UP Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under MNRE's revised Waste-to-Energy guidelines (June 2025), what share of the total Central Financial Assistance can be released after the plant obtains Consent to Operate from the State Pollution Control Board?
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Correct answer: D — 50%
MNRE: 50% of total CFA will be released after obtaining the Consent to Operate certificate from the SPCB, against a bank guarantee.
The Biomass Programme whose guidelines MNRE revised in June 2025 is part of which programme?
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Correct answer: A — Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme
MNRE: the revised guidelines are for the Biomass Programme under Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme (FY 2021-22 to 2025-26).
Consider the following statements about MNRE's revised bioenergy guidelines of June 2025: 1. Under Waste-to-Energy, the balance CFA is released on achieving 80% of rated capacity or the maximum CFA-eligible capacity, whichever is lesser. 2. Under the Biomass Programme, the two-year briquette or pellet sale contract has been replaced with a general sale agreement. 3. Under the Biomass Programme, SCADA-based monitoring has been made mandatory for all plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MNRE: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: IoT-based monitoring or quarterly data submission is allowed instead of expensive systems like SCADA.
Scientists of which institute found that teak leaf extract can act as a natural, biodegradable laser shield (reported 27 June 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Raman Research Institute
PIB (DST): scientists at the Raman Research Institute (RRI), an autonomous institute funded by DST, uncovered the use of teak leaves.
Which natural pigment in teak leaves shows the nonlinear optical properties that make the extract suitable for optical power-limiting?
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Correct answer: D — Anthocyanins
PIB (DST): teak leaves are rich in anthocyanins, natural pigments whose nonlinear optical properties make the extract suitable for optical power-limiting.
As per telecom subscription data as of 31 May 2025, what was India's overall tele-density?
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Correct answer: D — 85.36%
PIB (TRAI data): overall tele-density as of 31 May 2025 was 85.36%.
What was the total number of telephone subscribers (wireless plus wireline) in India as of 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,207.08 million
PIB: total telephone subscribers were 1,207.08 million. 1,168.42 million is wireless only, 974.87 million is broadband, and 1,080.06 million is active wireless on peak VLR date.
Consider the following statements based on telecom subscription data for May 2025: 1. Rural tele-density stood at 59.33%. 2. About 14.03 million mobile number portability requests were submitted in May 2025. 3. Wireline subscribers declined during May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: wireline subscribers grew by 1.25 million (3.34%) in May 2025.
The report 'Skills for the Future: Transforming India's Workforce Landscape', unveiled on 27 June 2025, was prepared by which organisation?
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Correct answer: C — Institute for Competitiveness
PIB: the report was developed independently by the Institute for Competitiveness (IFC).
According to the 'Skills for the Future' report based on PLFS 2023-24 data, what share of India's workforce is in low-competency occupations?
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Correct answer: D — 88%
PIB: PLFS-based analysis shows that in 2023-24, 88% of India's workforce is in low-competency occupations, while only 10-12% are in high-competency roles.
The 'Adi Karmayogi' programme, whose Beta version was launched on 27 June 2025, belongs to which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Tribal Affairs
PIB: Union Tribal Affairs Minister Jual Oram launched the Ministry's flagship programme Adi Karmayogi Beta version.
The Adi Karmayogi Beta version aims at capacity building of nearly how many stakeholders?
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Correct answer: B — 20 lakh
PIB: the Adi Karmayogi Beta version will enable capacity building of nearly 20 lakh stakeholders.
Consider the following statements about the Adi Karmayogi Beta version: 1. It targets reaching 1 lakh tribal villages and habitations. 2. It was launched at the national conference 'Adi Anveshan' held at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi. 3. Its training framework includes about 3,000 State Master Trainers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the framework has more than 180 State Master Trainers; 3,000 is the number of District Trainers.
To which module of the International Space Station did the Axiom Mission 4 Dragon dock on 26 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Harmony module (space-facing port)
NASA: the spacecraft docked to the space-facing port of the space station's Harmony module.
After the hatch opened on 26 June 2025, who was the first Axiom-4 crew member to enter the International Space Station?
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Correct answer: A — Commander Peggy Whitson
NASA: Ax-4 Commander Peggy Whitson was the first to enter the station after the hatch opened, followed by Pilot Shubhanshu Shukla.
Which institutions conduct the Axiom-4 experiment studying the germination of sprouting moong and methi seeds in space, as described by Dr. Jitendra Singh?
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Correct answer: C — UAS Dharwad and IIT Dharwad
PIB: the second experiment, by UAS Dharwad and IIT Dharwad, investigates the germination and nutritional properties of sprouting moong and methi seeds. ICGEB and BRIC-NIPGR lead the microalgae experiment.
Consider the following statements about the Axiom-4 arrival at the ISS: 1. The Dragon docked to the space-facing port of the Harmony module. 2. After the arrival, eleven people were aboard the station, including seven Expedition 73 crew members. 3. The mission had launched from Vandenberg Space Force Base, California. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
NASA: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Ax-4 launched from Launch Complex 39A at NASA's Kennedy Space Center, Florida.
In which Chinese city was the SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting attended by Rajnath Singh held in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Qingdao
PIB: Rajnath Singh addressed the SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting at Qingdao, China on 26 June 2025.
Who was the Chinese counterpart with whom Rajnath Singh held a bilateral meeting on the sidelines of the SCO meeting in Qingdao on 26 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Admiral Dong Jun
PIB: Rajnath Singh held a bilateral meeting with his Chinese counterpart Admiral Dong Jun in Qingdao on 26 June 2025.
In his meeting with Admiral Dong Jun, Rajnath Singh appreciated the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra after a gap of how many years?
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Correct answer: A — Five
PIB: Raksha Mantri appreciated the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra after a gap of five years.
Consider the following statements about the SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting in Qingdao (June 2025): 1. Rajnath Singh said The Resistance Front, a proxy of UN-designated Lashkar-e-Taiba, claimed responsibility for the Pahalgam attack. 2. According to the MEA, the joint statement was not adopted because India's concerns on terrorism were not acceptable to one particular country. 3. The MEA spokesperson publicly named the country that objected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is from Singh's address (PIB). Statement 2 is the MEA spokesperson's line (Reuters, Indian Express). Statement 3 is wrong: Randhir Jaiswal did not name the country.
How many Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) did the ECI start proceedings to delist on 26 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 345
ECI: proceedings were started for delisting 345 RUPPs which had not contested any election since 2019 and whose offices could not be located.
Political parties in India are registered with the Election Commission under which provision?
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Correct answer: D — Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
ECI: political parties (National/State/RUPPs) are registered with the ECI under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's RUPP delisting exercise of June 2025: 1. The identified parties had not contested any election since 2019. 2. Over 2,800 RUPPs are currently registered with the ECI. 3. The final decision on delisting rests with the Chief Electoral Officers of the States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
ECI: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: CEOs issue show-cause notices, but the final decision on delisting is taken by the Election Commission of India.
Where is the CEL–ESDS 'Green Data Centre', whose foundation stone was laid on 26 June 2025, located?
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Correct answer: D — Sahibabad, Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh
PIB: the foundation stone of the Green Data Centre, a collaboration between CEL and ESDS, was laid at Sahibabad, Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh.
What is the capacity of the CEL–ESDS Green Data Centre project at Sahibabad?
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Correct answer: C — 30 MW
PIB: the project, with 30 MW capacity, entails an investment of about ₹1,000 crore.
Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited, inaugurated on 26 June 2025 as India's first maritime NBFC, was formerly known as what?
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Correct answer: B — Sagarmala Development Company Limited
PIB: formerly known as Sagarmala Development Company Limited, SMFCL is India's first NBFC in the maritime sector.
What CPSE status does Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL) hold?
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Correct answer: A — Mini Ratna Category-I
PIB: SMFCL is a Mini Ratna, Category-I, Central Public Sector Enterprise.
At what time (IST) did Axiom Mission 4 lift off on 25 June 2025, according to ISRO?
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Correct answer: B — 12:01 IST
ISRO: the mission lifted off from Launch Complex 39A at the Kennedy Space Centre at 12:01 Hrs IST aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9.
Which ISRO astronaut from the Gaganyaan pool was nominated as the backup crew member for Axiom Mission 4?
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Correct answer: C — Prashanth B. Nair
ISRO: Prashanth B. Nair, also an ISRO astronaut from the Gaganyaan pool, was nominated as the backup crew member.
ISRO said the Axiom-4 mission follows the legacy of international cooperation that sent Rakesh Sharma to space in 1984. Aboard which spacecraft did he fly?
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Correct answer: A — Soviet Soyuz
ISRO: the mission follows the legacy of international cooperation that sent Rakesh Sharma to space in 1984 aboard the Soviet Soyuz.
Consider the following statements about the launch of Axiom Mission 4: 1. The mission lifted off from Launch Complex 39A at the Kennedy Space Center. 2. It was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket. 3. A launch scheduled on 19 June 2025 had been called off before the eventual launch. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
ISRO: all three are correct. Lift-off was from LC-39A, KSC, on a Falcon 9, and the launch scheduled on 19 June was called off to resolve issues.
Which authority will develop the ₹417 crore Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC 2.0) approved at Gautam Buddha Nagar in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA)
PIB: the approved EMC 2.0 project will be developed by the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA).
How many jobs is the Gautam Buddha Nagar EMC 2.0 expected to generate, according to Ashwini Vaishnaw?
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Correct answer: B — 15,000
PIB: Ashwini Vaishnaw said the project will create world-class infrastructure and generate 15,000 jobs.
Where will the International Potato Centre (CIP)'s South Asia Regional Centre, approved by the Cabinet on 25 June 2025, be set up?
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Correct answer: D — Singna, Agra, Uttar Pradesh
PIB: the CIP South Asia Regional Centre is being established at Singna, Agra, Uttar Pradesh.
The International Potato Center (CIP) is headquartered in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Lima, Peru
CIP: headquartered in Lima, Peru, CIP has a research presence in more than 20 countries.
Consider the following statements about the International Potato Center (CIP): 1. Its work focuses on potato, sweetpotato and Andean roots and tubers. 2. It is a CGIAR research centre. 3. It was founded in 1991. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
CIP: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: CIP was founded in 1971.
Where was the 25th meeting of the Central Zonal Council held on 24 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Varanasi
PIB: Amit Shah chaired the 25th meeting of the Central Zonal Council in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
Consider the following statements about Zonal Councils: 1. Five Zonal Councils were established under Sections 15 to 22 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. 2. The Union Home Minister is the chairperson of all five Zonal Councils. 3. The Chief Minister of one member state, rotating every year, acts as the vice-chairperson. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: five Zonal Councils were established under Sections 15 to 22 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956; the Union Home Minister chairs all five; the CM of one member state (rotating every year) is vice-chairperson. All three are correct.
Chief Ministers of which of the following states attended the 25th Central Zonal Council meeting on 24 June 2025? 1. Uttarakhand 2. Chhattisgarh 3. Rajasthan Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the meeting was attended by the Chief Ministers of Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh; Rajasthan was not among them. So 1 and 2 only.
How many issues were discussed at the 25th meeting of the Central Zonal Council in Varanasi?
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Correct answer: C — 19
PIB: a total of 19 issues were discussed in the meeting, including several matters of national importance.
To what amount did EPFO raise the auto-settlement limit for advance claims in June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5 lakh
PIB: EPFO increased the auto-settlement limit for advance claims from the existing ₹1 lakh to ₹5 lakh.
How many advance claims did EPFO process through auto-settlement in FY 2024–25, a record according to the Labour Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — 2.34 crore
PIB: in FY 2024–25 EPFO processed a record 2.34 crore advance claims through auto-settlement, up 161% over the previous year.
What is the minimum investment required from approved applicants under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,150 crore
PIB: approved applicants would be required to make a minimum investment of Rs. 4,150 crore (₹4,150 crore).
Under SPMEPCI, approved applicants may import completely built-up electric four-wheelers with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at what reduced customs duty?
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Correct answer: C — 15%
PIB: approved applicants can import CBUs of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for 5 years.
Consider the following statements about SPMEPCI: 1. The scheme was notified on 15 March 2024. 2. Its detailed guidelines were issued through Notification S.O. 2450(E) dated 2 June 2025. 3. The application portal opened on 24 June 2025 will remain open until 21 October 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: the scheme was notified on 15 March 2024, guidelines were issued via S.O. 2450(E) dated 02.06.2025, and the portal is open from 24 June 2025 until 21 October 2025. All three are correct.
Who authorised the CDS & Secretary, Department of Military Affairs, to issue Joint Instructions and Joint Orders for the three Services in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Raksha Mantri
PIB: Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh authorised the CDS & Secretary, DMA, to issue Joint Instructions and Joint Orders for all three Services.
Consider the following statements: 1. Before June 2025, instructions or orders pertaining to two or more Services were issued by each Service separately. 2. The first Joint Order, released on 24 June 2025, was on 'Approval, Promulgation and Numbering of Joint Instructions and Joint Orders'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: the change marks a shift from the earlier system in which Instructions/Orders pertaining to two or more Services were issued by each Service separately, and the first Joint Order on 'Approval, Promulgation and Numbering of Joint Instructions and Joint Orders' was released on 24 June 2025. Both are correct.
Where was the NAVYA vocational training initiative for adolescent girls launched on 24 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sonbhadra
PIB: MWCD, in convergence with MSDE, launched NAVYA in Sonbhadra, Uttar Pradesh.
NAVYA aims to equip adolescent girls of which age group with vocational training?
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Correct answer: A — 16 to 18 years
PIB: the NAVYA programme aims to equip adolescent girls aged 16 to 18 years with vocational training, mainly in non-traditional and emerging job roles.
Where was the 9th India–South Africa Joint Defence Committee meeting held on 23–24 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Johannesburg
PIB: the 9th Joint Defence Committee (JDC) meeting was held in Johannesburg on June 23 & 24, 2025.
India–South Africa defence collaboration dates back to an MoU on 'Cooperation in the field of Defence Equipment' signed in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1996
PIB: defence collaboration dates back to 1996, when the MoU on 'Cooperation in the field of Defence Equipment' was signed; it was upgraded by an MoU in 2000.
Who chairs the Technical Expert Group constituted by MoSPI to guide the all-India Household Income Survey?
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Correct answer: A — Surjit S. Bhalla
PIB: MoSPI constituted a Technical Expert Group under the Chairmanship of Dr. Surjit S. Bhalla, former Executive Director of India, IMF.
In which year was the first survey of the National Sample Survey (NSS) launched, as noted by MoSPI?
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Correct answer: B — 1950
PIB: the first survey was launched in 1950, and since then NSS has provided data-driven insights for policymaking.
To which date was the cut-off for exercising the option under the Unified Pension Scheme extended in June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30 September 2025
PIB: the Government decided to extend the cut-off date for exercising the option for UPS by three months, i.e., up to 30th September 2025 (30 September 2025).
Consider the following statements about the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS): 1. UPS was notified by the Ministry of Finance on 24 January 2025. 2. PFRDA notified the regulations operationalising UPS under NPS on 1 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: UPS was notified by the Ministry of Finance on 24 January 2025, but PFRDA notified the operationalisation regulations on 19 March 2025, not 1 April 2025. So 1 only.
SECI's green ammonia tender, highlighted on 23 June 2025, calls for the supply of how much green ammonia annually?
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Correct answer: B — 7,24,000 tonnes
PIB: the tender calls for production and supply of 724,000 tonnes (7,24,000 tonnes) of green ammonia annually across 13 fertilizer plants.
Under which scheme component has SECI issued its green ammonia tender for fertilizer plants?
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Correct answer: A — SIGHT Scheme Mode 2A, Tranche I
PIB: the tender is under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) Scheme Mode 2A, Tranche I.
Consider the following statements about SECI's green ammonia tender: 1. SECI is a Navratna CPSU under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. 2. SECI will sign offtake agreements for a 10-year contract period. 3. The tender covers supply to 13 fertilizer plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: SECI is a 'Navratna' CPSU under MNRE; it will sign long-term offtake agreements over a 10-year contract period; supply is across 13 fertilizer plants. All three are correct.
Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar addressed the 99th Annual Meet and National Conference of Vice Chancellors on 23 June 2025. Which body organised it?
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Correct answer: C — Association of Indian Universities (AIU)
PIB: the 99th Annual Meet and National Conference of Vice Chancellors (2024–2025) was organised by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU) at Gautam Buddha Nagar.
The slogan 'Ek Vidhan, Ek Nishan, Ek Pradhan', recalled by the Vice-President on 23 June 2025, was given by whom during a campaign in Jammu and Kashmir in 1952?
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Correct answer: A — Syama Prasad Mookerjee
PIB: the Vice-President said Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee gave the slogan 'Ek Vidhan, Ek Nishan, Ek Pradhan' during the campaign in Jammu and Kashmir in 1952.
Consider the following statements made by the Vice-President on 23 June 2025: 1. Article 370 was abrogated on 5 August 2019. 2. The legal challenge to the abrogation failed in the Supreme Court on 11 December 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: the Vice-President said Article 370 was abrogated on 5th August 2019, and the legal challenge to the Supreme Court failed on 11 December 2023. Both are correct.
Where was the India-Africa Commemorative Pillar unveiled on 23 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mile 27, Taita Taveta County
PIB: Sanjay Seth and Roselinda Soipan Tuya jointly unveiled the India-Africa Commemorative Pillar at Mile 27, Taita Taveta County, Kenya.
The India-Africa Commemorative Pillar in Kenya honours soldiers who died in which conflict?
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Correct answer: A — World War I in the East African theatre
PIB: the ceremony honoured unknown Indian and African soldiers who laid down their lives during World War I in the East African theatre.
Where was the 40th anniversary of the Air India Kanishka bombing commemorated on 23 June 2025, with Hardeep Singh Puri in attendance?
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Correct answer: A — Ahakista, Cork, Ireland
PIB: Hardeep Singh Puri spoke at the commemoration of the 40th anniversary of the Air India Flight 182 (Kanishka) bombing in Ahakista, Cork, Ireland.
How many people on board were killed when the Kanishka aircraft was destroyed by a bomb on 23 June 1985?
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Correct answer: C — 329
PIB: Air India Flight 182 was destroyed mid-air by a bomb planted by Canada-based terrorists, killing all 329 on board, including over 80 children.
The 1985 Kanishka bombing destroyed which Air India flight?
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Correct answer: D — Flight 182
PIB: the commemoration marked the 40th anniversary of the Air India Flight 182 (Kanishka) bombing.
How many net members did EPFO add in April 2025, as per provisional payroll data released on 22 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 19.14 lakh
PIB: EPFO's provisional payroll data for April 2025 revealed a net addition of 19.14 lakh members.
Which state led net payroll additions in EPFO's April 2025 data, adding 21.12% of the total?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
PIB: of all the states, Maharashtra is leading by adding 21.12% of net payroll during the month.
What share of EPFO's new subscribers in April 2025 belonged to the 18–25 age group?
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Correct answer: A — 57.67%
PIB: EPFO added 4.89 lakh new subscribers in the 18–25 age group, constituting 57.67% of the total new subscribers added in April 2025.
With which Iranian leader did PM Narendra Modi hold a detailed conversation on the regional situation on 22 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Masoud Pezeshkian
PIB: PM Modi held a detailed conversation with the President of Iran, Dr. Masoud Pezeshkian, to discuss the prevailing situation in the region.
During his call with the Iranian President on 22 June 2025, what did PM Modi reiterate as the way forward?
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Correct answer: A — Immediate de-escalation, dialogue and diplomacy
PIB: the PM reiterated the call for immediate de-escalation, dialogue and diplomacy as the way forward and for early restoration of regional peace, security and stability.
INS Teg concluded her port call at which port on 22 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Port Louis
PIB: INS Teg concluded her port call at Port Louis, Mauritius on 22 Jun 2025.
During its deployment, INS Teg undertook coordinated surveillance of Mauritius's EEZ mainly to combat which activity?
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Correct answer: D — Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated (IUU) fishing
PIB: the joint EEZ surveillance with the Mauritius National Coast Guard reaffirmed a commitment to combating Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated (IUU) fishing.
A technical team from INS Teg helped operationalise a diesel generator on which Mauritius National Coast Guard ship?
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Correct answer: C — CGS Valiant
PIB: on a request from the NCG, a technical team from the ship assisted the crew of CGS Valiant in rectifying a defect and operationalising a diesel generator.
According to the Ministry of Ayush, yoga demonstrations for the 11th International Day of Yoga took place in how many countries?
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Correct answer: D — 191
PIB (Ayush): Globally, yoga demonstrations took place in 191 countries at approximately 1,300 locations outside India.
How many Yoga Sangam events were registered on the Yoga Portal across India for 21 June 2025, as per the Ministry of Ayush?
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Correct answer: A — 13.04 lakh
PIB (Ayush): Across India, 13.04 lakh Yoga Sangam events were registered till June 20th for June 21st on Yoga Portal.
Consider the following statements about the iconic yoga events for IDY 2025: 1. Yoga was performed atop the Chenab Rail Bridge in Jammu and Kashmir. 2. The Andaman and Nicobar Command celebrated yoga at Indira Point, India's southernmost tip. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Ayush): Yoga was performed atop the Chenab Rail Bridge (Jammu & Kashmir), and yoga was celebrated at Indira Point by the Andaman & Nicobar Command. So the answer is Both 1 and 2.
How many heritage sites under the Archaeological Survey of India hosted yoga sessions on International Day of Yoga 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 81
PIB (Culture): 81 heritage sites under the aegis of Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) hosted yoga sessions, organised in collaboration with the Ministry of Ayush.
On International Day of Yoga 2025, Prime Minister Modi said, "Let this Yoga Day mark the beginning of ____, where inner peace becomes global policy." Fill in the blank.
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Correct answer: D — Yoga for humanity 2.0
PIB (Culture): The PM said, "Let this Yoga Day mark the beginning of Yoga for humanity 2.0, where inner peace becomes global policy."