — More than ₹4,000 crore
PIB: Dharmendra Pradhan unveiled projects worth more than ₹4,000 crore, including new initiatives, campus inaugurations and foundation stones.
Consider the following statements about the National Education Policy 2020: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 July 2020. 2. It replaced the National Policy on Education, 1986. 3. It replaces the 10+2 school structure with a 5+3+3+4 structure covering ages 6-18. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (29 July 2020): the Cabinet approved NEP 2020 that day, replacing the NPE 1986. The 5+3+3+4 structure covers ages 3-18 (3-8, 8-11, 11-14, 14-18), not 6-18, so statement 3 is wrong.
As stated on Global Tiger Day 2025, the number of tiger reserves in India has grown from 46 in 2014 to:
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Correct answer: B — 58
PIB (29 July 2025): tiger reserves increased from 46 in 2014 to 58.
Where were the national Global Tiger Day 2025 celebrations presided over by Bhupender Yadav held?
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Correct answer: D — National Zoological Park, New Delhi
PIB: the celebrations were held at the National Zoological Park, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements made on Global Tiger Day 2025: 1. Over 1 lakh saplings will be planted across all 58 tiger reserves. 2. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) has 24 countries on board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: over 1 lakh saplings across all 58 tiger reserves; 24 countries on board IBCA. Both are correct.
As per telecom subscription data as on 30 June 2025, India's overall tele-density was about:
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Correct answer: D — 86.09%
PIB (29 July 2025): overall tele-density was 86.09% (urban 133.56%, rural 59.43%).
How many broadband subscribers did India have as on 30 June 2025, as per the Ministry of Communications?
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Correct answer: A — 979.71 million
PIB: total broadband subscribers were 979.71 million (935.02 million wireless + 44.69 million wireline). 1,218.36 million is total telephone subscribers.
According to the Quick Estimate released on 28 July 2025, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.5%
MoSPI/PIB (28 July 2025): IIP growth for June 2025 was 1.5%, against 1.2% (QE) in May 2025.
In the IIP for June 2025, which sector recorded positive growth?
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Correct answer: D — Manufacturing
PIB: sectoral growth in June 2025 was mining -8.7%, manufacturing 3.9% and electricity -2.6%. Only manufacturing grew.
Under the revised release calendar announced with the June 2025 data, the Quick Estimate of IIP will be released on:
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Correct answer: C — The 28th of every month (or next working day if a holiday)
PIB: as per the revised calendar, the Quick Estimate of IIP will now be released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday.
Consider the following statements about the IIP Quick Estimate for June 2025: 1. It was compiled on base year 2011-12=100. 2. The index stood at 153.3, against 151.0 in June 2024. 3. Mining output contracted by 2.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: base 2011-12=100; index 153.3 against 151.0 in June 2024. Mining contracted 8.7%; the 2.6% fall was in electricity, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Foundation Day of the Ministry of Earth Sciences was marked on 28 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 19th
PIB (28 July 2025): the 19th Foundation Day of the Ministry of Earth Sciences was marked at an event in New Delhi.
As stated at the MoES Foundation Day 2025, the number of Doppler weather radars in India has increased from 15 to:
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Correct answer: D — 41
PIB: Jitendra Singh noted that Doppler weather radars had increased from just 15 to 41.
Consider the following statements about the products launched on the 19th Foundation Day of MoES: 1. 14 products and initiatives were launched, including BharatFS-ERP. 2. They included seismic microzonation studies of four Indian cities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: 14 major products and initiatives were launched, including BharatFS-ERP and seismic microzonation studies of four Indian cities. Both correct.
As of 22 July 2025, how many unorganised workers had registered on the e-Shram portal?
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Correct answer: D — Over 30.95 crore
PIB (28 July 2025): as of 22 July 2025, over 30.95 crore unorganised workers had registered on e-Shram.
Consider the following statements about the e-Shram portal: 1. It was launched on 26 August 2021 to create a National Database of Unorganised Workers seeded with Aadhaar. 2. The e-Shram 'One-Stop-Solution' was launched on 21 October 2024 and 14 Central schemes have been integrated with it so far. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: e-Shram was launched on 26 August 2021 for an Aadhaar-seeded NDUW; the One-Stop-Solution was launched on 21 October 2024 and 14 schemes have been integrated. Both correct.
Under MNRE's amendment of 28 July 2025, the ALMM requirement for solar PV cells becomes mandatory:
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Correct answer: C — One month after the ALMM list for solar PV cells is published
PIB (28 July 2025): ALMM for solar PV cells will be mandatory only one month after publication of the ALMM list for cells; the 1 June 2026 date for commissioned projects is unchanged.
As per MNRE (July 2025), India's domestic solar manufacturing capacity stands at:
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Correct answer: B — 91 GW modules and 27 GW cells
PIB: domestic solar manufacturing currently stands at 91 GW of solar PV modules and 27 GW of solar PV cells.
As per kharif sowing data as on 25 July 2025, rice area was 245.13 lakh hectare. By how much was this higher than a year earlier?
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Correct answer: A — 28.97 lakh hectare
PIB (28 July 2025): rice area was 245.13 lakh ha against 216.16 lakh ha in 2024-25, an increase of 28.97 lakh ha.
Which kharif crop group showed a decline in area coverage as on 25 July 2025 compared with a year earlier?
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Correct answer: D — Oilseeds
PIB: oilseeds area fell by 3.83 lakh ha (soybean down 4.68), while rice, pulses and coarse cereals rose.
As per the Commerce Ministry (28 July 2025), India's leather and footwear exports to the UK under CETA are likely to double in three years to:
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Correct answer: C — USD 1 billion
PIB: India's leather and footwear exports to the UK are likely to double to USD 1 billion in three years. USD 8.7 billion is the size of the UK's leather and footwear market.
Which GI products were cited by the Commerce Ministry as gaining visibility in the UK market under the India-UK CETA?
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Correct answer: B — Kolhapuri footwear and Mojari
PIB: CETA is expected to boost the visibility of GI products like Kolhapuri footwear and Mojari in the UK's USD 8.7 billion leather and footwear market.
The Central Reserve Police Force, which marks its Raising Day on 27 July, was originally raised in 1939 under what name?
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Correct answer: C — Crown Representative's Police
CRPF: the force was established as the Crown Representative's Police in 1939 and renamed CRPF after independence.
Consider the following statements about the CRPF: 1. It was raised at Neemuch, Madhya Pradesh. 2. It was renamed the Central Reserve Police Force by an Act dated 28 December 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
CRPF: the force was raised at Neemuch, MP, as the Crown Representative's Police; on 28 December 1949 it was renamed CRPF by an Act of Parliament (CRPF Act, 1949, Act No. 66 of 1949). Both correct.
With which country/territory does India have a Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products, as stated by APEDA in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Taiwan
PIB (27 July 2025): NPOP crop standards are recognised by the European Commission and Switzerland and accepted by Great Britain; there is an MRA for organic products with Taiwan.
Consider the following statements about the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP): 1. It was launched in 2001 by the Department of Commerce, with APEDA as its Secretariat. 2. Grower group certification under it began in 2005 for small and marginal farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: NPOP was launched in 2001 by the Department of Commerce, APEDA is its Secretariat, and grower group certification was launched in 2005. Both correct.
As mentioned in Mann Ki Baat (27 July 2025), UNESCO recognised 12 Maratha forts as World Heritage Sites. How are they distributed?
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Correct answer: B — 11 in Maharashtra and 1 in Tamil Nadu
PIB (Mann Ki Baat, 27 July 2025): UNESCO has recognised 12 Maratha forts as World Heritage Sites, eleven in Maharashtra and one in Tamil Nadu.
As per Mann Ki Baat (27 July 2025), Indian students at the International Mathematical Olympiad held in Australia won:
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Correct answer: A — 3 gold, 2 silver and 1 bronze
PIB: in the International Mathematical Olympiad held in Australia, Indian students won 3 gold, 2 silver and 1 bronze medal.
The 'Gyan Bharatam Mission', highlighted in the 124th Mann Ki Baat, aims to:
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Correct answer: D — Digitise ancient manuscripts
PIB: under the Gyan Bharatam Mission, announced in this year's Budget, ancient manuscripts will be digitised.
On 26 July 2025, PM Modi attended which anniversary of Maldives' independence as Guest of Honour?
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Correct answer: A — 60th
PIB (26 July 2025): the PM attended the 60th anniversary celebrations of the independence of Maldives as Guest of Honour.
Where in Male did PM Modi and President Muizzu witness the Maldives Independence Day parade on 26 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Republic Square
PIB: the PM, accompanied by President Muizzu, witnessed the Independence Day parade at Republic Square.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's participation in Maldives' Independence Day on 26 July 2025: 1. He is the first Indian Prime Minister to attend the Maldives' Independence Day celebrations. 2. He is the first foreign Head of State or Government to be hosted by President Mohamed Muizzu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
PIB: this is the first time an Indian PM attended the Independence Day celebrations in Maldives, and Modi is the first foreign leader at the level of Head of State or Government hosted by President Muizzu. Both correct.
The year 2025, in which PM Modi attended Maldives' Independence Day, also marks how many years of diplomatic relations between India and Maldives?
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Correct answer: D — 60 years
PIB: the year 2025 also marks 60 years of the establishment of diplomatic relations between India and Maldives.
The Independence Day parade in Male attended by PM Modi on 26 July 2025 showcased which force, along with other local units?
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Correct answer: A — Maldivian National Defence Forces
PIB: the celebrations showcased a parade by the Maldivian National Defence Forces and other local units.
TEMA India Ltd's facility commissioned on 26 July 2025 is India's first private test facility for:
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Correct answer: D — Upgradation of depleted heavy water
PIB (26 July 2025): TEMA India commissioned the country's first private test facility for the upgradation of depleted heavy water.
Consider the following statements about the TEMA India facility (July 2025): 1. It was built under technology transfer from BARC and a purchase order from NPCIL. 2. Its first consignment of distillation column sections is meant for Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors. 3. Before this, such testing infrastructure existed only with NPCIL. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the facility was built under BARC technology transfer and an NPCIL purchase order, and the modules are for PHWRs. Until now the testing infrastructure existed solely within BARC, not NPCIL, so statement 3 is wrong.
The first consignment from TEMA India's depleted heavy water test facility, commissioned on 26 July 2025, comprised distillation column sections for PHWRs including which units?
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Correct answer: C — Kaiga Units 5 & 6
Kaiga Units 5 & 6; the first consignment had eight distillation column sections.
What was the value of the Line of Credit extended by India to Maldives during PM Modi's State Visit in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,850 crore
PIB List of Outcomes: extension of a Line of Credit of INR 4,850 crore to Maldives.
Which Indian entity signed a network-to-network agreement with the Maldives Monetary Authority on UPI in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — NPCI International Payment Limited (NIPL)
PIB List of Outcomes: Network-to-Network Agreement between India's NPCI International Payment Limited (NIPL) and Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA) on UPI in Maldives.
The India-Maldives Joint Vision whose implementation PM Modi and President Muizzu reviewed on 25 July 2025 is titled:
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Correct answer: C — Comprehensive Economic and Maritime Security Partnership
PIB (25 July 2025): the leaders took stock of the India-Maldives Joint Vision for a 'Comprehensive Economic and Maritime Security Partnership', adopted during President Muizzu's State Visit to India in October 2024.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's State Visit to Maldives (July 2025): 1. Launch of India-Maldives Free Trade Agreement negotiations. 2. An MoU on recognition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia by Maldives. 3. An amendatory agreement reducing Maldives' annual debt repayment obligations on GoI-funded Lines of Credit. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB List of Outcomes lists the launch of IMFTA negotiations, the MoU on recognition of Indian Pharmacopoeia, and the amendatory agreement on reducing annual debt repayment obligations. All correct.
How many social housing units in Hulhumale, built under India's Buyers' Credit facilities, were handed over during PM Modi's Maldives visit (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 3,300
PIB List of Outcomes: handing-over of 3,300 social housing units in Hulhumale under India's Buyers' Credit facilities.
The Air Defence Fire Control Radars contracted from BEL on 25 July 2025 were procured under which category?
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Correct answer: C — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
PIB (25 July 2025): procurement under the Buy (Indian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured) category.
What is the minimum indigenous content of the Air Defence Fire Control Radars ordered from BEL in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 70%
PIB: with minimum 70% indigenous content, the radars will detect all forms of air-borne threats.
Which body administers the Atal Pension Yojana, whose gross enrolments crossed 8 crore in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — PFRDA
PIB (25 July 2025): APY, a flagship social security scheme administered by PFRDA, surpassed 8 crore gross enrolments.
What is the eligible entry age for the Atal Pension Yojana?
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Correct answer: B — 18-40 years
PIB: APY is open to all Indian citizens between 18-40 years, except those who are or have been income tax payers.
The India-Maldives commemorative stamps released on 25 July 2025 depict the Indian 'Uru' boat, handcrafted in the boatyards of:
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Correct answer: C — Beypore, Kerala
PIB (25 July 2025): the stamps depict the Indian boat Uru, a large wooden dhow handcrafted in the historic boatyards of Beypore, Kerala, and the Maldivian Vadhu Dhoni.
Which building in Male, constructed with India's financial assistance, was jointly inaugurated by PM Modi and President Muizzu on 25 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Defence building
PIB (25 July 2025): the leaders jointly inaugurated the eleven-storey Ministry of Defence building of Maldives in Male, built with India's financial assistance.
Under what name did the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme come into effect from 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
PIB (25 July 2025): the ELI Scheme will come into effect from 1 August 2025 as the 'PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY)'.
What is the outlay of the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana?
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Correct answer: C — ₹99,446 crore
PIB: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, PM-VBRY aims to incentivise the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Consider the following statements about PM-VBRY: 1. Part A offers first-time EPFO-registered employees one month's EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments. 2. Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000 per month for two years for each additional employee with sustained employment of at least six months. 3. Benefits apply to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (25 July 2025): Part A gives one month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments; Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000/month for two years per additional employee sustained for six months; benefits apply to jobs created between 1 Aug 2025 and 31 Jul 2027. All correct.
Who signed the India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement on behalf of India on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Piyush Goyal
PIB (24 July 2025): the agreement was signed by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal and UK Secretary of State for Business and Trade Jonathan Reynolds, in the presence of the two Prime Ministers.
Under the India-UK CETA, zero-duty access is available on what share of tariff lines?
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Correct answer: A — 99%
PIB: zero-duty access on 99% of tariff lines, covering nearly 100% of the trade value.
The signing of the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025 followed the conclusion of negotiations announced on:
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Correct answer: D — 6 May 2025
PIB (24 July 2025): the signing of the India-UK CETA follows the successful conclusion of negotiations announced on 6 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India-UK CETA (July 2025): 1. India-UK bilateral trade stands at nearly USD 56 billion, with a goal to double it by 2030. 2. The Double Contribution Convention will exempt Indian workers and their employers from UK social security contributions for three years. 3. The agreement was signed by the two Prime Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: trade is nearly USD 56 billion with a goal to double by 2030, and the DCC will exempt Indian workers and employers from UK social security contributions for three years. The agreement was signed by Piyush Goyal and Jonathan Reynolds in the presence of the two PMs, so 3 is wrong.
Which UK minister signed the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade
PIB: the agreement was signed by Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade; Rachel Reeves was present.